You are easily my favorite how-to Latin channel on the net. Mostly because you not only cover the what, but thoroughly cover the why. Awesome as always.
The "K before A" rule seems to have been revived in Late Latin. Charlemagne (Karl der Grosse) the medieval king, spelled his name as KAROLVS on official documents.
Kick more like Cicc In slang we're turning Ck into cc or even q Thicc Thiq Atacc I realize thicc and thick have different meanings but still. Please be mature
The use of C & K is a defining feature of modern European languages. C before A, O, U and QU before E, I, all pronounced as "k", are a features of of the spelling of most modern Romance languages, except Italian and Romanian which have different conventions. The letter K is only used only in loan-words in most Romance languages. The letter K is used in preference to the hard C in Germanic languages, with the exception of English, which tends to follow French spelling conventions. Basque (Euskera), Finnish (Suomi) and the Slavic languages all have the letter K as only way to represent the "k' sound.
Thank you for clarifying this issue! This is a serious problem in the field of Numerology where each letter translates to a number. In English, the issue is with 'k' and 'c', (2 and 3) vibrations; 'g' and 'j', (7 and 1) vibrations; 'oo' and 'u', (6/6 and 3) vibrations; 'x' and 'ks', (6 versus 2/1); and qu and cu, (8/3 and 3/3) vibrations. The vowels 'E', 'I', and 'Y' are used interchangeably in many words and there is little control. The English language, when compared to others, is overcomplicated and a "runaway train"!
I think that's just an alternative analysis of the same underlying reality. Someone can correct me if I'm wrong, but I believe the labialized velar stop could only exist before a vowel in Latin. In any case, does anyone know if there's any language with a phonemic distinction between the voiceless labialized velar stop /kʷ/ and the cluster /kw/?
latintutorial I recommend this idea because thru most of the Roman Empire's existence the Romans were radical xenophobes to everyone not Roman Latin. even Latins were considered inferior to Romans so I've always wanted to know the differences between these Italic tribes
@@stevene6181 Not completely true, they allowed if they submitted to continue living the way they used to, as long they pledged loyalty to the Roman Empire and payed taxes.
One thing that confuses me is: if the Etruscans wrote their language from right to left, why did the Romans flip the Etruscans' language? Did the Romans know about Greece and thought they would be cool if they wrote like them?
Ancient Roman's writing started one way and the next line was written in the opposite direction, and the next line was switched again and so on and so forth.
In German we use the letter I before a consonant and the letter J before a vowel. Both are exactly the same sound. If large numbers of Germans had not been writing French for a long time and now English, we probably would have lost the J a long time ago. The letter C is basically never used as a consonant anymore, unless you want to look old timey. (Like writing "ye" instead of "the" in English.) In German we only use the c for special sounds that have no unique letter, like "sch" and "ch". And for some completely incomprehensible reason, "kk" is always spelled "ck".
You know, the letter K may be super duper rare in Latin, but I know a little bit of French, but the K is only used is proper names and loanwords in French. (e.g. klaxon, kilomètre, and kilowatt) I also took Spanish, and when I went over the alphabet, my teacher told us that the letter K is never used, but it is extremely rare. Oh, and "klaxon" means horn, like the musical instrument.
If we include medieval Latin, there's also the word "karitas" (alternative spelling of "caritas" which means "love/charity"). Came across that one a while back when looking at some of St. Hildegard's chants.
In fact, that's not an exclusively Medieval spelling, the corresponding adjective 'carus' is often written with a k in ancient letters and inscriptions (even more often than a c, according to the TLL).
Interesting. When I first saw this title, I thought about the trial of Cicero vs Erucious. In Ancient Rome, the letter "K" (which stood for Kalumniator) would be carved in the head of any Prosecutor who brought forward cases to prevent frivolous or bad cases as a way of keeping the courts in check.
The letter K was used a lot in ancient latin, and had a pronunciation of [k] and [g]. When C was developed and assigned the sound [k], the usage was dropped and K was used to mean [g]. When the letter G was written and was assigned to the sound [g], the K letter was dropped outside of few words like Kalendae so it became obsolete.
Sometimes in English I know the letter G is pronounced with either the hard 'guh' sound like in the name Gary, but sometimes it's pronounced like 'juh' as in change. Does Latin do the same? And where does that come from?
Latin doesn't do this but languages that derive from it do (Italian) or do a similar change (French, Spanish, Portuguese). I'm pretty sure most of English's "soft G" sounds come directly from French just like soft C.
No, Latin G is always "hard G" like "Gary", there is no ʤ sound in latin, it was a ecclesiastical latin thing. Same for the tʃ pronunciation of "C", it was always "hard K" like "kill". K and G are related in ancient Latin, as K represented both /k/ and /g/ sounds. ʤ in medieval latin pronunciation of G started to be pronounced from influence of French\Spain. In my language, ʤ sound is used instead of /g/ when in front of vowels E & I, and H is used in front of G to make the "hard G" sound in front of E & I, like GHE and GHI /ge/ /gi/ instead of classical latin that ALWAYS has the "hard G".
In many Indo-European languages kw(qu) sound is apparent. For example in Persian (and Kurdish) there are many words with xw( x here is like guttural greek x) like "xwod" meaning self. And i think it has a relation with Latin "quod". And in English it is not hard to estimate that what comes from kwat.
It looks like the /xw/ cluster in Persian, which is nowadays usually pronounced as just /x/, if I'm not mistaken, actually comes from PIE *sw-. For example, this would make Persian خود (xwod) related to Sanskrit स्व (sva), which also means 'self', and Persian خورشید (xworšid) 'sun' and Avestan hvarə-xšaēta- 'bright sun' related to Sanskrit स्वर् (svàr) 'sun'. You are quite correct that Latin quod and English what are related.
@@novvain495 That's right; the words are both related through the Indo-European root *kelh₁-. It looks like an older form of the Greek word is καλέω. Looking through modern etymological dictionaries, it seems that historical linguists think both words are native to their respective languages.
The only unique thing about c in English now is ch and ck, the latter making the same noise but is probably due to some etymology in unaware of. A real thought: should we just ditch c?
We shouldn't dit_h c bekause it would be diffikult and unkomfortable to write words like pakket and tsheese. And fonetik speling wud be laik opening a Pandora'z Boks and kud kauz huje problemz in all sirkumstansiz, plus it wud be fukking uglee and krappi.
It's difficult because we'll have to unlearn the habit of spelling and this'll make the current and previous generations uncomfortable. But there is nothing inherently wrong with a phonetic script that disregards etymology, as long as it is consistent, and doesn't shove in a bunch of new pedantic rules. English isn't like French were words mean nothing without context. The Pandora's Box you warn about is trivial and will hardly impede comprehension in most circumstances. Also, in regards to uglyness, there really isn't anything æsthetically pleasing about our current orthography to begin with, and quite frankly i think that Icelandic and Finnish are more pleasant to look at than our current mishmash of spelling. (They're also more phonetically consistant.)
-Rainbow Bubbles- I agree that there's nothing wrong with it. We would, however, drop history for practicality. That's America's decision to make. Or Britain, or whichever English speaking country is entertaining this thought. I don't know what you mean by the French though. Their words mean nothing without context? I also don't know a lot about Icelandic or Finnish, but I'm sure they have more attractive words.
Corn Mono -- I mentioned French because the comment i replied to talked about how a phonetic script "could cause problems in all circumstances." In French, which is full of homophones, context is often needed to know what a sound/word means. Example, the word represented by the sound /o/, could mean eau, haut, au. If i say the words by themselves, it's pretty much a guess to know what i mean. So, in French context is necessary in both speaking and writing. The pandora's box is an issue that doesn't really apply to English. I mention Icelandic and Finnish because both are largely phonetic and, in my eyes, aesthetically pleasing. I mentioned it to show how, if English changed to a phonetic spelling, English wouldn't necessarily look ugly. My comment is pretty old, and i see places where i am vague. I should've clarified my opinion clearly. Edit: I would prefer we keep a spelling based on history, but even then it would require reforming English, such as removing the "s" from "island" or the "gh" from delight, or the "l" from "could," which are all unetymological. Either way, English needs some reform, but i doubt it'll ever get any. Edit 2: Hauever, if wí did yús a fonetik orþografí, ai wud luv bringing bak ðe "þorn" and "eð." Nau þat wud bí kúl! Þink yú not?
Yep, but they are currently hosted on my *old* youtube channel. How about instead of watching those videos, you go to a site I made explicitly for teaching how to scan hexameter. You'll find my videos posted on that site, too. www.hexameter.co. It's awesome.
I can't think of an example of a word with CH that doesn't come from a Greek (or another language) loan word. Meaning its origin doesn't come from the rules of Latin. I'd love to be proven wrong, though!
@@edomeindertsma6669 Some of those come directly through English's natural evolution, and some through French. If it comes through French later, it sounds like "sh" (chauffeur).
"Kalos" doesn't share any etymology with English "call" or "hail". Call comes from OE callen, from PIE galos. Hail comes from OE hale from PIE koylos. Kalos comes from PIE kelh1. Also, wiktionary lists all these words with a c, and I've only ever seen them with one.
Not "hail" but "hale". Yes, it's a weak connection, but still there. I love wiktionary, but it's not THE authoritative source. Meaning, just because you don't find it in wiktionary doesn't mean that it doesn't exist. And modern editors will sometimes turn these k- words into c- words, just because they prefer that.
latintutorial yeah, but the etymologies are from numerous other dictionaries, that state they're unrelated (but some of those do use k instead of c). Hale, whose meaning refers to health and is completely different from the meaning of "kalō", also comes from PIE koylos. These are not connections at all. Not to mention that PIE etymological connections are just confusing for Latin learners who haven't learned the distinction between a word with shared etymology in PIE and loanwords through French/Latin. I do, however, agree that wiktionary isn't the authoritative source, but I don't have that many others regarding Latin, which, compared to PIE, I'm new to. I have searched for more Latin resources and seen them spell various sets of words with K, some claiming it's the same as Latin C and only varies between fonts, others saying that there is no c, or no k, our various combinations of words belonging to each. It's clearly in great dispute, and I don't know enough to judge, but I do know that wiktionary and Google Translate only use C. So... I'll just leave it up in dispute (but the first one (fonts) seems to make the most sense to me, from the little I've seen).
Yes, although there wasn't always there. It represents the voiced palatal approximant consonant sound [j]. It was created from the letter «i» and a long time later they were differentiated from each other due to their different vowel and consonant sounds, since since their creation they were interchangeable and «j» was a mere graphic variant of «i». For example, you could write «maius» or «majus» ('May'). It was also sometimes used (I don't remember on what occasions and for what) at the end of Roman enumerations with many «I» («VIII» and «VIIJ») 😅.
you are not going to convinċe me ðat i should drop 'c' for 'k'. Whatever 'k' is supposed to be, it is an aberration on orþograṗy. i can only picture 'k' as a letter of insults, like 'krakker' or 'amerika', for instanċe.
You are easily my favorite how-to Latin channel on the net. Mostly because you not only cover the what, but thoroughly cover the why. Awesome as always.
Thanks!
20 years since i got hons in latin at uni
The "K before A" rule seems to have been revived in Late Latin. Charlemagne (Karl der Grosse) the medieval king, spelled his name as KAROLVS on official documents.
Kick more like
Cicc
In slang we're turning
Ck into cc or even q
Thicc
Thiq
Atacc
I realize thicc and thick have different meanings but still.
Please be mature
The use of C & K is a defining feature of modern European languages. C before A, O, U and QU before E, I, all pronounced as "k", are a features of of the spelling of most modern Romance languages, except Italian and Romanian which have different conventions. The letter K is only used only in loan-words in most Romance languages. The letter K is used in preference to the hard C in Germanic languages, with the exception of English, which tends to follow French spelling conventions. Basque (Euskera), Finnish (Suomi) and the Slavic languages all have the letter K as only way to represent the "k' sound.
Eve Tap Code doesn't use K
Thank you for clarifying this issue! This is a serious problem in the field of Numerology where each letter translates to a number. In English, the issue is with 'k' and 'c', (2 and 3) vibrations; 'g' and 'j', (7 and 1) vibrations; 'oo' and 'u', (6/6 and 3) vibrations; 'x' and 'ks', (6 versus 2/1); and qu and cu, (8/3 and 3/3) vibrations. The vowels 'E', 'I', and 'Y' are used interchangeably in many words and there is little control. The English language, when compared to others, is overcomplicated and a "runaway train"!
I thought, qu was specifically for words that used a labialized velar stop, whereas c was just for plain velar stops.
cynicsfaith It does. Especially in Classical Latin you see exclusively qu for /kʷ/.
I think that's just an alternative analysis of the same underlying reality. Someone can correct me if I'm wrong, but I believe the labialized velar stop could only exist before a vowel in Latin.
In any case, does anyone know if there's any language with a phonemic distinction between the voiceless labialized velar stop /kʷ/ and the cluster /kw/?
I think there are some c-q minimal pairs in Latin. Like _cui_ and _qui_
I know it's not exactly Latin but you should do comparison of Latin to her sister languages in the Italian peninsula
That's a neat idea. I'll have to do a lot of research first, though.
latintutorial I recommend this idea because thru most of the Roman Empire's existence the Romans were radical xenophobes to everyone not Roman Latin. even Latins were considered inferior to Romans so I've always wanted to know the differences between these Italic tribes
@@stevene6181 Not completely true, they allowed if they submitted to continue living the way they used to, as long they pledged loyalty to the Roman Empire and payed taxes.
One thing that confuses me is: if the Etruscans wrote their language from right to left, why did the Romans flip the Etruscans' language? Did the Romans know about Greece and thought they would be cool if they wrote like them?
Ancient Roman's writing started one way and the next line was written in the opposite direction, and the next line was switched again and so on and so forth.
Exactly, at first they wrote from right to left, and later adopted both systems until left to right won and the right to left system became obsolete.
In German we use the letter I before a consonant and the letter J before a vowel. Both are exactly the same sound. If large numbers of Germans had not been writing French for a long time and now English, we probably would have lost the J a long time ago.
The letter C is basically never used as a consonant anymore, unless you want to look old timey. (Like writing "ye" instead of "the" in English.) In German we only use the c for special sounds that have no unique letter, like "sch" and "ch". And for some completely incomprehensible reason, "kk" is always spelled "ck".
The BEST u tub channel of all!!! Thank you so much!!!
You know, the letter K may be super duper rare in Latin, but I know a little bit of French, but the K is only used is proper names and loanwords in French. (e.g. klaxon, kilomètre, and kilowatt) I also took Spanish, and when I went over the alphabet, my teacher told us that the letter K is never used, but it is extremely rare. Oh, and "klaxon" means horn, like the musical instrument.
Can you post a video about the phenomen of rotacism for ancient latin Z?
Actually, the use of the "K" was revived by the Germans.
If we include medieval Latin, there's also the word "karitas" (alternative spelling of "caritas" which means "love/charity"). Came across that one a while back when looking at some of St. Hildegard's chants.
In fact, that's not an exclusively Medieval spelling, the corresponding adjective 'carus' is often written with a k in ancient letters and inscriptions (even more often than a c, according to the TLL).
Interesting.
When I first saw this title, I thought about the trial of Cicero vs Erucious. In Ancient Rome, the letter "K" (which stood for Kalumniator) would be carved in the head of any Prosecutor who brought forward cases to prevent frivolous or bad cases as a way of keeping the courts in check.
Very interesting
Very Cool. Well done!!!!!!! Thanks.
I always wondered why "k" in German is pronounced like "kah" and not "kae" similar to other German letters. Thank you.
HI , how do you pronounce " CE & CI " in Latin ?? kay & key ?? / Circenses ( kir ken ses ) ? Thnx
/kɛ kɪ/
Ce is like KE of "Kelly" and CI is KI of "Kill".
The letter K was used a lot in ancient latin, and had a pronunciation of [k] and [g].
When C was developed and assigned the sound [k], the usage was dropped and K was used to mean [g].
When the letter G was written and was assigned to the sound [g], the K letter was dropped outside of few words like Kalendae so it became obsolete.
Sometimes in English I know the letter G is pronounced with either the hard 'guh' sound like in the name Gary, but sometimes it's pronounced like 'juh' as in change. Does Latin do the same? And where does that come from?
Latin doesn't do this but languages that derive from it do (Italian) or do a similar change (French, Spanish, Portuguese). I'm pretty sure most of English's "soft G" sounds come directly from French just like soft C.
No, Latin G is always "hard G" like "Gary", there is no ʤ sound in latin, it was a ecclesiastical latin thing.
Same for the tʃ pronunciation of "C", it was always "hard K" like "kill".
K and G are related in ancient Latin, as K represented both /k/ and /g/ sounds.
ʤ in medieval latin pronunciation of G started to be pronounced from influence of French\Spain.
In my language, ʤ sound is used instead of /g/ when in front of vowels E & I, and H is used in front of G to make the "hard G" sound in front of E & I, like GHE and GHI /ge/ /gi/ instead of classical latin that ALWAYS has the "hard G".
The three letters are still named “Cé” (C), “Ka” (K) and “Cú” (Q) to this day in Spanish.
In three years of study, I have never encountered a Latin word that begins with a K. I had understood that Latin had no K, and used only C.
Seriously, not even Kalendae?
Kalendae is one word with K, although is most of times written with C as it had the same sound.
Also Karthago, (the capital of the Carthaginians)
In many Indo-European languages kw(qu) sound is apparent. For example in Persian (and Kurdish) there are many words with xw( x here is like guttural greek x) like "xwod" meaning self. And i think it has a relation with Latin "quod". And in English it is not hard to estimate that what comes from kwat.
It looks like the /xw/ cluster in Persian, which is nowadays usually pronounced as just /x/, if I'm not mistaken, actually comes from PIE *sw-. For example, this would make Persian خود (xwod) related to Sanskrit स्व (sva), which also means 'self', and Persian خورشید (xworšid) 'sun' and Avestan hvarə-xšaēta- 'bright sun' related to Sanskrit स्वर् (svàr) 'sun'.
You are quite correct that Latin quod and English what are related.
Why then words like Knight or knife or know or Knott?
They come from the Germanic side of English.
@@latintutorial Exactly!👍
The k was pronounced in middle English. In other germanic languages like swedish you still have stuff like kniv (knife) for example
Why there was a Q in the first place?
The Q was to distinguish the QV (kw) sound from the K\G sound.
Ðe ṗonećians happened.
You need C for CH tho, C can't be removed from English
Qui faciebat Latina fit Mortuam Linguam?
kalo? It seems to me like the Greek word καλώ whuch means the same thing!
Khatz Mikhael cognate
They're probably related through a Proto-Indo-European root
@@novvain495 That's right; the words are both related through the Indo-European root *kelh₁-. It looks like an older form of the Greek word is καλέω. Looking through modern etymological dictionaries, it seems that historical linguists think both words are native to their respective languages.
The only unique thing about c in English now is ch and ck, the latter making the same noise but is probably due to some etymology in unaware of.
A real thought: should we just ditch c?
We shouldn't dit_h c bekause it would be diffikult and unkomfortable to write words like pakket and tsheese. And fonetik speling wud be laik opening a Pandora'z Boks and kud kauz huje problemz in all sirkumstansiz, plus it wud be fukking uglee and krappi.
It's difficult because we'll have to unlearn the habit of spelling and this'll make the current and previous generations uncomfortable. But there is nothing inherently wrong with a phonetic script that disregards etymology, as long as it is consistent, and doesn't shove in a bunch of new pedantic rules. English isn't like French were words mean nothing without context. The Pandora's Box you warn about is trivial and will hardly impede comprehension in most circumstances. Also, in regards to uglyness, there really isn't anything æsthetically pleasing about our current orthography to begin with, and quite frankly i think that Icelandic and Finnish are more pleasant to look at than our current mishmash of spelling. (They're also more phonetically consistant.)
-Rainbow Bubbles-
I agree that there's nothing wrong with it. We would, however, drop history for practicality. That's America's decision to make. Or Britain, or whichever English speaking country is entertaining this thought.
I don't know what you mean by the French though. Their words mean nothing without context?
I also don't know a lot about Icelandic or Finnish, but I'm sure they have more attractive words.
Corn Mono -- I mentioned French because the comment i replied to talked about how a phonetic script "could cause problems in all circumstances." In French, which is full of homophones, context is often needed to know what a sound/word means. Example, the word represented by the sound /o/, could mean eau, haut, au. If i say the words by themselves, it's pretty much a guess to know what i mean. So, in French context is necessary in both speaking and writing. The pandora's box is an issue that doesn't really apply to English.
I mention Icelandic and Finnish because both are largely phonetic and, in my eyes, aesthetically pleasing. I mentioned it to show how, if English changed to a phonetic spelling, English wouldn't necessarily look ugly.
My comment is pretty old, and i see places where i am vague. I should've clarified my opinion clearly.
Edit: I would prefer we keep a spelling based on history, but even then it would require reforming English, such as removing the "s" from "island" or the "gh" from delight, or the "l" from "could," which are all unetymological. Either way, English needs some reform, but i doubt it'll ever get any.
Edit 2: Hauever, if wí did yús a fonetik orþografí, ai wud luv bringing bak ðe "þorn" and "eð." Nau þat wud bí kúl! Þink yú not?
I think that having both Thorn and Eth is unnecessary as there are basically now th-th minimal pairs in English.
So is kyrie an ecclesiastical borrowing from Greek that disregarded these rules?
Not just that, it IS Greek.
I learn that k was used before the vowel a*, in between consonants*, and lone words.
*this would have fallen out of favor
K in classical latin was dropped almost entirely outside of few instances like Karthago or Kalendae.
But...
*Where’s Kalium?*
carthago delenda est, and all that
You
Could you make a video about Hexameters?
Yep, but they are currently hosted on my *old* youtube channel. How about instead of watching those videos, you go to a site I made explicitly for teaching how to scan hexameter. You'll find my videos posted on that site, too. www.hexameter.co. It's awesome.
Videos at www.hexameter.co/videos.php
latintutorial Very kind!! Thanks
Repost?
Yes. Some small but significant errors in the original video.
don't you forget the combination "CH'
I can't think of an example of a word with CH that doesn't come from a Greek (or another language) loan word. Meaning its origin doesn't come from the rules of Latin. I'd love to be proven wrong, though!
It is used in English though and doesn't have the same pronunciation as k.
X is superfluous in Latin as well, just shorthand for ks/cs.
@@edomeindertsma6669 "ch" absolutely sounds like k sometimes in English. Chronology, choir, character, chemical.
I was referring to the Ch in church, not the Ch in Greek loanwords.
@@edomeindertsma6669 Some of those come directly through English's natural evolution, and some through French. If it comes through French later, it sounds like "sh" (chauffeur).
Go raibh míle maith agat. Bhí sé sin ar fheabhas!
MR MURRAY IS THE GRAYEST
"Kalos" doesn't share any etymology with English "call" or "hail". Call comes from OE callen, from PIE galos. Hail comes from OE hale from PIE koylos. Kalos comes from PIE kelh1.
Also, wiktionary lists all these words with a c, and I've only ever seen them with one.
Not "hail" but "hale". Yes, it's a weak connection, but still there. I love wiktionary, but it's not THE authoritative source. Meaning, just because you don't find it in wiktionary doesn't mean that it doesn't exist. And modern editors will sometimes turn these k- words into c- words, just because they prefer that.
latintutorial yeah, but the etymologies are from numerous other dictionaries, that state they're unrelated (but some of those do use k instead of c). Hale, whose meaning refers to health and is completely different from the meaning of "kalō", also comes from PIE koylos. These are not connections at all. Not to mention that PIE etymological connections are just confusing for Latin learners who haven't learned the distinction between a word with shared etymology in PIE and loanwords through French/Latin.
I do, however, agree that wiktionary isn't the authoritative source, but I don't have that many others regarding Latin, which, compared to PIE, I'm new to. I have searched for more Latin resources and seen them spell various sets of words with K, some claiming it's the same as Latin C and only varies between fonts, others saying that there is no c, or no k, our various combinations of words belonging to each. It's clearly in great dispute, and I don't know enough to judge, but I do know that wiktionary and Google Translate only use C. So... I'll just leave it up in dispute (but the first one (fonts) seems to make the most sense to me, from the little I've seen).
Hale (verb) *is* from kelh1, like kalo: en.wiktionary.org/wiki/hale#Etymology_3
Is there a J in Latin?
J was I in Latin. That's why J and I looks similar
Yes, although there wasn't always there. It represents the voiced palatal approximant consonant sound [j].
It was created from the letter «i» and a long time later they were differentiated from each other due to their different vowel and consonant sounds, since since their creation they were interchangeable and «j» was a mere graphic variant of «i». For example, you could write «maius» or «majus» ('May'). It was also sometimes used (I don't remember on what occasions and for what) at the end of Roman enumerations with many «I» («VIII» and «VIIJ») 😅.
Hey Ben do you know Cameron
+deepesh aggarwal I know several people named Cameron.
rodriquez
+deepesh aggarwal No.
MR MURRAY
this is k erasure
carthage!!!!
Karthago.
All ALBANIAN WORD
Albanian have today this fonems...
🇦🇱 KA *HAVE or There
🇦🇱 KE *Have
🇦🇱 KU *WHERE
🇦🇱 KË *WHO
#digraph qu
you are not going to convinċe me ðat i should drop 'c' for 'k'. Whatever 'k' is supposed to be, it is an aberration on orþograṗy. i can only picture 'k' as a letter of insults, like 'krakker' or 'amerika', for instanċe.