Hey Wes, thank you for all the diligent work. I recently found you from a debate I seen with Billy Carson. I admire your work and also inspired by your work and dedication to the Lord. I subscribed to the channel and would love to see more long form content with you. Have a blessed day my brother in Christ.
Wesley, thank you so much for this study. This section of John is one of my favorite passages of the bible. I look forwzrd to your next study. Enjoy your little daughter, they grow up so fast.
Thank you so much for this. I have zero understanding of the original languages, other than using some simple Bible study tools. You simplified it enough for me to be able to follow along.
Critics don't realize you have faith that the Greek narrative decades after the death/rising of Jesus is faithful to the truth of a mans existence and meaning.
Question; Is it possible that vs 13 is about Jesus, rather than the believer? Because Jesus Christ is, "of God," he is not of blood, nor of the will the flesh nor of the will of man. These human qualities listed, remains with us even when we are born of the Spirit.
wes the word as a person who acts and does things like a person comes from the Aramaic targums it's in their extensively. See the book hell is made holy to see a number of good examples
I love the hoops that are needed to jump through to try to justify why 1:1c’s theos isn’t indefinite. It should be noted that the explanation is circular - it presupposes that the last theos in 1:1c is definite based on theological presuppositions alone rather than the grammar. Also, in 20:28, Jesus wasn’t referring to Jesus as “o theos”. That is God Almighty. There’s nothing in the grammar that demands one believe he is referring to Jesus. He is expressing an exclamation to God. Or perhaps he’s acknowledging Jesus as a representative of God. There are many ways to understand this verse that doesn’t result in the trinity which contradicts the entirety of the scriptures. That’s why trinitarians need to pick out a dozen or so “proof texts” which have meaning that are flexible enough that they could be interpreted in a variety of ways, rather than to take the entirety of the scriptures into account.
No hoops jumped through: simply an exercise in how to read the original language. There is also no way to read John 20:28 grammatically in the original language without both ὁ Κύριός (my Lord) and ὁ Θεός (my God) being linked directly to the αὐτῷ (him) -- Jesus. The only reason you would reject that is if you were coming in with the precondition already that Jesus couldn't possibly be God. I.e. come in with your conclusion and eisagetically interpret that into the text rather than letting the text communicate its intention. John describes Jesus as divine on page one and contently does that right up to Thomas' acknowledgement of that fact. In other words what I'm seeing in your comment is a good example of: tell me you don't read Greek and can walk through the text exegetically without telling me you don't read Greek and can walk through the text exegetically.
@@WesHuff yes, there’s no doubt Thomas is addressing that remark Jesus when he says “my lord and my god”. It’s another thing to say he is saying Jesus is Almighty God. It takes theological interpretation to move from the statement to the assertion that Jesus is God. You are doing exactly what you are accusing me of. There’s no use claiming grammar says any more than it does. I’m educated enough in Koiné to know when trinitarian scholars are trying to read exactly what they want the text to say. The thing that makes me the most sceptical about the trinitarian position is the assertion that there is only one possible way to interpret texts such as those we are discussing, when indeed there multiple possible explanations of the text. Also, Jesus is indeed divine. But that’s not the same as calling him God. You see, I am not assuming you know no Greek (as you are doing to me). I am just saying you are putting forward a particular interpretation.
I think you are not explaining that there is Theon and Theos Theos is the same word used at acts 28 v 6 is translated a god so John 1 v 1 shud be translated a god or divine they are 234 bibles that don’t say the word was God
@ you need to have a study with some 1 see Adam was not God he was a perfect man before he sinned so to buy us back we needed a perfect man who do you think that person was ?
@@michaelhaigh9182 This comment does not address my comment, which was retorting to your denial of Jesus being God. God is the only one who can forgive sins. Therefore, if Jesus was just a man, a mere prophet, as those who came before him, then we are still dead in our sins. It sounds like you deny the doctrine of original sin. I suppose you think you can earn God's grace through works? And yes Jesus was sinless and was that perfect sacrifice we needed both human and divine, our kinsman-redeemer. Read up on the Levitical sacrificial system which points to Jesus and you will then understand why a perfect lamb without blemish was needed.
@ because God is immortal that means he carnt die impossible look up that word 1 Timothy 6 v 16 so this i# why Jesus was not THEY GOD HE is the son of God first born of all creation
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I would very happily binge 5-6 hours strait of this content
Amen
Same
Hey Wes, thank you for all the diligent work. I recently found you from a debate I seen with Billy Carson. I admire your work and also inspired by your work and dedication to the Lord. I subscribed to the channel and would love to see more long form content with you. Have a blessed day my brother in Christ.
Just so that you know Wes, this was great! I'll be sure listen to more of these whenever you're available to record more.
Wesley, thank you so much for this study. This section of John is one of my favorite passages of the bible. I look forwzrd to your next study. Enjoy your little daughter, they grow up so fast.
Didn't even nod off! Just discovered your channel. Looking forward to diving into more.
Thank you so much for this. I have zero understanding of the original languages, other than using some simple Bible study tools. You simplified it enough for me to be able to follow along.
Thank you Wess for this interesting video! I appreciate this conent so much! Hope younare doing good!
Thanks Wes! Great content! Looking forward to hearing more!
Thank you for this Wes. Love your channel.
Thanks for doing the hard work so people like me can have a better understanding of
I really enjoyed this, thank you so much Wes!
This was very informative. ^•^
Awesome. Can't wait for more!!!
that was fun. i read along with my only bible the new king james version by thomas nelson. im going to look for another episode tomorrow, thank you
thank you for this
This was wonderful, thank you so much
Critics don't realize you have faith that the Greek narrative decades after the death/rising of Jesus is faithful to the truth of a mans existence and meaning.
Wow... I used to think it'd be awesome to learn to speak n read ancient greek... wes, you've made me see tje folly of my fantasy😂😂😂😂
❤❤❤❤🎉
❤👏
Question;
Is it possible that vs 13 is about Jesus, rather than the believer?
Because Jesus Christ is, "of God," he is not of blood, nor of the will the flesh nor of the will of man.
These human qualities listed, remains with us even when we are born of the Spirit.
Where do you buy a facisimile or (copy) of P66. Is available to the public?
wes the word as a person who acts and does things like a person comes from the Aramaic targums it's in their extensively. See the book hell is made holy to see a number of good examples
I love the hoops that are needed to jump through to try to justify why 1:1c’s theos isn’t indefinite. It should be noted that the explanation is circular - it presupposes that the last theos in 1:1c is definite based on theological presuppositions alone rather than the grammar. Also, in 20:28, Jesus wasn’t referring to Jesus as “o theos”. That is God Almighty. There’s nothing in the grammar that demands one believe he is referring to Jesus. He is expressing an exclamation to God. Or perhaps he’s acknowledging Jesus as a representative of God. There are many ways to understand this verse that doesn’t result in the trinity which contradicts the entirety of the scriptures. That’s why trinitarians need to pick out a dozen or so “proof texts” which have meaning that are flexible enough that they could be interpreted in a variety of ways, rather than to take the entirety of the scriptures into account.
No hoops jumped through: simply an exercise in how to read the original language. There is also no way to read John 20:28 grammatically in the original language without both ὁ Κύριός (my Lord) and ὁ Θεός (my God) being linked directly to the αὐτῷ (him) -- Jesus. The only reason you would reject that is if you were coming in with the precondition already that Jesus couldn't possibly be God. I.e. come in with your conclusion and eisagetically interpret that into the text rather than letting the text communicate its intention. John describes Jesus as divine on page one and contently does that right up to Thomas' acknowledgement of that fact.
In other words what I'm seeing in your comment is a good example of: tell me you don't read Greek and can walk through the text exegetically without telling me you don't read Greek and can walk through the text exegetically.
@@WesHuff yes, there’s no doubt Thomas is addressing that remark Jesus when he says “my lord and my god”. It’s another thing to say he is saying Jesus is Almighty God. It takes theological interpretation to move from the statement to the assertion that Jesus is God. You are doing exactly what you are accusing me of. There’s no use claiming grammar says any more than it does. I’m educated enough in Koiné to know when trinitarian scholars are trying to read exactly what they want the text to say. The thing that makes me the most sceptical about the trinitarian position is the assertion that there is only one possible way to interpret texts such as those we are discussing, when indeed there multiple possible explanations of the text. Also, Jesus is indeed divine. But that’s not the same as calling him God. You see, I am not assuming you know no Greek (as you are doing to me). I am just saying you are putting forward a particular interpretation.
I think you are not explaining that there is Theon and Theos Theos is the same word used at acts 28 v 6 is translated a god so John 1 v 1 shud be translated a god or divine they are 234 bibles that don’t say the word was God
If Jesus was not God, the sacrifice on the cross could not forgive you of your sins.
@ you need to have a study with some 1 see Adam was not God he was a perfect man before he sinned so to buy us back we needed a perfect man who do you think that person was ?
@@michaelhaigh9182 This comment does not address my comment, which was retorting to your denial of Jesus being God. God is the only one who can forgive sins. Therefore, if Jesus was just a man, a mere prophet, as those who came before him, then we are still dead in our sins. It sounds like you deny the doctrine of original sin. I suppose you think you can earn God's grace through works? And yes Jesus was sinless and was that perfect sacrifice we needed both human and divine, our kinsman-redeemer. Read up on the Levitical sacrificial system which points to Jesus and you will then understand why a perfect lamb without blemish was needed.
@ because God is immortal that means he carnt die impossible look up that word 1 Timothy 6 v 16 so this i# why Jesus was not THEY GOD HE is the son of God first born of all creation
@ yes Jesus is the divine son of God divine dos not mean he was almighty God mighty god yes
:D
It’s clear Jesus is YHWH