The Cotangent's Series Expansion Derivation using FOURIER SERIES [ Mittag-Leffler Theorem ]

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  • Опубликовано: 24 апр 2019
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    Today we are going to derive a very important Pole Expansion, brought to you by Mittag-Leffler! Cot(z) will help us to derive Euler's famous sine product formula! Be prepared for that! =D
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Комментарии • 64

  • @harrygreen9804
    @harrygreen9804 5 лет назад +26

    We were watching this in class today and my maths teacher was so confused by all the memes

    • @harrygreen9804
      @harrygreen9804 5 лет назад +4

      @@PapaFlammy69 it was the end of the day so we gave up doing work and sir put videos on

    • @harrygreen9804
      @harrygreen9804 5 лет назад +4

      We all liked it because we're memelords but my teacher was confused, he loved the product integral boi though

    • @harrygreen9804
      @harrygreen9804 5 лет назад +3

      Int x^dx -1

    • @juanignaciodiaz28
      @juanignaciodiaz28 4 года назад +1

      The nipp action moment must've been awkward

  • @tommasobruggi6614
    @tommasobruggi6614 5 лет назад +7

    14:12 you definitely deserve a big thumbs up for the “ciao” at the end 🔥🇮🇹🇮🇹

  • @rot6015
    @rot6015 5 лет назад +8

    Me: *trying to study for final exams*
    Papa *publishes a new video*
    Me: "Ah shit. Here we go again"

  • @ToonGamesProject
    @ToonGamesProject 5 лет назад +6

    4:39 -t^2(tx) lmao

  • @johnkampmeyer5296
    @johnkampmeyer5296 5 лет назад +1

    Quality video as always, Papa Flammy!
    I repeated your analysis using sin(t x) on [-\pi, \pi]. After deriving the Fourier series for this function, I let x = \pi/2, which led me to an expression much like the one you got with a bunch of \pi t's everywhere. Letting z = \pi t, like you did, I arrived at another interesting series, namely
    sec(z) = 4\pi \sum_{n=1}^\infty (-1)^{n+1} (2n-1)/((2n-1)^2 \pi^2 - 4 z^2).

  • @McRawrzee
    @McRawrzee 5 лет назад +6

    Wow, in my Fourier analysis class today I just learned how to expand csc^2(x) as a series using Haar wavelets. Are you stalking me?

    • @McRawrzee
      @McRawrzee 5 лет назад

      Flammable Maths i still don’t understand why you split it into sin and cos instead of just using e^ikx. It might just be culture but i think using exponentials is way easier.

    • @McRawrzee
      @McRawrzee 5 лет назад

      Flammable Maths oh it’s because t is part of R\Z since doing trig functions of complex numbers is different, right?

  • @devd_rx
    @devd_rx 8 месяцев назад

    i love how bro is teaching exponentiation rules nowadays

  • @MindMathMoney
    @MindMathMoney 5 лет назад +8

    Nice meme! :=)

  • @MathIguess
    @MathIguess 4 года назад +1

    Incredible content :D

  • @tommasoconte591
    @tommasoconte591 4 года назад

    Shouldn't be [-\pi over t, \pi overt t] the interval of integration?? Can We do Fourier series only on the period interval of the function, or on every interval? i dont remeber

  • @ziov76
    @ziov76 4 года назад +3

    the first meme is so true

  • @neilgerace355
    @neilgerace355 5 лет назад +20

    14:00 make it stop

    • @alexismiller2349
      @alexismiller2349 5 лет назад +5

      You have no sense of good taste young one

    • @neilgerace355
      @neilgerace355 5 лет назад

      @@alexismiller2349 I'm not all that young :)

  • @THE_ONLY_GOD
    @THE_ONLY_GOD 2 года назад

    Can go to Berghain together this summer when I move to Europe again. Seem like a hilarious wingman.

  • @theflaggeddragon9472
    @theflaggeddragon9472 5 лет назад +1

    I did this literally two days ago for complex analysis!!

    • @theflaggeddragon9472
      @theflaggeddragon9472 5 лет назад

      @@PapaFlammy69 We used the formula for sin(pi z)/pi z= sum_(n in Z) 1/(z-n)^2 which was super lit... Fourier method is great tho!

  • @user-ps1dm4fc4l
    @user-ps1dm4fc4l 4 года назад +2

    3:10
    bk≠0
    Because t belongs to the The real set of numbers

    • @oni8337
      @oni8337 3 года назад +1

      yeah and b_k would equal to 1/𝜋 integral from -𝜋 to 𝜋 of cos(tx)sin(kx) and cos(tx)sin(kx) would be an odd function only if t and k have the same sign but t∈ℝ and k is defined for k≥1 or k∈ℕ so it isn't confirmed to be odd since t can be negative. Let's just assume the condition that t is strictly positive

  • @assafabram9649
    @assafabram9649 5 лет назад

    13:40 wasn't Mittag-Leffler a name of one mathematician? (I think his first name was Gustav)

  • @neilgerace355
    @neilgerace355 5 лет назад

    0:03 Besso?

  • @erfanmohagheghian707
    @erfanmohagheghian707 4 года назад

    You solved the integral the hardest possible way lol. the simplest way is using sum and difference formula
    by the way, the closed interval in Fourier series is never valid. At x=+/-L Fourier series converges to the average of the function values at the end points, here cos(t*pi) and cos(-t*pi) are the same, so the average is just cos(t*pi).

  • @July__-eu5pd
    @July__-eu5pd 5 лет назад +6

    That’s pretty imPOR’nt if you ask me :P

  • @matron9936
    @matron9936 4 года назад +2

    That’s cool

  • @tdiaz5555
    @tdiaz5555 5 лет назад

    um, video end result says sum from 1 to infinity but thumbnail goes from 0 to infinity.. What is it supposed to be? :/ sorry

  • @coefficient1359
    @coefficient1359 5 лет назад +2

    INTEGERS😘😘😘😘😘 amarlos

  • @avivavital3769
    @avivavital3769 5 лет назад +2

    n should start at 1 in the thumbnail

  • @thelightningwave
    @thelightningwave 5 лет назад +1

    Please do a video on why cot(x) is an odd function, but arccot(x) isn't.

    • @achyuthramachandran2189
      @achyuthramachandran2189 5 лет назад +2

      I'm not sure arccot(x) is even a function..

    • @pco246
      @pco246 5 лет назад +2

      arccot(x) is an odd function www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=arcot(x)
      Whenever an odd function has an inverse, that is odd too:
      -f(x) = f(-x) → f⁻¹(-f(x)) = f⁻¹(f(-x)) = -x = -f⁻¹(f(x)), and therefore f⁻¹(-f(x)) = -f⁻¹(f(x)) and so f⁻¹ is odd.
      Notice the same is never true for even functions: they are necessarily not injective so they never have an inverse function (on a symmetric interval)

  • @Azelide
    @Azelide 5 лет назад +1

    On your thumbnail the sigma summation goes from 0 to infinity but your expression goes from 1 to infinity...

  • @yugiohsc
    @yugiohsc 5 лет назад

    Mittag-Leffler is one person!

  • @roy2615
    @roy2615 5 лет назад +4

    0:01 mfw b r u h

    • @roy2615
      @roy2615 5 лет назад

      .... . / .-.. .. -.- . -.. / -- -.-- / -.-. --- -- -- . -. - .-.-.- / .. / .- -- / .. -.-. ... - .- - .. -.-.

  • @tomatrix7525
    @tomatrix7525 3 года назад

    Lol fucking legend

  • @tuhinmukherjee8141
    @tuhinmukherjee8141 5 лет назад

    Why do we need this expansion?

  • @69erthx1138
    @69erthx1138 5 лет назад

    @1:09 otherwise you would be thinking like a physicist my metro-unbearded lumberjack boi

  • @wiloux
    @wiloux 5 лет назад +1

    infinity jens gauntlet made burger king vanish :(

  • @abhinav05
    @abhinav05 2 года назад

    0:07 💀💀

  • @gabrielgabi543
    @gabrielgabi543 Год назад

    Place 0 in cot(x)

  • @THE_ONLY_GOD
    @THE_ONLY_GOD 2 года назад

    Makes Me think I would enjoy attending University in Germany or Austria in English language classes with teachers that have German accents. Pretty blonde froline teachers though.

  • @andreamonteroso8586
    @andreamonteroso8586 4 года назад +1

  • @tszhanglau5747
    @tszhanglau5747 5 лет назад +2

    burger king =0 lol

  • @soheilshirmohamadi3449
    @soheilshirmohamadi3449 5 лет назад

    Dude wtf? Why integration by parts?? See: cos(tx)cos(kx)=1/2cos(x(k+t))+1/2cos(x(k-t))

  • @dharmanshah1239
    @dharmanshah1239 5 лет назад +2

    :v

  • @soheilshirmohamadi3449
    @soheilshirmohamadi3449 5 лет назад

    Pi is not zero😂😂and it already has a proof

    • @futfan9092
      @futfan9092 5 лет назад +1

      Ehh yes it is? 0*0=0 but pi*0=0, so pi=0.

  • @billgrant7262
    @billgrant7262 5 лет назад +1

    Don't use the F word so lightly, it's poor taste.