What is Conversion?
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- Опубликовано: 14 май 2015
- What is the tort of conversion? This video discusses conversion, where defendant intentionally and without authority deprives plaintiff of the use of his personal property.
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I'm studying for my torts final, reviewing my intentional torts, I had a hard time understanding the concept but your explanation is sooo helpful!!!!! thank you!
Thanks for watching Mirna and your kind words. Do great! uslawessentials.com
Great video!
Thank you so much for this video! :)
Simple. Easy to grasp.
This was helpful, thank you
You're welcome, thanks for watching. uslawessentials.com
Nice video.thanks
I stayed with my nephew for a few months last summer when I moved out of state, only until I could get a job and my own place. There was no mention of rent payments and I completed large projects for him in addition to chores for which I was never compensated. When I moved out he said I would have to pay him thousands or I would not get my Harley out of his garage. He actually made these demands in text messages to me. Is this conversion and what is my recourse?
Thanks
can anyone explain how the monetary value of the item is assessed. Say.. i'm suing a tow company and will include conversion in the lawsuit for my car worth 18,000
How is Tina acting in conversion if she receives the book "in good faith" and without knowledge that Debbie misappropriated control of the book?
Hi, MC. Conversion is not the same as "stealing". Even if a person believes she has rights to the property but intentionally takes control of property that belongs to someone else, she might be liable for conversion.
is because of the second element, think about it, exercise dominor or control, although she took in as you said in good faith bc she thought it was hers, she STILL INTENTIONALLY took it.., so all elements technically meet, 1. intent, 2.exercise dominor or control, 3. chattel or personalproperty 4. damages..
Can you please discuss on hallins v fowler case
I never read it so you'll have to tell me about it.
Does every crime of theft also involves the tort of conversion?
I'd say yes, theft is always conversion. If there is an exception I can't think of it. But the tort of conversion is not always the crime of theft.
Sir , plz discuss some questions also on every tort you explained
Hi Sankalp, what's your question please?
I guess also, it has to be that it’s clearly Peters book.
whats the difference between conversion and theft
Hi 2M. Conversion is a civil tort so it is a lawsuit brought by a private party (plaintiff) based on on the fact that defendant took his property and deprived plaintiff of use of that property. Theft is a crime that requires a person to intend to deprive someone else of their property and.it is prosecuted by the state. Let's say defendant mistakenly takes plaintiff's briefcase for a few hours, thinking that it is his own briefcase, and plaintiff can't use his briefcase for a few hours. Plaintiff can sue defendant for conversion. Defendant might not be guilty of theft though if he really believed it was his own briefcase and then returned it. His honest mistake might be a defense against the crime of theft.
@@USLawEssentials so if that person had immediately run back with the suitcase, it would probably have been fine (presumably). But even if it WAS an accident, had the defendant left for more than a couple hours, then there could be a case for conversion? Am I mistaken in saying that the amount of time the property is deprived of the plaintiff is really the key element over intent? Luggage looks very similar, USLE, I'm going to be extra careful at the baggage carousel now.
The key distinction I believe between the civil tort of conversion and the crime of theft is that in a criminal case a defendant can raise mistake as a defense. That is, the crime of theft typically requires the state to prove that defendant intended to deprive someone else of his property. Conversion does not require the plaintiff in a civil suit to prove that defendant had that wrongful intention. It would be enough to show that defendant asserted control over plaintiff's property without permission.
@@USLawEssentials Thank you! That clears it up :)
I thought this was a video on spiritual conversion...LOL Oppps
House of Israel OHIO hahaha😂
Torts of convension, doesn't protect the rights of stolen properties. then why those things looted in 1860 from china still exhibit ed in private n public galleries in Uk now?thx
So what if Debby starts renting the book to her friends, and she has a lot of friends, and it's a very popular and hard to find book.. She makes $ 5,000 does she have to "disgorge" the $ 5,000? All of it ? What if she also owns a .............. Let's jump to real life. I owned 20 golf carts and I owned a golf course. I sold the golf course but the new buyer didn't want the carts. I sold the course but did not try to retrieve the carts for 6 weeks after the sale. When I went to retrieve them, from the golf course the owner refused to give them to me. The owner used them for the next 8 months as part of the operations of the golf course. Is the owner lible to disgorge cash flow from the direct rental of the carts and the revenue that the golf course generated via restaurant, bar, green fees. What if the golf course lost money
And what if the owner of the golf course SOLD the carts to someone else?
Bruce, I can't discuss actual legal cases. As to whether disgorgement is ever a remedy in conversion cases - - yes. You would need to speak to a lawyer about your golf course issue. Thanks for the comment.