@@MichaelLorenz i was looking at your publicity. I'm not hallucinating just making a point. For instance someone who is mostly excellent used a mozart sonata to illustrate sonata allegro form. Mozart like cpe bach was not at his best in SA form. Haydn was smoother than either mozart or beethoven. Paganini and kreutzer were great formalists. Not Mozart who was more comfortable in fantasía.
@@frillydaffodilly where's your evidence? Haydn was seemingly influenced by it, and since Haydn left no diaries about his creative process you can't really prove one way or another. From wikepedia " Musical theater became the meeting place of the literary and musical strands of Sturm und Drang, with the aim of increasing emotional expression in opera. The obligato recitative is a prime example. Here, orchestral accompaniment provides an intense underlay of vivid tone-painting to the solo recitative. Christoph Willibald Gluck's 1761 ballet, Don Juan, heralded the emergence of Sturm und Drang in music; the program notes explicitly indicated that the D minor finale was to evoke fear in the listener. Jean Jacques Rousseau's 1762 play, Pygmalion (first performed in 1770) is a similarly important bridge in its use of underlying instrumental music to convey the mood of the spoken drama. The first exampleof melodrama, Pygmalion influenced Goethe and other important German literary figures."
@@meyerbeer13 where’s YOUR evidence? Clive McClelland has written a whole book on this very subject. Your question is laughable because there is absolutely nowhere in recorded history where the term ‘sturm und drang’ was used to describe music during that time. It was a term used to describe literature. This is my point- not ‘seemingly influenced’ actual facts ie THERE IS NOTHING THAT MENTIONS THE TERM STURM UND DRANG IN MUSIC ONLY IN REFERENCE TO LITERATURE- we’re talking terminology here- not an aesthetic. End of.
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Why when you do Sturm und Drang do you still have to make Mozart the hero?
There are 12 pieces on this CD and only one of them, K. 546, is by Mozart. You are hallucinating.
@@MichaelLorenz i was looking at your publicity. I'm not hallucinating just making a point. For instance someone who is mostly excellent used a mozart sonata to illustrate sonata allegro form. Mozart like cpe bach was not at his best in SA form. Haydn was smoother than either mozart or beethoven. Paganini and kreutzer were great formalists. Not Mozart who was more comfortable in fantasía.
The term Sturm und drang was never used in relation to music.. it was a literary term.
@@frillydaffodilly where's your evidence? Haydn was seemingly influenced by it, and since Haydn left no diaries about his creative process you can't really prove one way or another. From wikepedia " Musical theater became the meeting place of the literary and musical strands of Sturm und Drang, with the aim of increasing emotional expression in opera. The obligato recitative is a prime example. Here, orchestral accompaniment provides an intense underlay of vivid tone-painting to the solo recitative. Christoph Willibald Gluck's 1761 ballet, Don Juan, heralded the emergence of Sturm und Drang in music; the program notes explicitly indicated that the D minor finale was to evoke fear in the listener. Jean Jacques Rousseau's 1762 play, Pygmalion (first performed in 1770) is a similarly important bridge in its use of underlying instrumental music to convey the mood of the spoken drama. The first exampleof melodrama, Pygmalion influenced Goethe and other important German literary figures."
@@meyerbeer13 where’s YOUR evidence? Clive McClelland has written a whole book on this very subject. Your question is laughable because there is absolutely nowhere in recorded history where the term ‘sturm und drang’ was used to describe music during that time. It was a term used to describe literature. This is my point- not ‘seemingly influenced’ actual facts ie THERE IS NOTHING THAT MENTIONS THE TERM STURM UND DRANG IN MUSIC ONLY IN REFERENCE TO LITERATURE- we’re talking terminology here- not an aesthetic. End of.