there're so beautiful variations on that prelude written by Polish composer Alexander Tansman. He wrote that piece for classical guitar, and i also play guitar so i totally recommend that marvelous piece...
@karrotkake There is a debate about whether or not Scriabin went atonal. If you understand his late era as a series of dominant chords (which I partially do) still you have the extravagance that the tonic is never stated, which leaves you with two centres a tritone apart. and if it were not because of the enharmonics in the score, you wouldn’t know which one is the dominant and which one the Neapolitan, which to a listener would sound as two sounding tonal centres and two implied ones, which in my opinion are not really implied and just able to be understood with a thorough study of Scriabin’s own music theory which he never revealed during his lifetime. So both sides could be argued Feel free to correct me or to point out something that I omitted, though
OMG YES!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
Wonderful stuff!
Op 16 no 4 is extremely underrated and I am really happy to see that people appreciate it
Btw: For some reason I thought you also liked his atonal era
there're so beautiful variations on that prelude written by Polish composer Alexander Tansman.
He wrote that piece for classical guitar, and i also play guitar so i totally recommend that marvelous piece...
i would avoid calling it his "atonal era" as scriabin never went atonal
@Hubert_Marczak Thanks for recommending it, I really liked it. I might even do an analysis on it in the future
@karrotkake There is a debate about whether or not Scriabin went atonal. If you understand his late era as a series of dominant chords (which I partially do) still you have the extravagance that the tonic is never stated, which leaves you with two centres a tritone apart. and if it were not because of the enharmonics in the score, you wouldn’t know which one is the dominant and which one the Neapolitan, which to a listener would sound as two sounding tonal centres and two implied ones, which in my opinion are not really implied and just able to be understood with a thorough study of Scriabin’s own music theory which he never revealed during his lifetime. So both sides could be argued
Feel free to correct me or to point out something that I omitted, though