I do not wish to be argumentative, but I believe that some important points on the debate are left out. A large fraction of the New Testament written as letters to Greek-speakers across southeastern Europe by a man born in a Greek-speaking place (Paul). Not to mention that another large portion of the NT was written to someone called "Theophilus" which is an obviously Greek name. Second century sources place the writing place and original audience of Mark in Rome, where very few would have spoken Aramaic. Revelation was written particularly to seven Greek-speaking cities, suggesting that the author of the fourth Gospel and three epistles could write in Greek.A very basic understanding of the NT would suggest that at least 18 of the 27 NT books (14 Pauline epistles, Mark, Luke, Acts, Revelation) were not first written in Aramaic. This is not to mention that Hebrews quotes the Septuagint while writing to Jews outside of Israel, suggesting that either the author or more likely the audience was more familiar with the Greek translation of the OT than the original.Historical context (the first item on your list) ought to include geographical context. The writings of the NT are not diaries to be read only by the author. They were written to be read by people who in many cases spoke Greek more than Aramaic, as the immediate recipients of these writings were not primarily in Israel. The majority of the NT was written by Aramaic speaking Jews to Greek speaking people outside of Israel.The Greekophobe sentiment described in the "Did Jews Speak Greek?" video would not have been shared by the authors of the NT who in their own writing affirm that the message of the cross is for all people. At least after concluding that Christ is for all, these people would have been open to learning a language that enabled them to spread the gospel.
It is a Catholic myth that the Jews did not speak Hebrew at the time of Jesus. They say this to diminish the importance of Hebrew. Please read Acts 22:2, Luke 23:38. In newer translations they even changed the Greek Ἑβραϊκοῖς to English Aramaic
envie d'apprendre very well said... as you believe, I believe Matthew and John and maybe a few non-Pauline epistles were written in Hebrew or Aramaic first. The rest of the NT, was targeting Gentiles and Jews in the diaspora , so therefore would have only made sense to be written in the franca lingua of the time, Greek. I do believe Yeshua spoke Aramaic and Hebrew and so did His disciples but like you stated above, Luke was not a Jew and he was targeting Gentiles and Jews outside of Isreal, that goes for Mark as well. And it’s only common sense that Paul wrote in Greek , look at all the Greek Septuagint uses over the Hebrew texts at that time.
Assyrian Perspective so your throwing out all history and knowledge we have. First off you need to understand what a Lingua Franca is, it’s not a language spoken in a small part of the world like the Middle East... it is the language that is spoke most in an area and ADOPTED AND SPOKE MOST BY THOSE WHO SPEAK ANOTHER LANGUAGE. I do understand why you say Yeshuas lingua Franca is Aramaic .. because His parents were Hebrews and spoke Hebrew and then moved to the Galilee, where Aramaic had then infiltrated from Babylonian and Assyrian areas earlier... but when I say Lingua FrancA, I mean THE WORLDS lingua Franca.. the worlds most adopted language. Not Yeshuas or Galilee’s adopted language. What language was most spoken in the expanding world and Greek was that language. I personally don’t think Yeshua spoke much Greek, other then a few greetings and other Coine terms.. but my point in all these comments was THE WORLD SPOKE GREEK and it was put in the hearts of the gospel writers by the Holy Spirit, when the gospels were finally spread throughout the world, it was done in Greek, the language that was most known, the language that was forced on many by Alexander. It was the English of that day.. I UNDERSTAND YOUR POINT BY THE DEFINITION OF LINGUA FRANCA. But I guess I should of said THE WORLDS LANGUAGE or the MOST SPOKEN LANGUAGE
Assyrian Perspective Yeshua spoke Aramaic and Hebrew. Let me make this totally clear.. I’m an English writer, I’m writing a documentary story on a Brazilian Martial Arts fighter. So I’m writing his story and during some really main parts of his life , I use HIS SPOKEN LANGUAGE to convey the authenticity of the event. So I wrote the book in English , to reach the masses but because this Brazilian fighter speaks Portuguese , I use that language many times, when I quote him and his family and his trainer. DO YOU UNDERSTAND.?? Just because there’s Hebrew and Aramaic statements from characters in the New Testament doesn’t prove that those are the languages used to reach the nations . We would need history and archaeological proofs to do so. AND IN THAT CASE WE HAVE THOUSANDS OF GREEK COPIES and only a few LATER, Aramaic and Hebrew copies . Do you understand ????? I know Yeshua was a Hebrew. I study Hebrew it is my favorite language . I know the book of Matthew was written in Hebrew first as was the book of Hebrews , as stated by many church fathers, Origin, Clement and many many more .... but when it was finally put out to the whole world , even the book of Mattiyahu (Matthew) and Iverytim (Hebrews) were written in Greek , along with John, Luke, Acts , Paul’s Epistles ,other letters and Revelation. Revelation was written to seven Greek speaking churches, Paul’s letters the same, Luke and Acts were both written to someone named Theopolis, obviously a Greek name. I LOVE AND RESPECT THE HEBREWNESS OF SCRIPTURE but I’m also a realist and know that the scriptures had to be written in a language for all to understand and Aramaic and Hebrew were most likely used when targeting the local Jews but when targeting the Gentiles and the entire world Greek was used, just as if these events happened today, it would be written in English .
No no no. The apostles wrote nothing. Matthew mark Luke and john were not written by Matthew Mark Luke and John. They were written much later than Christ's crucifision.
The question is not whether or not Jesus spoke Aramaic. The question is what language did the writers themselves write their original gospels or letters. Just because Jesus spoke Aramaic, doesn't mean the writers wrote in Aramaic. You'd have to bring in the Septuagint into the conversation as well because the new testament writers and Jesus quotes either the Hebrew or Greek LXX old testament. If the bible was Aramaic first, then where is the Aramaic Old Testament to be quoted from? We don't see one in history.
This answer isn't nuanced enough. Certainly everything that Jesus said was said in Aramaic and translated later into Greek. That doesn't necessariy mean that all the documents in their current form were first composed in Aramaic. Luke was a native Greek speaker. The Greek manuscripts of John's books and letters date from much earlier than the Aramaic versions. Paul was fluent in Greek and wrote primarily to Greeks. So the works of Luke and John were almost certainly written in Greek. Paul's letters were likely written in Greek. The evidence for an Aramaic origin of the rest of the New Testament is compelling, but there's not much New Testament left if John, Luke, and Paul were writing in Greek.
@@boxcuber Jesus quoted Scripture. Acording to scholars His quotes match the Greek Septuigent not the Hebrew original. Everyone in the Roman empire spoke at least some Greek.
@@markhorton3994 if thats the case israel would be speaking greek but they dont and i also have personal proof i am a tongan and we ruled the islands of samoa and fiji and other islands for 450 years but they dont even speak any tongan at ALL some of them have tongan dialects but thats about it ..
@@markhorton3994 Josephus points out that his nation did not encourage the learning of Greek and Hebrews knowing Greek were extremely rare in first century AD (Antiquities XX XI). Josephus' above testimony is also supported by Old Testament where Nehemiah the Governor was angry with Hebrews (or Judeans) and cursed Hebrews when they abandoned their language and their culture in favor of the cultures and the languages of Ashdod, Moabites, and Ammonites (Nehemiah 13:23-26). This is also agreed by Dead Sea Scrolls Archaelogist Yigael Yadin who points out that Aramaic was the lingua franca of the time period (Yadin's Book "Bar Kokhba: The rediscovery of the legendary hero of the last Jewish Revolt Against Imperial Rome" Page 234). Hebrews (in alliance with the Romans - 1 Maccabees 8, 1 Maccabees 12, 1 Maccabees 14) kicked out Seleucid Dynasty and Hellenism and established their Government of Israel under Simon (the brother of Judas Maccabeus) in 142 BC. Government of Israel became Kingdom of Israel in 104 BC. Kingdom of Israel became semi-autonomous with Romans in 63 BC when Romans gave power to Hyrcanus II and expelled his brother Aristobulus II from his power. In 37 BC, Herod I took over the kingdom under the support of Romans and executed Antigonus II.
@@josephpendleton4927 If Josephus really did write that Jewish leaders discouraged Greek he did it in Greek. There were a lot of "Gentiles" or "Greeks" in Judea, Galilee and the Decopolis. The Aramaic speaking Jews had to know some Greek to talk to their neighbors. There are Greek inscriptions on some Jewish tombs in Galilee. Peter and the other fishermen certainly sold to Greeks at least when they had a good catch. As a tax collector Mathew had to be literate in Aramaic, Greek and Latin. A carpenter probably could not mske a living if he was incapable of communicating with half his potential customers. The lingua franca of the 1st century was Greek not Aramaic. It had been since Alexander the Great. With the Romans in charge Latin replaced it in the west. Maccabees is not Scripture but 1st and 2nd Maccabees may be two seperate works of history written at different times. The other books of Maccabees are late forgeries. Jewish Scripture was and is in Hebrew. The Septuigent is a translation from Hebrew to Greek in Alexandria because most Jews could not read Hebrew. Most of the Dead Sea scrolls were written several hundred years BC although some manuscripts are later.
No, New Testament is written in Aramaic. Not in Greek. Josephus points out that his nation did not encourage the learning of Greek and Hebrews knowing Greek were extremely rare in first century AD (Antiquities of Judeans XX XI). Josephus' above testimony is also supported by Old Testament where Nehemiah the Governor was angry with Hebrews (or Judeans) and cursed Hebrews when they abandoned their language and their culture in favor of the cultures and the languages of Ashdod, Moabites, and Ammonites (Nehemiah 13:23-26). This is also agreed by Dead Sea Scrolls Archaelogist Yigael Yadin who points out that Aramaic was the lingua franca of the time period (Yadin's Book "Bar Kokhba: The rediscovery of the legendary hero of the last Jewish Revolt Against Imperial Rome" Page 234). Hebrews (in alliance with the Romans - 1 Maccabees 8, 1 Maccabees 12, 1 Maccabees 14) kicked out Seleucid Dynasty and Hellenism and established their Government of Israel under Simon (the brother of Judas Maccabeus) in 142 BC. Government of Israel became Kingdom of Israel in 104 BC. Kingdom of Israel became semi-autonomous with Romans in 63 BC when Romans gave power to Hyrcanus II and expelled his brother Aristobulus II from his power. In 37 BC, Herod I took over the kingdom under the support of Romans and the Romans executed Antigonus II.
@@josephpendleton4927there is no book called "the new testament". It is a collection of books that were compiled somewhere in the 4th century. A lot of books in the New Testament were written by and for diaspora jews in Greek speaking cities. Funny that, as a testimony to the Jews not learning Greek you use a book that was written in Greek by a jew.
In Middle East and the other regions of Asia, Original New Covenant Canon (also known as New Testament Canon) was established in first century with 22 books. This was called Aramaic Eastern Peshitta. This excluded 2nd John, 3rd John, 2nd Peter, Jude, and Revelation. A copy of Original Revelation in Aramaic survives in Crawford Codex. Jesus Christ taught his 11 disciples to preach what he taught to Gentiles and make disciples of them (Matthew 28 verses 16 to 20). So Jesus Christ's Gospel was spread to both Hebrews and Gentiles throughout the world. Hebrew Priest Josephus was pointing out the fact that Greek wasn't encouraged by Hebrews in first century Ad and Hebrews knowing Greek were extremely rare inf first century AD. Josephus points out Aramaic was widely spoken among Hebrews and Gentiles in Middle East, Persia, Asia Minor, etc. After all, Seleucid Dynasty and its promotion of Hellenism (through Greek) were defeated by Judas Maccabeus and his Hebrew supporters during Maccabean revolt. Judas Maccabeus and Hebrews were also in alliance with the Romans (1 Maccabees 8) against Seleucids.
Why is this even a question. The New Testament is from the spoken language of Jesus and spread by God and the Holy Spirit through the apostles or closest to Jesus. Is Jesus Greek? NO, he is Jewish! So it’s Aramaic, the early language of the Hebrews. This should not even be a question
Jesus Christ only spoke Aramaic. I recommend my uploaded youtube video "New Testament written in Aramaic..", and my youtube videos "Jesus Christ vs. Pharisaism..." and "Apostle Paul vs. Pharisaism..."
@@tabor721 "Christ only spoke Aramaic" Even in the synagogue? Luke 4:20-21 (NKJV) 20 Then He closed the book, and gave it back to the attendant and sat down. And the eyes of all who were in the synagogue were fixed on Him. 21 And He began to say to them, “Today this Scripture is fulfilled in your hearing.”
@@davidford15 Jesus Christ read Aramaic Old Testament in front of Hebrews. Aramaic Old Testament is called Peshitta Tanakh. Only Hebrew priests and Hebrew religious leaders at Jerusalem had any knowledge of Hebrew. The people of first century Israel had no knowledge of Hebrew. That is why whenever they say Hebrew in NT, the word comes up is Aramaic (For example, Golgotha in John 19:17). I covered this topic in my small youtube videos "The Pharisaic infiltration of Christianity and Politics" and "Apostle Paul vs. Pharisaism..."
What does it matter what language we have God's word in God is the author of all languages most of the New Testament letters were written to Greek speaking audiences so there is no possible way they were originally written in Aramaic maybe the gospel of Matthew possibly could have had in Aramaic but even then there is no manuscript evidence for this the rest of the gospels definitely had a Greek original Mark was written to Greek speaking Romans Luke was written to Greek speaking gentiles and John was definitely written in Greek Paul's letters were written in Greek
I agree Matthew is a Hebrew text. And the NT is in Coine Greek, then as you said what does it matter which language Jesus spoke. As a Jew He would certainly address every prayer in Hebrew though.
New Testament is written in Aramaic. Original Aramaic New Testament is called Aramaic Eastern Peshitta. Seleucid Dynasty and their promotion of Hellenism were defeated by Judas Maccabeus and his Hebrew supporters during Maccabean revolt. Judas Maccabeus and his Hebrew supporters were also in alliance with the Romans (1 Maccabees 8) against the Seleucids and their promotion of Hellenism. Aramaic was the lingua franca of the Middle East in first century AD. In Acts 1 verse 19, Field of Blood was known to "all the inhabitants of Jerusalem" in their own tongue as Akel Dama which is the transliteration of Aramaic words "Haqal Dama." Josephus learned Greek in order to communicate with Romans and Greeks living in European regions and to translate his works into Greek for Romans and Greeks. Josephus points out that Parthians, Babylonians, remotest Arabians, and those of his own nation beyond Euphrates with Adiabeni knew accurately through books he wrote "in the language of our country" (which is Aramaic), prior to translating into Greek for the benefit of the Greeks and Romans (Josephus’ Judean Wars Book 1, Preface, Paragraph 1 to 2). Josephus points out that his nation didn't encourage the learning of Greek and Hebrews knowing Greek were extremely rare in first century AD (in his Antiquities XX XI). Josephus' above testimony is also supported by Old Testament where Nehemiah the Governor was angry with Hebrews (or Judeans) and cursed Hebrews when they abandoned their language and their culture in favor of the cultures and the languages of Ashdod, Moabites, and Ammonites (Nehemiah 13:23-26). This is also agreed by Dead Sea Scrolls Archaelogist Yigael Yadin who points out that Aramaic was the lingua franca of the time period (Yadin's Book "Bar Kokhba: The rediscovery of the legendary hero of the last Jewish Revolt Against Imperial Rome" Page 234). The translation of Law of Moses into Greek occurred during the rule of Ptolemy II Philadelphus (who ruled from around 284/283 BC to 246 BC) so that Ptolemy II Philadelphus could add these books into his library collection. Josephus also points out that the translation under Ptolemy II Philadelphus did not go further than Law of Moses (Genesis to Deuteronomy) (Josephus’ Antiquities Preface, Paragraph 3). Many other books (Joshua to Malachi) of Old Testament were added to Septuagint gradually. During the time of Josephus (37 AD to 100 AD), the history from the time of Antiochus Epiphanes’ conquest of Jerusalem (For example, 1 Maccabees) weren’t translated into Greek. That is why Josephus starts his Judean Wars Book 1 from Antiochus Epiphanes’ conquest of Jerusalem (Judean Wars Book 1, Preface, Paragraph 6).
Just like biblical and historical evidence proves that jesus and his apostles were vegatarians biblical and historical evidence also proves that the trinity, atonement, original sin and hell are very late misinterpretations and are not supported by the early creed hence its not a part of Christianity I pray that Allah swt revives Christianity both inside and out preserves and protects it and makes its massage be witnessed by all people but at the right moment, place and time The secred text of the Bible says ye shall know them by their fruits So too that I say to my christian brothers and sisters be fruitful and multiply Best regards from a Muslim ( line of ismail )
@@theguyver4934 Jesus Christ and his disciples were Judeans (or Hebrews) who kept Law of Moses and Prophets which means they taught and supported what is taught in them which includes dietary laws (consumption of clean animals such as ox, cow, deer, lamb, goat, buffalo, etc.) We also see Jesus Christ eating fish and honeycomb in Luke 24.
So there are some profound distinctions that need to be made. The Gentile world to whom and for whom Paul was called to be an apostle spoke Greek. Koine Greek was the lingua franca of the known world at the time. Aramaic was decidedly regional. Certainly we are not suggesting that Paul wrote his letters in a language foreign to his audience. There were more Greek speaking Jews living in Alexandria than Aramaic speaking Jews in Jerusalem. The diaspora Jews all spoke Greek. Two of the greatest historians of the time are considered hellenized Jews. Both Philo and Josephus recorded their accounts in Greek. Yes they were fiercely loyal to the Old Testament mazorettic text and to the idea of "Judean" independance, but they were both deeply influenced and educated in Greek. Koine was like English today was the language of commerce, Latin was the language of the courts of law. The first century people were in many instances "polyglots" or at least very familiar with these other languages.
I think the gospel of Mark was orally transmitted in full. And it was written down in Greek at some point. Then Mathew and Luke wrote theirs in Greek pulling some more Aramaic transmissions they had that mark did not. Just a guess 😊
I like hearing your perspective and want to hear more. However your last statement that any written scripture 'The word of God' is incorrect. At least in the English/Greek version that i am familiar with. Nowhere in the English bible does it call itself the word of God. Because it isn't. Only Yeshua is described as the word of God. And in my view this has been distorted in order to give bible experts/pastors etc authority and influence over unthinking,non-discerning Christians who think that when the pastor hammers his bible and speaks forcefully that he is divinely inspired by God because he is quoting from the word of God! No. He is manipulating the masses.
The New Testament was weitten in Greek, because at that time GREEK is the number one common language at that time though there were 4 languages being used at that time-- Hebrew, Aramaic, Latin, and Greek. And Greek was the number one common language during that time.
npcortez Jesus spoke Aramaic, look up people speaking in tongues from the Holy Spirit. It’s the ancient language of God, Jewish Aramaic. Father which is father God, Son which is God reincarnate/Jesus/Yeshua and the Holy Spirit/ one God. God did not speak Greek he was Middle Eastern. Jesus was born in Bethlehem then to Nazareth then to Capernaum, lastly Jerusalem. These places were not Greek spoken languages. Maybe Greek influence in some areas but not taken over at that point. Greek is one of the derivative languages and Latin but towards Europe. People from that area held to there heritage and to this day there is not a lot of relation of Greek but Jewish. The New Testament then Spread through out the world through Greek and Latin to spread the word of God.
Just like biblical and historical evidence proves that jesus and his apostles were vegatarians biblical and historical evidence also proves that the trinity, atonement, original sin and hell are very late misinterpretations and are not supported by the early creed hence its not a part of Christianity I pray that Allah swt revives Christianity both inside and out preserves and protects it and makes its massage be witnessed by all people but at the right moment, place and time The secred text of the Bible says ye shall know them by their fruits So too that I say to my christian brothers and sisters be fruitful and multiply Best regards from a Muslim ( line of ismail )
The type of aramaic that Jesus spoke and the aramaic the peshita was written weren't the same; the difference is like German language versus the Dutch language in Holland. There's a bunch of other ecmvidence that prives that the Greek came first. Jesus spoke Aramaic, yes, but the writers wrote in Greek which became the common tongue under Roman rule and to churches in the regions surrounding Israel, ie Ephesus, galatians etc... that spoke Greek.
It is a Catholic myth that the Jews did not speak Hebrew at the time of Jesus. They say this to diminish the importance of Hebrew. Please read Acts 22:2, Luke 23:38. In newer translations they even changed the Greek Ἑβραϊκοῖς to English Aramaic
Sorry but what you say is wrong... The catholic church recongnises the Peshitta as inspired and true for the deposit of faith, applied to the "aramaic" churches that are located in Syria, Lebanon, Irak, etc. The true fact is that the Nestle-Aland greek text (how to merge 4 different greek dialects into one greek that never existed, ask Nestle LOL) is a stupid idea. The main problem the catholic church made on this topic is to follow the protestant Nestle-Aland school. Peace
Here are the facts Jesus as well as in his disciples primarily spoke Aramaic in the first century in the Holy Land that much is not in dispute what's also not in dispute is that Jews living outside the Holy Land especially in Egypt Rome Greece Asia Minor we're Greek speaking. Hebrew was only spoken by the priests in the temple and The Rabbis in the synagogues on the Sabbath. They would read from the Torah in Hebrew and there would be a person who would give an oral paraphrase in Aramaic
@@MSA-uj7cp Aramaic was the language of first century Israel and they used Aramaic Old Testament since people in first century Israel didn't speak Hebrew. Old Hebrew manuscripts were kept by Hebrew Priests only for religious purposes. According to Dead Sea Scrolls Archaeologist Yigael Yadin, Hebrew was revived (in the form of Mishnaic Hebrew) during Bar Kokhba revolt (132 to 135 AD) by Bar Kokhba.
@@MSA-uj7cp you are welcome. I also want to let you know that Aramaic Old Testament is called Aramaic Peshitta Tanakh. Aramaic New Testament is called Aramaic Eastern Peshitta. Hebrew Masoretic Text (Hebrew Old Testament) was written several centuries after first century AD.
@@josephpendleton4927 Many thanks for that. Any ideas as to what the Apostle Paul (from the NT) would have had? The Greek septuagint or the Aramaic Peshitta Tanakh?
The language of first century Israel was Aramaic (For example, Field of Blood was known to "all the inhabitants of Jerusalem" as Akel Dama in Acts 1 verse 19 which is Aramaic) and they used Aramaic Old Testament among people of first century Israel. But Hebrew was preserved by Hebrew Priests for religious purposes. According to Dead Sea Scrolls Archaeologist Yigael Yadin, Hebrew was revived (in the form of Mishnaic Hebrew) during Bar Kokhba revolt (132 to 135 AD) by Bar Kokhba.
You make an excellent point, my friend. The fact of the matter is that "historians" claim Aramaic was the most common language among the people, but if that's truly the case.... why was the sign written in Hebrew, Latin, and Greek? I would say it wouldn't be the first time "historians" got it wrong. This is why I don't like "history" outside of the Bible. There's a hefty lot of man made traditions and supposed "historical theories" (as I call them) that directly contradict the Bible but somehow made it into the Church of Jesus The Christ. Incidentally Paul The Apostle WARNED not to add man made "traditions" into the church. I would say it's safe to assume that anything outside of the Bible is irrelevant. I've heard plenty of Atheists use all kinds of ridiculous arguments to state their "case", but almost none of them are correct or in context to the scriptures. You'd think that such a group of people who claim to be purveyors of the truth would actually study the word in order to disprove it if they were trying to make a good argument to state their opposition. It's even funnier when they claim they have read The Bible, but the moment they speak to a seasoned follower of Jesus The Christ who knows the scriptures you can tell they're regurgitating what they saw online or a foolish documentary. That's not the pursuit of truth; I don't even know WHAT to call that. Rule of thumb.... if it's not in the Bible then it's irrelevant. No matter the historian, theologian, or preacher.... if it isn't in the scriptures like... oh... skin color (Black Fake Israelites) or language or so forth... how many regions, civilizations, and societies have been taken over, layed to waste, wiped out to where a new society or culture took over that we don't even know about besides through "evidence" left behind by those civilizations? You see what I mean? It's all guess work. It's all theory. Quite frankly it's irrelevant. All that matters is the Bible There's our history, and the only history, wisdom, poetry, and knowledge we ought to want or need. The world's education is guess work at best..... besides mathematics.... and science..... REAL SCIENCE THAT CAN BE PROVEN THROUGH OBSERVATION AND IT'S REPEATABLE. All else in the world's education is garbage that needs to be thrown out in the trash.
the reason was the central language of rome was latin, greek ,in the 1 century they were the conquers of the jews and world at that time,every time a conquering people come they destroy history language and culture ,in other words you must convert to their culture and language to survive,even the name jesus is latin rendition of the True name,From babalon assyria all the lands of the fertile crest to Israel to Judah they spoke Aramiac and Judah Aramiac and Hebrew The greek translations came later from the romans
Greeks have a habit of claiming things in history. They're doing the same thing with Macedonia and Alexander the Great. Its obvious that the New Testament would have been written in Aramaic and then translated into koine Greek.
be my friend there are RUclips videos. Its obvious from aramaic words mentioned and the style of writing, aramaic different to Greek. And why would they speak Greek then all of a sudden add aramaic words and terms?? And if i explain something with an American style analogy, can you say it’s written by other people?? So that’s some of the proofs it was written in aramaic by aramaic speakers
@Kyle De Franco Its because he was writing for a Gentile Audience. The Gentiles didn't speak Aramaic or even Hebrew; most of them spoke either Latin or Greek.
@@kyledefranco6720 No because clearly if it were spoken then it would have been spoken traditionally in Aramaic as Yeshua Ben Yosef was allegedly a Hebrew Rabbi who was never born in a Gentile culture; he was born into a Hebrew culture and spoke Aramaic and even Hebrew. The only reason why Gentiles even got the message because it would have been translated later for Gentiles to read and understand.
@Chandler Sleziak So, Christianity was never meant for Gentiles? And if that is the case, why then is there no evidence of any Aramaic or Hebrew version of the New Testament before the Greek? The Letter of Aristeas starts off explaining that the reason the Torah was translated into Greek (around 270BC) was because so many Jews no longer spoke Hebrew. Biblical Archaeology Review (September/October 1992 issue) states that 70% of Jewish funerary urns were inscribed in Greek, 11% in Latin, with only 19% in Aramaic, Hebrew or other languages... Meaning 70% of first century Jews wanted to be remembered in Greek. The Ptolemies and Seleucids had 350 years with which to impose Greek culture on the ancient Jews. Do we think that had no affect? (The Book of Maccabees is all about ancient Jews assimilating into Greek culture and Antiochus IV going too far.) I'm just looking for evidence to back up the claims that the New Testament was originally written in Aramaic other than assertions.
@@kyledefranco6720 en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aramaic_original_New_Testament_theory#:~:text=Torrey%20opines%20that%20Revelation%20was,Christian%20Church%20was%20Aramaic%20only. For starters, take this Wikipedia article into consideration. It is quite clear that the Brit Hadashai (New Testament) would have never been written in Greek first because the Tanakh (Old Testament) was never written in Greek first. So why would the Hebrews suddenly change the language if they were going to write a New Book in the Bible???
If Jesus only spoke Aramaic, then how did he converse with Pilate? Did Pilate speak Aramaic as well? Or was there a translator present? If a translator was present, then that throws biblical inerrancy out the window... Why did the New Testament not mention a translator? How do we know if the translator made a mistake? Or maybe, simply trying to make you question your faith is what these Judaizers are all about.
Tagalog division came first who kept the word of GOD I say the KJV bible is my grace salvation thru faith , it was one long line of code divided into ? Like Godisnowhere depending on your spirit it can only say 1 thing it can never read negative, check yourself if you read it negative, God is now here ,
The New Testament states that Jesus came from Galilee. Matthew 4:15 refers to Galilee as "Γαλιλαία τῶν ἐθνῶν", or, "Galilee of the Gentiles". Were the Gentiles Aramaic speakers?
Excellent information. In my personal experience I have found that there are "many" that call Yeshu (the Messiah's actual name that the Greek translators simply added an "s" to the end of to get "Iesus") Lord, Lord" and call themselves "Christians" but then they openly reject EVERYTHING the Messiah told His followers to "OBSERVE AND DO" (Mat 23:2-3) because they're not interested in the Truth recorded all through the Scriptures. They love their perverted satanic traditions way to much to part with them so they lie to themselves and have become self deluded. You could produce a literal mountain of apodictic evidence and these self deceived people would dismiss every bit of it as false to maintain the lies they love so much. (Rev 22:15) These are the same people that claim the Law of Moses was "fulfilled" and "nailed to the cross" even though in Acts 15:20-21 it's written: "But that we write unto them, that they abstain from defilements of idols (Lev 17:7), and from fornication (Lev 18:1-30), and from things strangled (Lev 17:15-16), and from blood (Lev 17:10, 12-14). For Moses of old time has in every city them that preach him, being READ in the synagogues every SABBATH DAY." So clearly the apostles wrote to tell the new gentiles converts to begin to "OBSERVE and DO" the Law of Moses with these four things in the Law just like Messiah told them too! And obviously, the apostles, INCLUDING PAUL, wrote this expecting the new gentile converts to be IN THE SYNAGOGUE ON THE SABBATH DAY to learn the rest of the Father's Covenant Law. The Law of Moses is what was read from Moses' Seat every SABBATH DAY. These are called Torah Portions today. And this was written YEARS after the Messiah ascended. But, like I said, the "many" reject the obvious Truth of Scripture for their self delusion. If they didn't the Messiah would have been lying when He said in Mat 7:21-23: "Not every one that says unto me, Lord, Lord, shall enter into the kingdom of heaven; BUT HE THAT DOES THE WILL OF MY FATHER who is in heaven. MANY will say to me in that day, Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in your name? and in your name have cast out demons? and in your name done many wonderful works? And then will I profess unto them, I never knew you: depart from me, you that work iniquity." = LAWLESSNES. And we know the Messiah is not a liar so there has to be a "many" for Him to say this too.
Lol u mad? The will of the Father is to believe in his son not your works. Seems like you need to ask God for his Holy Spirit that you may know the truth you are being self righteous.
@@iamhisservant5787 Apparently, maverica weigigirl, it looks like you've chosen to dismiss the Messiah's words and follow the lawless and rebellious religion of men. They received their religion from the spirit of antichrist and will soon worship the coming "man of sin". "SIN" is defined by the Apostle John as "TRANSGRESSION OF THE LAW": 1 Jonh 3:4. How can John say that if there is no "LAW"? Sadly, it looks like you've been deceived and have chosen NOT to "observe and do" what the Messiah and His Apostles told the Messiah's followers to do. Apparently, by your words, you believe your a follower of Messiah and are filled with the Spirit. How can that be when you don't "observe and do" what He said to "observe and do"? The Messiah said in John 14:15-17; "If you love me, KEEP MY COMMANDMENTS. And I will pray the Father, and he shall give you another Comforter, that he may abide with you forever; Even the Spirit of Truth; whom the world cannot receive, because it sees him not, neither knows him: but you know him; for he dwells with you, and shall be in you." Only AFTER you DO as the Messiah said and "KEEP MY COMNANDMENTS" can you receive the Holy Spirit from His Father. Those are the Messiah's own words. The Messiah's "Commandments" are not His. They are His Father's "Commandments". Maybe you are unaware of who the Messiah actually is. Maybe you don't understand that He is the Father's "Word". The "Word" that became flesh. According to the Messiah Himself, He IS the Father. The Father and Son are One. (Deut 6:4) John 14:9-11; "Jesus said unto him, Have I been so long a time with you, and yet have you not known me, Philip? HE THAT HAS SEEN ME HAS SEEN THE FATHER; and how say you then, Show us the Father? Believe you not that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? THE WORDS THAT I SPEAK UNTO YOU I SPEAK NOT OF MYSELF: BUT THE FATHER THAT DWELLS IN ME, he does the works. Believe me that I am in the Father, and the Father in me: or else believe me for the very works' sake." Who do you think it was that "appeared" in the burning bush? Who do you think wrote the Commandments in stone, with His "FINGER"? It was Messiah before He came in the flesh. The Messiah said in John 5:37; "And the Father himself, who has sent me, has borne witness of me. You have neither heard his voice at any time, nor seen his form." The Father is Spirit and is invisible. The Messiah, before coming in the flesh, was the "Angel of YHWH". According to Paul in Col 1:15, speaking of the Messiah, said; "Who IS the IMAGE of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation:" So the Messiah is the "Word of God". The "Word" is the Messiah, Preincarnate. It was the Preincarnate Messiah that gave the Covenant Law to Moses. He IS the Father. The Messiah wouldn't end the Father's Covenant Law, the very thing that teaches self-control and righteousness. AND HE DIDN'T. He said so Himself in Mat 5:17-20; "Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfill. For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass away, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled. Whosoever therefore shall break one of these least commandments, and shall teach men so, he shall be called the least in the kingdom of heaven: but whosoever shall do and teach them, the same shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven. For I say unto you, That except your righteousness shall exceed the righteousness of the scribes and Pharisees, you shall in no case enter into the kingdom of heaven." It looks as though you need to stop listening to the false teachers and the lying men your following and actually READ the words of the Messiah and His Apostles. The religion your following is teaching and doing the opposite of what the Messiah said. It is "antichrist". He said He did NOT come to destroy the LAW or the PROPHETS. But to "fulfill" them. I'll bet you've been told that when Messiah said "fulfill" He finished the Law. That "fulfill" means to end, do away with, DESTROY. It does not. The Greek word the translators rendered "fulfill" means: "fulfil, i.e. to cause God's will (as made known in the law) to be OBEYED AS IT SHOUD BE, and God's promises (given through the prophets) to receive fulfilment". Go back and read the Sermon on the Mount. The Messiah didn't weaken the Law. He revealed that the problem is inside man's wicked hearts and in doing so He made the Law stronger! The Law of God is supposed to be written on our hearts now. How can that happen if we don't listen to or read and learn the Law of God? That's what was read from Moses' Seat every Sabbath in the synogogue. This is also what the Apostles expected the Gentile converts to do as well. (Acts 15:20-21.) The True followers of the Messiah, those filled with His Holy Spirit, "observe and do" what the Messiah said to "observe and do". He said in Luke 6:46-49; "And why call me, Lord, Lord, and do not the things which I say?" Whosoever comes to me, and hears my sayings, and DOES them, I will show you to whom he is like: He is like a man who built a house, and dug deep, and laid the foundation on a rock: and when the flood arose, the stream beat vehemently upon that house, and could not shake it: for it was founded upon a rock. But he that hears, and DOES NOT, is like a man that without a foundation built a house upon the earth; against which the stream did beat vehemently, and immediately it fell; and the ruin of that house was great." Sadly, it appears you've listened to liars and "blind leaders of the blind" and its led you to build your house on dirt. There is still hope though. As long as your alive and breathing you can repent from your rebellion and sin (transgression of the Law) and then obey the Messiah. If not you are guaranteed to perish. The Messiah warned about people that reject the Messiah and His Apostle's words. He said only those that DO the Will of His Father in heaven will enter His Kingdom. Mat 7:21-23; "Not every one that says unto me, Lord, Lord, shall enter into the kingdom of heaven; but he that DOES THE WILL OF MY FATHER who is in heaven. Many will say to me in that day, Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in your name? and in your name have cast out demons? and in your name done many wonderful works? And then will I profess unto them, I never knew you: depart from me, you that work iniquity." "OUCH!" You might want to look up the word "Iniquity". You'll find it means "lawlessness". I sincerely hope you'll reconsider your "belief" and repent. And then "observe and do" the Law of Moses like the Messiah and Apostles did. And that's what they told the Messiah's followers to do too. Then your house will be built on The Rock. Please, study this issue. Think for yourself. Don't let false teachers lead you astray. Do what the Messiah told His followers to do. Your eternity depends on it. If you don't you WILL hear the Messiah say; "Depart from me; you that work iniquity/lawlessness" at YOUR judgement. I truly don't want that. Shalom. 👴🙏
@@iamhisservant5787 QUOTING the Messiah and His Apostles is being "self righteous"?? Boy, you really are lost. Well, Ok. But I tried to warn you. So, your blood is on your own head. Apparently, your religious beliefs are more important to you than the Messiah's words, which you obviously don't believe. You probably believe John was lying as well when he said; "Blessed are they that DO HIS COMMANDMENTS, that THEY may have right to the tree of life, and may enter in through the gates into the city. For outside are dogs, and sorcerers, and fornicators, and murderers, and idolaters, and whosoever LOVES and MAKES a lie." Rev 22:14-15. I guess we know where you'll spend eternity. You won't be alone though. Sadly, it looks like you'll be counted among the "many" the Messiah spoke of in Mat 7:21-23. I really hope you change you mind.
@@iamhisservant5787 Unless you call Christ a liar. He is clear “If ye love me, keep my commandments.” John 14:15 KJV If you don’t love him them dont. The choice is yours. BUT CHRIST also said “Search the scriptures; for in them ye think ye have eternal life: and they are they which testify of me. And ye will not come to me, that ye might have life. I receive not honour from men. But I know you, that ye have not the love of God in you. I am come in my Father's name, and ye receive me not: if another shall come in his own name, him ye will receive. How can ye believe, which receive honour one of another, and seek not the honour that cometh from God only? Do not think that I will accuse you to the Father: there is one that accuseth you, even Moses, in whom ye trust. For had ye believed Moses, ye would have believed me: for he wrote of me. But if ye believe not his writings, how shall ye believe my words?” John 5:39-47 KJV What are the scriptures he referring to? The Torah. Obviously as the NT wasn’t written as yet. Who writings are we to believe and if we can’t believe moses how can we Christ. The scriptures moses wrote. The Torah. He is telling us. Are we listening. We were are saved and born and again we becomed renewed. We are to love the lord with all heart and might, and others as ourselves. 🙏🏾
VValo achi this is kind of difficult to understand unless you find God or I would have never of known. I was saved through the Holy Spirit. He always was God and will always be God. God is incarnate through Jesus our Messiah our savior. They are two but one. Jesus when risen sits at the right hand of God the Father in heaven. God is also the Holy trinity. Father which is God/Yahweh, Son which is Jesus Christ/ Yeshua and Holy Spirit meaning both one God. Through the Holy Spirit Jesus was born and given to us to save our souls from damnation. We choose where we go, it’s our own action that brings us closer to God or further. Jesus our merciful God forgives all who sin who are truly sorry for there sins. The more you sin the further you are from God. In the end you are to blame not God. Jesus our savior is the key to heaven. God the creator of all loves us so much he gave us his only begotten son. Jesus is the lamb of God who suffered for our sins. Our God suffered for us so immensely as seen on the cross. There is no way or words to express this fact. My love and gratefulness for God is beyond words could ever say. God/ Jesus is our Messiah. Jesus is the last sacrificial Lamb that paid the price for our sins through love. I pray souls come to find out this reality, and love and appreciate our Holy God with all there hearts the way he deserved from the beginning of time. Please everyone say sorry for your sins..... for our Blessed Mother. Find Jesus, he is our only light , he is the truth and love. The Blessed Mother is our Mother first our beautiful queen of heaven and earth, our mother. There is a Heaven where God is of all Holy truth and Love, and there is h... God, we love and cherish you with all our heart and soul, our Beautiful Blessed Mother with love and cherish you with all our heart and soul. May your hearts and souls always be protected and loved through our prayers like an unbreakable sheild. I pray we are protected from all evil, of what we do not know or do not understand of you oh Lord, or if we’ve been deceived or brought further from you in any way. I pray Jesus your name and truth be spread like wild fire through out your world and universeI. I pray people start teaching this to there kids then there kids kids forever more so we can be one under God. , /
@@tarynray6362 We Muslims also Believe Jesus is The Christ , who is the ''Word of GOD'' and borned from Virgin Merry, is the only way to God. Infact believing in Jesus(PBUH) is one of the fundamentals of Islam. But we Muslims believe Jesus(PBUH) is the Christ and a great massenger of GOD. as Jesus(PBUH) described Himself in the Bible. And QURAN also confirms this fact. But christians believe that Jesus(PBUH) is GOD himself. which Jesus(PBUH) never in His life claimed even in the bible. In the bible , Jesus (PBUH) fall on his face and prayed to GOD. if Jesus is GOD then whom He prayed to? The matter is, It is saint paul who taught "Jesus is GOD" and the "Trinity". But Jesus (PBUH) never even said This. Paul was a great enemy of Jesus christ(PBUH). He made this to destroy the real christianity. "Jesus is the only way to God." If following Jesus(PBUH) is christianity then we Muslims are the real "Christians". As we respect and follow Jesus(PBUH) in every aspect of our life. And You claim to be Christians But the reality is you are "Paul-utions'' Bcoz u follow the enemy of Jesus - st. paul. To know The hidden secrets (hidden by charch) do this= 1. Read the Bible cover to cover yourself. 2. Read a translation of The QURAN in your motherlanguage. 3. Hear lectures of Ahmed Deedat in you tube on this topic. NOTE: PBUH = Peace Be Upon Him
Aramaic was the lingua franca of the Middle East in first century AD. In Acts 1 verse 19, Field of Blood was known to "all the inhabitants of Jerusalem" in their own tongue as Akel Dama which is the transliteration of Aramaic words "Haqal Dama." Josephus learned Greek in order to communicate with Romans and Greeks living in European regions and to translate his works into Greek for Romans and Greeks. Josephus points out that Parthians, Babylonians, remotest Arabians, and those of his own nation beyond Euphrates with Adiabeni knew accurately through books he wrote "in the language of our country" (which is Aramaic), prior to translating into Greek for the benefit of the Greeks and Romans (Josephus’ Judean Wars Book 1, Preface, Paragraph 1 to 2). Josephus points out that his nation didn't encourage the learning of Greek and Hebrews knowing Greek were extremely rare in first century AD (in his Antiquities XX XI). Josephus' above testimony is also supported by Old Testament where Nehemiah the Governor was angry with Hebrews (or Judeans) and cursed Hebrews when they abandoned their language and their culture in favor of the cultures and the languages of Ashdod, Moabites, and Ammonites (Nehemiah 13:23-26). This is also agreed by Dead Sea Scrolls Archaelogist Yigael Yadin who points out that Aramaic was the lingua franca of the time period (Yadin's Book "Bar Kokhba: The rediscovery of the legendary hero of the last Jewish Revolt Against Imperial Rome" Page 234). The translation of Law of Moses into Greek occurred during the rule of Ptolemy II Philadelphus (who ruled from around 284/283 BC to 246 BC) so that Ptolemy II Philadelphus could add these books into his library collection. Josephus also points out that the translation under Ptolemy II Philadelphus did not go further than Law of Moses (Genesis to Deuteronomy) (Josephus’ Antiquities Preface, Paragraph 3). Many other books (Joshua to Malachi) of Old Testament were added to Septuagint gradually. During the time of Josephus (37 AD to 100 AD), the history from the time of Antiochus Epiphanes’ conquest of Jerusalem (For example, 1 Maccabees) weren’t translated into Greek. That is why Josephus starts his Judean Wars Book 1 from Antiochus Epiphanes’ conquest of Jerusalem (Judean Wars Book 1, Preface, Paragraph 6).
@@Doriesep6622 Just like biblical and historical evidence proves that jesus and his apostles were vegatarians biblical and historical evidence also proves that the trinity, atonement, original sin and hell are very late misinterpretations and are not supported by the early creed hence its not a part of Christianity I pray that Allah swt revives Christianity both inside and out preserves and protects it and makes its massage be witnessed by all people but at the right moment, place and time The secred text of the Bible says ye shall know them by their fruits So too that I say to my christian brothers and sisters be fruitful and multiply Best regards from a Muslim ( line of ismail )
@douglas acebedo Thank you so much for that detailed answer, and it sounds like you've done a deep dive into this period and know what you're talking about :) I guess Christians (like me, and perhaps you?) want things (especially the origin of the Bible) to be nice and neat, but the truth seems to be much more messier than that. I may re-read your answer and come back with questions at a later point, but many thanks for this answer.
Both Hebrew an Aramaic were spoken then and there. As for you question why Hebrew "wasn't" lost, well, it was lost for 1600 years as a spoken language, only persisted in written form in lithurgy. Similarly to Latin. A revival movement for it started at the end of the 19th century.
Jesus = a Jew His Apostles = Jews Paul of Tarsus = another Jew James (Jesus brother's) = a Jew why is the New Testament originally written in Greek if all of them were Aramaic / Hebrew speaking Jews! P L A G A R I S M.
Master Gichin Funakoshi Paul/Apollo was a Hellenistic Jew. Luke was a Greek physician. Titus was a Roman name also Timothy is a Roman name. Mark is Roman name too. Most romans and Greeks were. Ames after great Roman/Greek warriors. Titus was a great Roman soldier.
He was a Jew he said he us Yahudim/Yehudim. And also said he is a roman and the commander noticed he had citizenship and shau'ul(Pa'al) Paul said that he was even born there. Acts 22:1-30
YAHWEH wrote the scripture from Genesis to Revelation in Hebrew. Yahweh does everything TWICE. Once in the old covenant and once in the New covenant. Yahweh does NOT change. We know for a fact that the old covenant scripture was written in Hebrew. Therefore the New covenant scripture must have ALSO been written in Hebrew. Evidence proves this to be so as well. The Christians translated the scripture into Greek to put their greek god jesus in the bible. Everything that comes from the Greek is evil. The Name of THE Creator YAHWEH is written nearly 7,000 times in the scripture. YAHWEH is THE NAME above all names. Yahshua is The Name above all names UNDER heaven. Acts 4: 12. There is NO person in the scripture called ' jesus christ '. The letter " J " only came into existence less than 500 years ago. Look it up. All who call upon THE NAME Yahweh shall be saved. So it is written . Bless you.
Letthere belight it’s Yeshua, YAHSHUA was a creation of two loons, in 1950. NOT ONE HEBREW NAME STARTS WITH YAH, not one !!!!! Many start with Yeh, and many end in YAHU but none start with YAH... you can’t make up words and names for a language.
"the old covenant scripture was written in Hebrew" And a little Aramaic. Do you think some of "the New covenant scripture must have ALSO been written in" Aramaic?
I do not wish to be argumentative, but I believe that some important points on the debate are left out.
A large fraction of the New Testament written as letters to Greek-speakers across southeastern Europe by a man born in a Greek-speaking place (Paul). Not to mention that another large portion of the NT was written to someone called "Theophilus" which is an obviously Greek name. Second century sources place the writing place and original audience of Mark in Rome, where very few would have spoken Aramaic. Revelation was written particularly to seven Greek-speaking cities, suggesting that the author of the fourth Gospel and three epistles could write in Greek.A very basic understanding of the NT would suggest that at least 18 of the 27 NT books (14 Pauline epistles, Mark, Luke, Acts, Revelation) were not first written in Aramaic. This is not to mention that Hebrews quotes the Septuagint while writing to Jews outside of Israel, suggesting that either the author or more likely the audience was more familiar with the Greek translation of the OT than the original.Historical context (the first item on your list) ought to include geographical context. The writings of the NT are not diaries to be read only by the author. They were written to be read by people who in many cases spoke Greek more than Aramaic, as the immediate recipients of these writings were not primarily in Israel. The majority of the NT was written by Aramaic speaking Jews to Greek speaking people outside of Israel.The Greekophobe sentiment described in the "Did Jews Speak Greek?" video would not have been shared by the authors of the NT who in their own writing affirm that the message of the cross is for all people. At least after concluding that Christ is for all, these people would have been open to learning a language that enabled them to spread the gospel.
It is a Catholic myth that the Jews did not speak Hebrew at the time of Jesus. They say this to diminish the importance of Hebrew. Please read Acts 22:2, Luke 23:38. In newer translations they even changed the Greek Ἑβραϊκοῖς to English Aramaic
envie d'apprendre
Awesome! Thanks
envie d'apprendre very well said... as you believe, I believe Matthew and John and maybe a few non-Pauline epistles were written in Hebrew or Aramaic first. The rest of the NT, was targeting Gentiles and Jews in the diaspora , so therefore would have only made sense to be written in the franca lingua of the time, Greek. I do believe Yeshua spoke Aramaic and Hebrew and so did His disciples but like you stated above, Luke was not a Jew and he was targeting Gentiles and Jews outside of Isreal, that goes for Mark as well. And it’s only common sense that Paul wrote in Greek , look at all the Greek Septuagint uses over the Hebrew texts at that time.
Assyrian Perspective so your throwing out all history and knowledge we have. First off you need to understand what a Lingua Franca is, it’s not a language spoken in a small part of the world like the Middle East... it is the language that is spoke most in an area and ADOPTED AND SPOKE MOST BY THOSE WHO SPEAK ANOTHER LANGUAGE. I do understand why you say Yeshuas lingua Franca is Aramaic .. because His parents were Hebrews and spoke Hebrew and then moved to the Galilee, where Aramaic had then infiltrated from Babylonian and Assyrian areas earlier... but when I say Lingua FrancA, I mean THE WORLDS lingua Franca.. the worlds most adopted language. Not Yeshuas or Galilee’s adopted language. What language was most spoken in the expanding world and Greek was that language. I personally don’t think Yeshua spoke much Greek, other then a few greetings and other Coine terms.. but my point in all these comments was THE WORLD SPOKE GREEK and it was put in the hearts of the gospel writers by the Holy Spirit, when the gospels were finally spread throughout the world, it was done in Greek, the language that was most known, the language that was forced on many by Alexander. It was the English of that day.. I UNDERSTAND YOUR POINT BY THE DEFINITION OF LINGUA FRANCA. But I guess I should of said THE WORLDS LANGUAGE or the MOST SPOKEN LANGUAGE
Assyrian Perspective Yeshua spoke Aramaic and Hebrew. Let me make this totally clear..
I’m an English writer, I’m writing a documentary story on a Brazilian Martial Arts fighter. So I’m writing his story and during some really main parts of his life , I use HIS SPOKEN LANGUAGE to convey the authenticity of the event. So I wrote the book in English , to reach the masses but because this Brazilian fighter speaks Portuguese , I use that language many times, when I quote him and his family and his trainer. DO YOU UNDERSTAND.?? Just because there’s Hebrew and Aramaic statements from characters in the New Testament doesn’t prove that those are the languages used to reach the nations . We would need history and archaeological proofs to do so. AND IN THAT CASE WE HAVE THOUSANDS OF GREEK COPIES and only a few LATER, Aramaic and Hebrew copies . Do you understand ????? I know Yeshua was a Hebrew. I study Hebrew it is my favorite language . I know the book of Matthew was written in Hebrew first as was the book of Hebrews , as stated by many church fathers, Origin, Clement and many many more .... but when it was finally put out to the whole world , even the book of Mattiyahu (Matthew) and Iverytim (Hebrews) were written in Greek , along with John, Luke, Acts , Paul’s Epistles ,other letters and Revelation. Revelation was written to seven Greek speaking churches, Paul’s letters the same, Luke and Acts were both written to someone named Theopolis, obviously a Greek name. I LOVE AND RESPECT THE HEBREWNESS OF SCRIPTURE but I’m also a realist and know that the scriptures had to be written in a language for all to understand and Aramaic and Hebrew were most likely used when targeting the local Jews but when targeting the Gentiles and the entire world Greek was used, just as if these events happened today, it would be written in English .
The Bible is written from the Holy Spirit through the Apostles. Where the Apostles are from or closest to Jesus is where It derived.
But they were written after Jesus time, meaning they didnt know him
Also, why didnt the holy spirit just write it through Jesus himself then?
No no no. The apostles wrote nothing. Matthew mark Luke and john were not written by Matthew Mark Luke and John. They were written much later than Christ's crucifision.
The question is not whether or not Jesus spoke Aramaic. The question is what language did the writers themselves write their original gospels or letters. Just because Jesus spoke Aramaic, doesn't mean the writers wrote in Aramaic. You'd have to bring in the Septuagint into the conversation as well because the new testament writers and Jesus quotes either the Hebrew or Greek LXX old testament. If the bible was Aramaic first, then where is the Aramaic Old Testament to be quoted from? We don't see one in history.
There is Aramaic Old Testament called "Peshitta Tanakh" which was used in first century AD.
This answer isn't nuanced enough. Certainly everything that Jesus said was said in Aramaic and translated later into Greek. That doesn't necessariy mean that all the documents in their current form were first composed in Aramaic.
Luke was a native Greek speaker. The Greek manuscripts of John's books and letters date from much earlier than the Aramaic versions. Paul was fluent in Greek and wrote primarily to Greeks. So the works of Luke and John were almost certainly written in Greek. Paul's letters were likely written in Greek. The evidence for an Aramaic origin of the rest of the New Testament is compelling, but there's not much New Testament left if John, Luke, and Paul were writing in Greek.
but John and Jesus did not speak greek especially JOHN he must of had a translator witch is why so many things are now confusing in the bible..
@@boxcuber Jesus quoted Scripture. Acording to scholars His quotes match the Greek Septuigent not the Hebrew original.
Everyone in the Roman empire spoke at least some Greek.
@@markhorton3994 if thats the case israel would be speaking greek but they dont and i also have personal proof i am a tongan and we ruled the islands of samoa and fiji and other islands for 450 years but they dont even speak any tongan at ALL some of them have tongan dialects but thats about it ..
@@markhorton3994 Josephus points out that his nation did not encourage the learning of Greek and Hebrews knowing Greek were extremely rare in first century AD (Antiquities XX XI).
Josephus' above testimony is also supported by Old Testament where Nehemiah the Governor was angry with Hebrews (or Judeans) and cursed Hebrews when they abandoned their language and their culture in favor of the cultures and the languages of Ashdod, Moabites, and Ammonites (Nehemiah 13:23-26).
This is also agreed by Dead Sea Scrolls Archaelogist Yigael Yadin who points out that Aramaic was the lingua franca of the time period (Yadin's Book "Bar Kokhba: The rediscovery of the legendary hero of the last Jewish Revolt Against Imperial Rome" Page 234).
Hebrews (in alliance with the Romans - 1 Maccabees 8, 1 Maccabees 12, 1 Maccabees 14) kicked out Seleucid Dynasty and Hellenism and established their Government of Israel under Simon (the brother of Judas Maccabeus) in 142 BC.
Government of Israel became Kingdom of Israel in 104 BC. Kingdom of Israel became semi-autonomous with Romans in 63 BC when Romans gave power to Hyrcanus II and expelled his brother Aristobulus II from his power.
In 37 BC, Herod I took over the kingdom under the support of Romans and executed Antigonus II.
@@josephpendleton4927 If Josephus really did write that Jewish leaders discouraged Greek he did it in Greek.
There were a lot of "Gentiles" or "Greeks" in Judea, Galilee and the Decopolis. The Aramaic speaking Jews had to know some Greek to talk to their neighbors. There are Greek inscriptions on some Jewish tombs in Galilee. Peter and the other fishermen certainly sold to Greeks at least when they had a good catch. As a tax collector Mathew had to be literate in Aramaic, Greek and Latin. A carpenter probably could not mske a living if he was incapable of communicating with half his potential customers.
The lingua franca of the 1st century was Greek not Aramaic. It had been since Alexander the Great. With the Romans in charge Latin replaced it in the west.
Maccabees is not Scripture but 1st and 2nd Maccabees may be two seperate works of history written at different times. The other books of Maccabees are late forgeries.
Jewish Scripture was and is in Hebrew. The Septuigent is a translation from Hebrew to Greek in Alexandria because most Jews could not read Hebrew.
Most of the Dead Sea scrolls were written several hundred years BC although some manuscripts are later.
But couldnt there be different books within the new testament with some in Aramaic and some in Greek?
No, New Testament is written in Aramaic. Not in Greek.
Josephus points out that his nation did not encourage the learning of Greek and Hebrews knowing Greek were extremely rare in first century AD (Antiquities of Judeans XX XI).
Josephus' above testimony is also supported by Old Testament where Nehemiah the Governor was angry with Hebrews (or Judeans) and cursed Hebrews when they abandoned their language and their culture in favor of the cultures and the languages of Ashdod, Moabites, and Ammonites (Nehemiah 13:23-26).
This is also agreed by Dead Sea Scrolls Archaelogist Yigael Yadin who points out that Aramaic was the lingua franca of the time period (Yadin's Book "Bar Kokhba: The rediscovery of the legendary hero of the last Jewish Revolt Against Imperial Rome" Page 234).
Hebrews (in alliance with the Romans - 1 Maccabees 8, 1 Maccabees 12, 1 Maccabees 14) kicked out Seleucid Dynasty and Hellenism and established their Government of Israel under Simon (the brother of Judas Maccabeus) in 142 BC.
Government of Israel became Kingdom of Israel in 104 BC. Kingdom of Israel became semi-autonomous with Romans in 63 BC when Romans gave power to Hyrcanus II and expelled his brother Aristobulus II from his power.
In 37 BC, Herod I took over the kingdom under the support of Romans and the Romans executed Antigonus II.
@@josephpendleton4927there is no book called "the new testament". It is a collection of books that were compiled somewhere in the 4th century. A lot of books in the New Testament were written by and for diaspora jews in Greek speaking cities.
Funny that, as a testimony to the Jews not learning Greek you use a book that was written in Greek by a jew.
In Middle East and the other regions of Asia, Original New Covenant Canon (also known as New Testament Canon) was established in first century with 22 books. This was called Aramaic Eastern Peshitta.
This excluded 2nd John, 3rd John, 2nd Peter, Jude, and Revelation. A copy of Original Revelation in Aramaic survives in Crawford Codex.
Jesus Christ taught his 11 disciples to preach what he taught to Gentiles and make disciples of them (Matthew 28 verses 16 to 20).
So Jesus Christ's Gospel was spread to both Hebrews and Gentiles throughout the world.
Hebrew Priest Josephus was pointing out the fact that Greek wasn't encouraged by Hebrews in first century Ad and Hebrews knowing Greek were extremely rare inf first century AD.
Josephus points out Aramaic was widely spoken among Hebrews and Gentiles in Middle East, Persia, Asia Minor, etc.
After all, Seleucid Dynasty and its promotion of Hellenism (through Greek) were defeated by Judas Maccabeus and his Hebrew supporters during Maccabean revolt. Judas Maccabeus and Hebrews were also in alliance with the Romans (1 Maccabees 8) against Seleucids.
Why is this even a question. The New Testament is from the spoken language of Jesus and spread by God and the Holy Spirit through the apostles or closest to Jesus. Is Jesus Greek? NO, he is Jewish! So it’s Aramaic, the early language of the Hebrews. This should not even be a question
Aramaic Hebrew greek !!
Jesus spoke Aramaic
I’m liking the Aramaic came first ( ancient Semitic)
Jesus Christ only spoke Aramaic. I recommend my uploaded youtube video "New Testament written in Aramaic..", and my youtube videos "Jesus Christ vs. Pharisaism..." and "Apostle Paul vs. Pharisaism..."
Tabor 7 believing Paul is like believing Charles Manson and it’s super important to know the true meaning of Christ in Aramaic
@@tabor721 "Christ only spoke Aramaic" Even in the synagogue?
Luke 4:20-21 (NKJV) 20 Then He closed the book, and gave it back to the attendant and sat down. And the eyes of all who were in the synagogue were fixed on Him. 21 And He began to say to them, “Today this Scripture is fulfilled in your hearing.”
@@davidford15 Jesus Christ read Aramaic Old Testament in front of Hebrews. Aramaic Old Testament is called Peshitta Tanakh. Only Hebrew priests and Hebrew religious leaders at Jerusalem had any knowledge of Hebrew. The people of first century Israel had no knowledge of Hebrew. That is why whenever they say Hebrew in NT, the word comes up is Aramaic (For example, Golgotha in John 19:17).
I covered this topic in my small youtube videos "The Pharisaic infiltration of Christianity and Politics" and "Apostle Paul vs. Pharisaism..."
@@tabor721 Jesus quoted the Greek translation of Scripture, the Septuigent.
What does it matter what language we have God's word in God is the author of all languages most of the New Testament letters were written to Greek speaking audiences so there is no possible way they were originally written in Aramaic maybe the gospel of Matthew possibly could have had in Aramaic but even then there is no manuscript evidence for this the rest of the gospels definitely had a Greek original Mark was written to Greek speaking Romans Luke was written to Greek speaking gentiles and John was definitely written in Greek Paul's letters were written in Greek
I agree Matthew is a Hebrew text. And the NT is in Coine Greek, then as you said what does it matter which language Jesus spoke. As a Jew He would certainly address every prayer in Hebrew though.
New Testament is written in Aramaic. Original Aramaic New Testament is called Aramaic Eastern Peshitta.
Seleucid Dynasty and their promotion of Hellenism were defeated by Judas Maccabeus and his Hebrew supporters during Maccabean revolt. Judas Maccabeus and his Hebrew supporters were also in alliance with the Romans (1 Maccabees 8) against the Seleucids and their promotion of Hellenism.
Aramaic was the lingua franca of the Middle East in first century AD. In Acts 1 verse 19, Field of Blood was known to "all the inhabitants of Jerusalem" in their own tongue as Akel Dama which is the transliteration of Aramaic words "Haqal Dama."
Josephus learned Greek in order to communicate with Romans and Greeks living in European regions and to translate his works into Greek for Romans and Greeks.
Josephus points out that Parthians, Babylonians, remotest Arabians, and those of his own nation beyond Euphrates with Adiabeni knew accurately through books he wrote "in the language of our country" (which is Aramaic), prior to translating into Greek for the benefit of the Greeks and Romans (Josephus’ Judean Wars Book 1, Preface, Paragraph 1 to 2).
Josephus points out that his nation didn't encourage the learning of Greek and Hebrews knowing Greek were extremely rare in first century AD (in his Antiquities XX XI).
Josephus' above testimony is also supported by Old Testament where Nehemiah the Governor was angry with Hebrews (or Judeans) and cursed Hebrews when they abandoned their language and their culture in favor of the cultures and the languages of Ashdod, Moabites, and Ammonites (Nehemiah 13:23-26).
This is also agreed by Dead Sea Scrolls Archaelogist Yigael Yadin who points out that Aramaic was the lingua franca of the time period (Yadin's Book "Bar Kokhba: The rediscovery of the legendary hero of the last Jewish Revolt Against Imperial Rome" Page 234).
The translation of Law of Moses into Greek occurred during the rule of Ptolemy II Philadelphus (who ruled from around 284/283 BC to 246 BC) so that Ptolemy II Philadelphus could add these books into his library collection.
Josephus also points out that the translation under Ptolemy II Philadelphus did not go further than Law of Moses (Genesis to Deuteronomy) (Josephus’ Antiquities Preface, Paragraph 3). Many other books (Joshua to Malachi) of Old Testament were added to Septuagint gradually.
During the time of Josephus (37 AD to 100 AD), the history from the time of Antiochus Epiphanes’ conquest of Jerusalem (For example, 1 Maccabees) weren’t translated into Greek.
That is why Josephus starts his Judean Wars Book 1 from Antiochus Epiphanes’ conquest of Jerusalem (Judean Wars Book 1, Preface, Paragraph 6).
Just like biblical and historical evidence proves that jesus and his apostles were vegatarians biblical and historical evidence also proves that the trinity, atonement, original sin and hell are very late misinterpretations and are not supported by the early creed hence its not a part of Christianity I pray that Allah swt revives Christianity both inside and out preserves and protects it and makes its massage be witnessed by all people but at the right moment, place and time
The secred text of the Bible says ye shall know them by their fruits
So too that I say to my christian brothers and sisters be fruitful and multiply
Best regards from a Muslim ( line of ismail )
@@theguyver4934 Jesus Christ and his disciples were Judeans (or Hebrews) who kept Law of Moses and Prophets which means they taught and supported what is taught in them which includes dietary laws (consumption of clean animals such as ox, cow, deer, lamb, goat, buffalo, etc.)
We also see Jesus Christ eating fish and honeycomb in Luke 24.
So there are some profound distinctions that need to be made. The Gentile world to whom and for whom Paul was called to be an apostle spoke Greek. Koine Greek was the lingua franca of the known world at the time. Aramaic was decidedly regional. Certainly we are not suggesting that Paul wrote his letters in a language foreign to his audience. There were more Greek speaking Jews living in Alexandria than Aramaic speaking Jews in Jerusalem. The diaspora Jews all spoke Greek. Two of the greatest historians of the time are considered hellenized Jews. Both Philo and Josephus recorded their accounts in Greek. Yes they were fiercely loyal to the Old Testament mazorettic text and to the idea of "Judean" independance, but they were both deeply influenced and educated in Greek. Koine was like English today was the language of commerce, Latin was the language of the courts of law. The first century people were in many instances "polyglots" or at least very familiar with these other languages.
I think the gospel of Mark was orally transmitted in full. And it was written down in Greek at some point. Then Mathew and Luke wrote theirs in Greek pulling some more Aramaic transmissions they had that mark did not. Just a guess 😊
I’ve never heard of this before, but okay.
That is because this is utter nonsense and not something you get from those who deals with the scholars.
I like hearing your perspective and want to hear more. However your last statement that any written scripture 'The word of God' is incorrect. At least in the English/Greek version that i am familiar with. Nowhere in the English bible does it call itself the word of God. Because it isn't. Only Yeshua is described as the word of God. And in my view this has been distorted in order to give bible experts/pastors etc authority and influence over unthinking,non-discerning Christians who think that when the pastor hammers his bible and speaks forcefully that he is divinely inspired by God because he is quoting from the word of God! No. He is manipulating the masses.
The New Testament was weitten in Greek, because at that time GREEK is the number one common language at that time though there were 4 languages being used at that time-- Hebrew, Aramaic, Latin, and Greek. And Greek was the number one common language during that time.
npcortez it’s what ever language Jesus spoke
npcortez Jesus spoke Aramaic, look up people speaking in tongues from the Holy Spirit. It’s the ancient language of God, Jewish Aramaic. Father which is father God, Son which is God reincarnate/Jesus/Yeshua and the Holy Spirit/ one God. God did not speak Greek he was Middle Eastern. Jesus was born in Bethlehem then to Nazareth then to Capernaum, lastly Jerusalem. These places were not Greek spoken languages. Maybe Greek influence in some areas but not taken over at that point. Greek is one of the derivative languages and Latin but towards Europe. People from that area held to there heritage and to this day there is not a lot of relation of Greek but Jewish. The New Testament then Spread through out the world through Greek and Latin to spread the word of God.
Exactly because most scholar's spoke greek at that time !!!
How did the Septuagint get produced in the mid 3rd-century BC if some Jews didn't speak Greek?
🕊 Thank You! This is correct. ❤️
Just like biblical and historical evidence proves that jesus and his apostles were vegatarians biblical and historical evidence also proves that the trinity, atonement, original sin and hell are very late misinterpretations and are not supported by the early creed hence its not a part of Christianity I pray that Allah swt revives Christianity both inside and out preserves and protects it and makes its massage be witnessed by all people but at the right moment, place and time
The secred text of the Bible says ye shall know them by their fruits
So too that I say to my christian brothers and sisters be fruitful and multiply
Best regards from a Muslim ( line of ismail )
There is no such document as "the New Testament " It is 27 seperate books most of which were addressed to Greek speaking audiences.
Coine speaking audience.
Are you that ignorant see Paul epistles sent to greek Speaking cities
@@שרהחאןwhich is the same, really.
The type of aramaic that Jesus spoke and the aramaic the peshita was written weren't the same; the difference is like German language versus the Dutch language in Holland. There's a bunch of other ecmvidence that prives that the Greek came first. Jesus spoke Aramaic, yes, but the writers wrote in Greek which became the common tongue under Roman rule and to churches in the regions surrounding Israel, ie Ephesus, galatians etc... that spoke Greek.
It is a Catholic myth that the Jews did not speak Hebrew at the time of Jesus. They say this to diminish the importance of Hebrew. Please read Acts 22:2, Luke 23:38. In newer translations they even changed the Greek Ἑβραϊκοῖς to English Aramaic
Sorry but what you say is wrong... The catholic church recongnises the Peshitta as inspired and true for the deposit of faith, applied to the "aramaic" churches that are located in Syria, Lebanon, Irak, etc. The true fact is that the Nestle-Aland greek text (how to merge 4 different greek dialects into one greek that never existed, ask Nestle LOL) is a stupid idea.
The main problem the catholic church made on this topic is to follow the protestant Nestle-Aland school. Peace
Here are the facts Jesus as well as in his disciples primarily spoke Aramaic in the first century in the Holy Land that much is not in dispute what's also not in dispute is that Jews living outside the Holy Land especially in Egypt Rome Greece Asia Minor we're Greek speaking. Hebrew was only spoken by the priests in the temple and The Rabbis in the synagogues on the Sabbath. They would read from the Torah in Hebrew and there would be a person who would give an oral paraphrase in Aramaic
If only Priests spoke and read Hebrew in Jesus' time, how come today many Jews speak Hebrew? was there a period where they reverted back?
@@MSA-uj7cp Aramaic was the language of first century Israel and they used Aramaic Old Testament since people in first century Israel didn't speak Hebrew. Old Hebrew manuscripts were kept by Hebrew Priests only for religious purposes. According to Dead Sea Scrolls Archaeologist Yigael Yadin, Hebrew was revived (in the form of Mishnaic Hebrew) during Bar Kokhba revolt (132 to 135 AD) by Bar Kokhba.
@@josephpendleton4927 Many thanks for the answer. VERY helpful.
@@MSA-uj7cp you are welcome. I also want to let you know that Aramaic Old Testament is called Aramaic Peshitta Tanakh. Aramaic New Testament is called Aramaic Eastern Peshitta. Hebrew Masoretic Text (Hebrew Old Testament) was written several centuries after first century AD.
@@josephpendleton4927 Many thanks for that. Any ideas as to what the Apostle Paul (from the NT) would have had? The Greek septuagint or the Aramaic Peshitta Tanakh?
Why is hebrew not an option. Most of the dead sea scrolls are in hebrew.
Sorry for the late answer but the documents found in the dead sea are about the old testament I think
The language of first century Israel was Aramaic (For example, Field of Blood was known to "all the inhabitants of Jerusalem" as Akel Dama in Acts 1 verse 19 which is Aramaic) and they used Aramaic Old Testament among people of first century Israel. But Hebrew was preserved by Hebrew Priests for religious purposes. According to Dead Sea Scrolls Archaeologist Yigael Yadin, Hebrew was revived (in the form of Mishnaic Hebrew) during Bar Kokhba revolt (132 to 135 AD) by Bar Kokhba.
In John, it says the sign put over the cross was written in Hebrew, Latin and Greek. Why would they do that if Aramaic was so popular?
You make an excellent point, my friend. The fact of the matter is that "historians" claim Aramaic was the most common language among the people, but if that's truly the case.... why was the sign written in Hebrew, Latin, and Greek? I would say it wouldn't be the first time "historians" got it wrong.
This is why I don't like "history" outside of the Bible. There's a hefty lot of man made traditions and supposed "historical theories" (as I call them) that directly contradict the Bible but somehow made it into the Church of Jesus The Christ. Incidentally Paul The Apostle WARNED not to add man made "traditions" into the church. I would say it's safe to assume that anything outside of the Bible is irrelevant.
I've heard plenty of Atheists use all kinds of ridiculous arguments to state their "case", but almost none of them are correct or in context to the scriptures. You'd think that such a group of people who claim to be purveyors of the truth would actually study the word in order to disprove it if they were trying to make a good argument to state their opposition. It's even funnier when they claim they have read The Bible, but the moment they speak to a seasoned follower of Jesus The Christ who knows the scriptures you can tell they're regurgitating what they saw online or a foolish documentary. That's not the pursuit of truth; I don't even know WHAT to call that.
Rule of thumb.... if it's not in the Bible then it's irrelevant. No matter the historian, theologian, or preacher.... if it isn't in the scriptures like... oh... skin color (Black Fake Israelites) or language or so forth... how many regions, civilizations, and societies have been taken over, layed to waste, wiped out to where a new society or culture took over that we don't even know about besides through "evidence" left behind by those civilizations? You see what I mean? It's all guess work. It's all theory. Quite frankly it's irrelevant. All that matters is the Bible There's our history, and the only history, wisdom, poetry, and knowledge we ought to want or need. The world's education is guess work at best..... besides mathematics.... and science..... REAL SCIENCE THAT CAN BE PROVEN THROUGH OBSERVATION AND IT'S REPEATABLE. All else in the world's education is garbage that needs to be thrown out in the trash.
the reason was the central language of rome was latin, greek ,in the 1 century they were the conquers of the jews and world at that time,every time a conquering people come they destroy history language and culture ,in other words you must convert to their culture and language to survive,even the name jesus is latin rendition of the True name,From babalon assyria all the lands of the fertile crest to Israel to Judah they spoke Aramiac and Judah Aramiac and Hebrew The greek translations came later from the romans
Greeks have a habit of claiming things in history. They're doing the same thing with Macedonia and Alexander the Great.
Its obvious that the New Testament would have been written in Aramaic and then translated into koine Greek.
be my friend there are RUclips videos. Its obvious from aramaic words mentioned and the style of writing, aramaic different to Greek. And why would they speak Greek then all of a sudden add aramaic words and terms?? And if i explain something with an American style analogy, can you say it’s written by other people??
So that’s some of the proofs it was written in aramaic by aramaic speakers
@@WatchmanofMKDN I recommend the video "New Testament written in Aramaic" by tabor7. It is a good video.
seriously !!! LoL 🤣
Then where are the Aramaic texts?
Why did Josephus (1st-century Jewish historian) write in Greek?
@Kyle De Franco Its because he was writing for a Gentile Audience. The Gentiles didn't speak Aramaic or even Hebrew; most of them spoke either Latin or Greek.
@@chandlersleziak6416 So, was the New Testament written for a Gentile audience then?
@@kyledefranco6720 No because clearly if it were spoken then it would have been spoken traditionally in Aramaic as Yeshua Ben Yosef was allegedly a Hebrew Rabbi who was never born in a Gentile culture; he was born into a Hebrew culture and spoke Aramaic and even Hebrew. The only reason why Gentiles even got the message because it would have been translated later for Gentiles to read and understand.
@Chandler Sleziak So, Christianity was never meant for Gentiles? And if that is the case, why then is there no evidence of any Aramaic or Hebrew version of the New Testament before the Greek?
The Letter of Aristeas starts off explaining that the reason the Torah was translated into Greek (around 270BC) was because so many Jews no longer spoke Hebrew.
Biblical Archaeology Review (September/October 1992 issue) states that 70% of Jewish funerary urns were inscribed in Greek, 11% in Latin, with only 19% in Aramaic, Hebrew or other languages... Meaning 70% of first century Jews wanted to be remembered in Greek.
The Ptolemies and Seleucids had 350 years with which to impose Greek culture on the ancient Jews. Do we think that had no affect? (The Book of Maccabees is all about ancient Jews assimilating into Greek culture and Antiochus IV going too far.) I'm just looking for evidence to back up the claims that the New Testament was originally written in Aramaic other than assertions.
@@kyledefranco6720 en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aramaic_original_New_Testament_theory#:~:text=Torrey%20opines%20that%20Revelation%20was,Christian%20Church%20was%20Aramaic%20only.
For starters, take this Wikipedia article into consideration. It is quite clear that the Brit Hadashai (New Testament) would have never been written in Greek first because the Tanakh (Old Testament) was never written in Greek first. So why would the Hebrews suddenly change the language if they were going to write a New Book in the Bible???
If Jesus only spoke Aramaic, then how did he converse with Pilate? Did Pilate speak Aramaic as well? Or was there a translator present? If a translator was present, then that throws biblical inerrancy out the window... Why did the New Testament not mention a translator? How do we know if the translator made a mistake? Or maybe, simply trying to make you question your faith is what these Judaizers are all about.
no one gives a flying fart about your faith
Tagalog division came first who kept the word of GOD I say the KJV bible is my grace salvation thru faith , it was one long line of code divided into ? Like Godisnowhere depending on your spirit it can only say 1 thing it can never read negative, check yourself if you read it negative, God is now here ,
The New Testament states that Jesus came from Galilee. Matthew 4:15 refers to Galilee as "Γαλιλαία τῶν ἐθνῶν", or, "Galilee of the Gentiles". Were the Gentiles Aramaic speakers?
Some were some weren't. A gentile is anybody who isn't a jew. The Aramaic language was not exclusive to jews.
Excellent information.
In my personal experience I have found that there are "many" that call Yeshu (the Messiah's actual name that the Greek translators simply added an "s" to the end of to get "Iesus") Lord, Lord" and call themselves "Christians" but then they openly reject EVERYTHING the Messiah told His followers to "OBSERVE AND DO" (Mat 23:2-3) because they're not interested in the Truth recorded all through the Scriptures. They love their perverted satanic traditions way to much to part with them so they lie to themselves and have become self deluded. You could produce a literal mountain of apodictic evidence and these self deceived people would dismiss every bit of it as false to maintain the lies they love so much. (Rev 22:15) These are the same people that claim the Law of Moses was "fulfilled" and "nailed to the cross" even though in Acts 15:20-21 it's written: "But that we write unto them, that they abstain from defilements of idols (Lev 17:7), and from fornication (Lev 18:1-30), and from things strangled (Lev 17:15-16), and from blood (Lev 17:10, 12-14). For Moses of old time has in every city them that preach him, being READ in the synagogues every SABBATH DAY."
So clearly the apostles wrote to tell the new gentiles converts to begin to "OBSERVE and DO" the Law of Moses with these four things in the Law just like Messiah told them too! And obviously, the apostles, INCLUDING PAUL, wrote this expecting the new gentile converts to be IN THE SYNAGOGUE ON THE SABBATH DAY to learn the rest of the Father's Covenant Law. The Law of Moses is what was read from Moses' Seat every SABBATH DAY. These are called Torah Portions today. And this was written YEARS after the Messiah ascended. But, like I said, the "many" reject the obvious Truth of Scripture for their self delusion. If they didn't the Messiah would have been lying when He said in Mat 7:21-23: "Not every one that says unto me, Lord, Lord, shall enter into the kingdom of heaven; BUT HE THAT DOES THE WILL OF MY FATHER who is in heaven. MANY will say to me in that day, Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in your name? and in your name have cast out demons? and in your name done many wonderful works? And then will I profess unto them, I never knew you: depart from me, you that work iniquity." = LAWLESSNES.
And we know the Messiah is not a liar so there has to be a "many" for Him to say this too.
Lol u mad? The will of the Father is to believe in his son not your works.
Seems like you need to ask God for his Holy Spirit that you may know the truth you are being self righteous.
@@iamhisservant5787 Apparently, maverica weigigirl, it looks like you've chosen to dismiss the Messiah's words and follow the lawless and rebellious religion of men. They received their religion from the spirit of antichrist and will soon worship the coming "man of sin". "SIN" is defined by the Apostle John as "TRANSGRESSION OF THE LAW": 1 Jonh 3:4. How can John say that if there is no "LAW"? Sadly, it looks like you've been deceived and have chosen NOT to "observe and do" what the Messiah and His Apostles told the Messiah's followers to do. Apparently, by your words, you believe your a follower of Messiah and are filled with the Spirit. How can that be when you don't "observe and do" what He said to "observe and do"? The Messiah said in John 14:15-17;
"If you love me, KEEP MY COMMANDMENTS. And I will pray the Father, and he shall give you another Comforter, that he may abide with you forever; Even the Spirit of Truth; whom the world cannot receive, because it sees him not, neither knows him: but you know him; for he dwells with you, and shall be in you."
Only AFTER you DO as the Messiah said and "KEEP MY COMNANDMENTS" can you receive the Holy Spirit from His Father. Those are the Messiah's own words. The Messiah's "Commandments" are not His. They are His Father's "Commandments". Maybe you are unaware of who the Messiah actually is. Maybe you don't understand that He is the Father's "Word". The "Word" that became flesh. According to the Messiah Himself, He IS the Father. The Father and Son are One. (Deut 6:4) John 14:9-11;
"Jesus said unto him, Have I been so long a time with you, and yet have you not known me, Philip? HE THAT HAS SEEN ME HAS SEEN THE FATHER; and how say you then, Show us the Father? Believe you not that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? THE WORDS THAT I SPEAK UNTO YOU I SPEAK NOT OF MYSELF: BUT THE FATHER THAT DWELLS IN ME, he does the works. Believe me that I am in the Father, and the Father in me: or else believe me for the very works' sake."
Who do you think it was that "appeared" in the burning bush? Who do you think wrote the Commandments in stone, with His "FINGER"? It was Messiah before He came in the flesh. The Messiah said in John 5:37;
"And the Father himself, who has sent me, has borne witness of me. You have neither heard his voice at any time, nor seen his form."
The Father is Spirit and is invisible. The Messiah, before coming in the flesh, was the "Angel of YHWH". According to Paul in Col 1:15, speaking of the Messiah, said; "Who IS the IMAGE of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation:"
So the Messiah is the "Word of God". The "Word" is the Messiah, Preincarnate. It was the Preincarnate Messiah that gave the Covenant Law to Moses. He IS the Father. The Messiah wouldn't end the Father's Covenant Law, the very thing that teaches self-control and righteousness. AND HE DIDN'T. He said so Himself in Mat 5:17-20;
"Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfill. For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass away, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled. Whosoever therefore shall break one of these least commandments, and shall teach men so, he shall be called the least in the kingdom of heaven: but whosoever shall do and teach them, the same shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven. For I say unto you, That except your righteousness shall exceed the righteousness of the scribes and Pharisees, you shall in no case enter into the kingdom of heaven."
It looks as though you need to stop listening to the false teachers and the lying men your following and actually READ the words of the Messiah and His Apostles. The religion your following is teaching and doing the opposite of what the Messiah said. It is "antichrist". He said He did NOT come to destroy the LAW or the PROPHETS. But to "fulfill" them. I'll bet you've been told that when Messiah said "fulfill" He finished the Law. That "fulfill" means to end, do away with, DESTROY. It does not. The Greek word the translators rendered "fulfill" means: "fulfil, i.e. to cause God's will (as made known in the law) to be OBEYED AS IT SHOUD BE, and God's promises (given through the prophets) to receive fulfilment".
Go back and read the Sermon on the Mount. The Messiah didn't weaken the Law. He revealed that the problem is inside man's wicked hearts and in doing so He made the Law stronger! The Law of God is supposed to be written on our hearts now. How can that happen if we don't listen to or read and learn the Law of God? That's what was read from Moses' Seat every Sabbath in the synogogue. This is also what the Apostles expected the Gentile converts to do as well. (Acts 15:20-21.)
The True followers of the Messiah, those filled with His Holy Spirit, "observe and do" what the Messiah said to "observe and do". He said in Luke 6:46-49;
"And why call me, Lord, Lord, and do not the things which I say?" Whosoever comes to me, and hears my sayings, and DOES them, I will show you to whom he is like: He is like a man who built a house, and dug deep, and laid the foundation on a rock: and when the flood arose, the stream beat vehemently upon that house, and could not shake it: for it was founded upon a rock. But he that hears, and DOES NOT, is like a man that without a foundation built a house upon the earth; against which the stream did beat vehemently, and immediately it fell; and the ruin of that house was great."
Sadly, it appears you've listened to liars and "blind leaders of the blind" and its led you to build your house on dirt. There is still hope though. As long as your alive and breathing you can repent from your rebellion and sin (transgression of the Law) and then obey the Messiah. If not you are guaranteed to perish.
The Messiah warned about people that reject the Messiah and His Apostle's words. He said only those that DO the Will of His Father in heaven will enter His Kingdom.
Mat 7:21-23;
"Not every one that says unto me, Lord, Lord, shall enter into the kingdom of heaven; but he that DOES THE WILL OF MY FATHER who is in heaven. Many will say to me in that day, Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in your name? and in your name have cast out demons? and in your name done many wonderful works? And then will I profess unto them, I never knew you: depart from me, you that work iniquity." "OUCH!"
You might want to look up the word "Iniquity". You'll find it means "lawlessness".
I sincerely hope you'll reconsider your "belief" and repent. And then "observe and do" the Law of Moses like the Messiah and Apostles did. And that's what they told the Messiah's followers to do too. Then your house will be built on The Rock. Please, study this issue. Think for yourself. Don't let false teachers lead you astray. Do what the Messiah told His followers to do. Your eternity depends on it. If you don't you WILL hear the Messiah say; "Depart from me; you that work iniquity/lawlessness" at YOUR judgement. I truly don't want that. Shalom. 👴🙏
@@iamhisservant5787 QUOTING the Messiah and His Apostles is being "self righteous"?? Boy, you really are lost. Well, Ok. But I tried to warn you. So, your blood is on your own head.
Apparently, your religious beliefs are more important to you than the Messiah's words, which you obviously don't believe. You probably believe John was lying as well when he said;
"Blessed are they that DO HIS COMMANDMENTS, that THEY may have right to the tree of life, and may enter in through the gates into the city. For outside are dogs, and sorcerers, and fornicators, and murderers, and idolaters, and whosoever LOVES and MAKES a lie." Rev 22:14-15.
I guess we know where you'll spend eternity. You won't be alone though. Sadly, it looks like you'll be counted among the "many" the Messiah spoke of in Mat 7:21-23. I really hope you change you mind.
@@iamhisservant5787
Unless you call Christ a liar. He is clear
“If ye love me, keep my commandments.”
John 14:15 KJV
If you don’t love him them dont. The choice is yours. BUT
CHRIST also said
“Search the scriptures; for in them ye think ye have eternal life: and they are they which testify of me. And ye will not come to me, that ye might have life. I receive not honour from men. But I know you, that ye have not the love of God in you. I am come in my Father's name, and ye receive me not: if another shall come in his own name, him ye will receive. How can ye believe, which receive honour one of another, and seek not the honour that cometh from God only? Do not think that I will accuse you to the Father: there is one that accuseth you, even Moses, in whom ye trust. For had ye believed Moses, ye would have believed me: for he wrote of me. But if ye believe not his writings, how shall ye believe my words?”
John 5:39-47 KJV
What are the scriptures he referring to? The Torah. Obviously as the NT wasn’t written as yet. Who writings are we to believe and if we can’t believe moses how can we Christ. The scriptures moses wrote. The Torah.
He is telling us. Are we listening.
We were are saved and born and again we becomed renewed. We are to love the lord with all heart and might, and others as ourselves.
🙏🏾
Illiterate fear tactics where are the records??????
What a joy to Discovery GO to RUclips Channel ❣️🎯🙏🏻
Q. How Jesus became GOD?
Ans =
Aramaic to Greek to Hebrew to English
somewhere in the translation. . .
VValo achi this is kind of difficult to understand unless you find God or I would have never of known. I was saved through the Holy Spirit.
He always was God and will always be God. God is incarnate through Jesus our Messiah our savior. They are two but one. Jesus when risen sits at the right hand of God the Father in heaven. God is also the Holy trinity. Father which is God/Yahweh, Son which is Jesus Christ/ Yeshua and Holy Spirit meaning both one God. Through the Holy Spirit Jesus was born and given to us to save our souls from damnation. We choose where we go, it’s our own action that brings us closer to God or further. Jesus our merciful God forgives all who sin who are truly sorry for there sins. The more you sin the further you are from God. In the end you are to blame not God. Jesus our savior is the key to heaven. God the creator of all loves us so much he gave us his only begotten son. Jesus is the lamb of God who suffered for our sins. Our God suffered for us so immensely as seen on the cross. There is no way or words to express this fact. My love and gratefulness for God is beyond words could ever say. God/ Jesus is our Messiah. Jesus is the last sacrificial Lamb that paid the price for our sins through love. I pray souls come to find out this reality, and love and appreciate our Holy God with all there hearts the way he deserved from the beginning of time. Please everyone say sorry for your sins..... for our Blessed Mother. Find Jesus, he is our only light , he is the truth and love. The Blessed Mother is our Mother first our beautiful queen of heaven and earth, our mother. There is a Heaven where God is of all Holy truth and Love, and there is h... God, we love and cherish you with all our heart and soul, our Beautiful Blessed Mother with love and cherish you with all our heart and soul. May your hearts and souls always be protected and loved through our prayers like an unbreakable sheild. I pray we are protected from all evil, of what we do not know or do not understand of you oh Lord, or if we’ve been deceived or brought further from you in any way. I pray Jesus your name and truth be spread like wild fire through out your world and universeI. I pray people start teaching this to there kids then there kids kids forever more so we can be one under God.
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@@tarynray6362
We Muslims also Believe Jesus is The Christ ,
who is the ''Word of GOD''
and borned from Virgin Merry,
is the only way to God.
Infact believing in Jesus(PBUH) is
one of the fundamentals of Islam.
But we Muslims believe Jesus(PBUH) is the Christ
and a great massenger of GOD.
as Jesus(PBUH) described Himself in the Bible.
And QURAN also confirms this fact.
But christians believe that Jesus(PBUH) is GOD himself.
which Jesus(PBUH) never in His life claimed even in the bible.
In the bible ,
Jesus (PBUH) fall on his face and prayed to GOD.
if Jesus is GOD then whom He prayed to?
The matter is, It is saint paul who taught
"Jesus is GOD" and the "Trinity".
But Jesus (PBUH) never even said This.
Paul was a great enemy of Jesus christ(PBUH).
He made this to destroy the real christianity.
"Jesus is the only way to God."
If following Jesus(PBUH) is christianity then
we Muslims are the real "Christians".
As we respect and follow Jesus(PBUH) in
every aspect of our life.
And You claim to be Christians
But the reality is you are "Paul-utions''
Bcoz u follow the enemy of Jesus - st. paul.
To know The hidden secrets
(hidden by charch) do this=
1. Read the Bible cover to cover yourself.
2. Read a translation of The QURAN in your motherlanguage.
3. Hear lectures of Ahmed Deedat in you tube on this topic.
NOTE:
PBUH = Peace Be Upon Him
Why would good Jewish parents want their children to speak Aramaic if Greek was the lingua franca of the Mediterranean?
Aramaic was the lingua franca of the Middle East in first century AD.
In Acts 1 verse 19, Field of Blood was known to "all the inhabitants of Jerusalem" in their own tongue as Akel Dama which is the transliteration of Aramaic words "Haqal Dama."
Josephus learned Greek in order to communicate with Romans and Greeks living in European regions and to translate his works into Greek for Romans and Greeks.
Josephus points out that Parthians, Babylonians, remotest Arabians, and those of his own nation beyond Euphrates with Adiabeni knew accurately through books he wrote "in the language of our country" (which is Aramaic), prior to translating into Greek for the benefit of the Greeks and Romans (Josephus’ Judean Wars Book 1, Preface, Paragraph 1 to 2).
Josephus points out that his nation didn't encourage the learning of Greek and Hebrews knowing Greek were extremely rare in first century AD (in his Antiquities XX XI).
Josephus' above testimony is also supported by Old Testament where Nehemiah the Governor was angry with Hebrews (or Judeans) and cursed Hebrews when they abandoned their language and their culture in favor of the cultures and the languages of Ashdod, Moabites, and Ammonites (Nehemiah 13:23-26).
This is also agreed by Dead Sea Scrolls Archaelogist Yigael Yadin who points out that Aramaic was the lingua franca of the time period (Yadin's Book "Bar Kokhba: The rediscovery of the legendary hero of the last Jewish Revolt Against Imperial Rome" Page 234).
The translation of Law of Moses into Greek occurred during the rule of Ptolemy II Philadelphus (who ruled from around 284/283 BC to 246 BC) so that Ptolemy II Philadelphus could add these books into his library collection.
Josephus also points out that the translation under Ptolemy II Philadelphus did not go further than Law of Moses (Genesis to Deuteronomy) (Josephus’ Antiquities Preface, Paragraph 3). Many other books (Joshua to Malachi) of Old Testament were added to Septuagint gradually.
During the time of Josephus (37 AD to 100 AD), the history from the time of Antiochus Epiphanes’ conquest of Jerusalem (For example, 1 Maccabees) weren’t translated into Greek.
That is why Josephus starts his Judean Wars Book 1 from Antiochus Epiphanes’ conquest of Jerusalem (Judean Wars Book 1, Preface, Paragraph 6).
Beware of the Judaizers.
Love your neighbor and your enemies. Fool.
@@Doriesep6622 Just like biblical and historical evidence proves that jesus and his apostles were vegatarians biblical and historical evidence also proves that the trinity, atonement, original sin and hell are very late misinterpretations and are not supported by the early creed hence its not a part of Christianity I pray that Allah swt revives Christianity both inside and out preserves and protects it and makes its massage be witnessed by all people but at the right moment, place and time
The secred text of the Bible says ye shall know them by their fruits
So too that I say to my christian brothers and sisters be fruitful and multiply
Best regards from a Muslim ( line of ismail )
When did the Jews stop speaking Hebrew and switch to Aramaic? And how come Jews still speak Hebrew, why wan't the language lost?
@douglas acebedo Thank you so much for that detailed answer, and it sounds like you've done a deep dive into this period and know what you're talking about :) I guess Christians (like me, and perhaps you?) want things (especially the origin of the Bible) to be nice and neat, but the truth seems to be much more messier than that. I may re-read your answer and come back with questions at a later point, but many thanks for this answer.
@douglas acebedo thanks
Both Hebrew an Aramaic were spoken then and there.
As for you question why Hebrew "wasn't" lost, well, it was lost for 1600 years as a spoken language, only persisted in written form in lithurgy. Similarly to Latin. A revival movement for it started at the end of the 19th century.
Jesus = a Jew
His Apostles = Jews
Paul of Tarsus = another Jew
James (Jesus brother's) = a Jew
why is the New Testament originally written in Greek if all of them were Aramaic / Hebrew speaking Jews!
P L A G A R I S M.
Master Gichin Funakoshi Paul/Apollo was a Hellenistic Jew. Luke was a Greek physician. Titus was a Roman name also Timothy is a Roman name. Mark is Roman name too. Most romans and Greeks were. Ames after great Roman/Greek warriors. Titus was a great Roman soldier.
He was a Jew he said he us Yahudim/Yehudim. And also said he is a roman and the commander noticed he had citizenship and shau'ul(Pa'al) Paul said that he was even born there.
Acts 22:1-30
YAHWEH wrote the scripture from Genesis to Revelation in Hebrew. Yahweh does everything TWICE. Once in the old covenant and once in the New covenant. Yahweh does NOT change. We know for a fact that the old covenant scripture was written in Hebrew. Therefore the New covenant scripture must have ALSO been written in Hebrew. Evidence proves this to be so as well. The Christians translated the scripture into Greek to put their greek god jesus in the bible. Everything that comes from the Greek is evil. The Name of THE Creator YAHWEH is written nearly 7,000 times in the scripture. YAHWEH is THE NAME above all names. Yahshua is The Name above all names UNDER heaven. Acts 4: 12. There is NO person in the scripture called ' jesus christ '. The letter " J " only came into existence less than 500 years ago. Look it up. All who call upon THE NAME Yahweh shall be saved. So it is written . Bless you.
Letthere belight it’s Yeshua, YAHSHUA was a creation of two loons, in 1950. NOT ONE HEBREW NAME STARTS WITH YAH, not one !!!!! Many start with Yeh, and many end in YAHU but none start with YAH... you can’t make up words and names for a language.
I'm pretty sure God knows who your talking about when you say either translation. People fight over the dumbest things.
"the old covenant scripture was written in Hebrew" And a little Aramaic. Do you think some of "the New covenant scripture must have ALSO been written in" Aramaic?
Yeah well, no.
Why did Philo (1st-century Jewish philosopher) write in Greek?