The legendary A5 Putnam integral: Richard Feynman vs Weierstrass

Поделиться
HTML-код
  • Опубликовано: 31 янв 2025

Комментарии • 26

  • @violintegral
    @violintegral 2 года назад +33

    Substituting x = tan(u) and then taking u --> pi/4 - u is equivalent to the substitution t = (1 - x)/(1 + x) (which implies x = (1 - t)/(1 + t)) since tan(pi/4 - u) = (1 - tan(u))/(1 + tan(u)) = (1 - x)/(1 + x) = t. Knowing this, using the substitution x = (1 - t)/(1 + t) and exploiting the beautiful symmetry within the integral is undoubtedly the most elegant solution in my mind, since it requires one less substitution and we don't have to venture into the trig world. Feynman's trick is always cool tho. I've never heard anyone call the substitution x = (1 - t)/(1 + t) the Weierstrass substitution, I thought that was just t = tan(x/2). That substitution is actually awesome tho, I used it to solve another integral on your channel by symmetry, the integral from 0 to infinity of (x - 1)/(sqrt(2^x - 1)*ln(2^x - 1)) w.r.t. x. I think a general case of this type of rational function substitution could be very useful for evaluating various definite integrals but I have yet to look into that.

  • @musicmakelightning
    @musicmakelightning 2 года назад +3

    It's been a long time since I was in school and had to do this kind of math, but it is so cool seeing someone who has a natural instinct for it showing all the cool tricks. Makes me feel young again. Thanks for your videos.

  • @jyotsanabenpanchal7271
    @jyotsanabenpanchal7271 5 месяцев назад

    Was looking for this, thank you.

  • @zunaidparker
    @zunaidparker 2 года назад +3

    Great video. Could you do a video about the Weierstrass substitution itself? E.g., explaining the link to tan(x/2), how it was discovered, how to identify when to use it, etc.

  • @thisisntthefirsttime
    @thisisntthefirsttime 2 года назад +1

    subtituting x = tan(u) and combining 1 + tan(u) to form (sin(u) + cos(u))/cos(u) allows you to apply the harmonic addition theorem for the numerator and to split the integral up by log properties.
    afterwards, you can apply log properties once again to pull out pi*ln(2)/8 and you're left with two integrals that differ by a parameter. to deal with this you can apply "king's property" and even function properties to arrive at pi*ln(2)/8.

  • @TheEternalVortex42
    @TheEternalVortex42 Год назад +1

    Fantastic

  • @sammtanX
    @sammtanX 7 месяцев назад

    BRO IS STILL CALM IN HERE

  • @manstuckinabox3679
    @manstuckinabox3679 2 года назад +2

    No contour Integral is like the Re(the complex man)...
    Man weistrauss subs are awesome! I should look over it's "rule of thumb" in regards in how to use it.

  • @doronezri1043
    @doronezri1043 8 месяцев назад

    Great video Kamal!
    How about writing 1/(1+x^2) as a geometric sum and the do integration by part (using polynomial division)? 😊

  • @thomasblackwell9507
    @thomasblackwell9507 2 года назад

    In my opinion, you take the win for coming up with the ways to solve it.

  • @anthonyjohnfinch6870
    @anthonyjohnfinch6870 3 месяца назад

    Hi Kamal. I’ve been following your integrals enthusiastically but I can’t access your descriptions! I can’t even see how to describe or see a list of the integrals you have solved. I’d like to see a proof of Euler’s reflection formula which doesn’t involve contour integration. This would imply integrating x^(n-1)/(x+1) without contour integration. Is this possible and, if so, how?

    • @maths_505
      @maths_505  3 месяца назад

      Here's a proof for the reflection formula (2nd half of the video):
      ruclips.net/video/5VE5kJUJFE0/видео.html

  • @hussainfawzer
    @hussainfawzer 2 года назад

    In what device your making these videos ?
    Tablet ? Or phone ? Or computer ?

  • @rudycummings4671
    @rudycummings4671 2 года назад +1

    Would like to see a solution using contour integration

    • @maths_505
      @maths_505  2 года назад +2

      Coming up in a few days

  • @holyshit922
    @holyshit922 2 года назад

    I like the second approach because it is the easiest way to calculate it in my opinion

  • @palpitate2005
    @palpitate2005 2 года назад

    Can it be solved by contour integration? (for Feyman's trick,let I(a)=int[ln(1+ax)/(1+x^2)].It is also possible.

  • @el_chippy_chips_20
    @el_chippy_chips_20 2 года назад

    No links in the description!

  • @lifelover9485
    @lifelover9485 5 месяцев назад

    the answer should be п*ln(4)/8

  • @Ayush-yj5qv
    @Ayush-yj5qv 6 месяцев назад

    Standard integral in iit