Thank you for doing this rundown of the historical-grammatical method. I myself am not a dispensationalist, but I utilize the historical-grammatical method for biblical interpretation. The past few years have seen a vicious attack against dispensational premillennialism and historical-grammatical hermeneutics, and it makes me sick.
Indeed. The attacks from professing brothers and sisters in Christ against these views IS sickening. Meanwhile, the world is laughing and watching with🍿and 🥤 😕
Thank you for the great overview and explanation of biblical interpretation. The following 2 verses stand out to me as having translational issues. One deals with Easter and the other with the day of Jesus’ resurrection. The reference to Easter in KJV Acts 12:4 is corrected in the NKJV to be Passover. However, it demonstrates how the Easter holiday influenced the translators' interpretations. The events of the Easter holiday also seem to play a role in the translation of Matt 28:1 and the corresponding texts of Mark 16:1, Luke 24:1, and John 20:1. NKJV Matt 28:1 - Now after the Sabbath, as the first day of the week began to dawn, Mary Magdalene and the other Mary came to see the tomb. From this translation, we conclude that Jesus’ resurrection was on Sunday. However, a more literal translation of the Greek text would read, ‘And on the eve of the sabbaths, at the dawn, toward the first of the sabbaths, came Mary the Magdalene, and the other Mary, to see the sepulcher.’ The literal translation is quite different from the NKJV, but what does it mean? In God’s appointed times of the annual Feasts, He mandates some very specific dates and rules to follow. Lev 23 and Deut 16 tell us that Nisan 14 is Passover, and Nisan 15 is the first day of the seven-day Feast of Unleavened Bread, which ends on Nisan 21. The month of Nisan is the first month of the lunar year and is confirmed by the barley harvest in the middle of the month. The first day of the month, Sunday, is established by sighting the first crescent moon. The full moon occurs 14 days after the first crescent moon. So, Passover being on the fourteenth day is a weekly sabbath and a full moon. Starting with the first day after Passover, seven Sabbaths are counted and numbered, and the next day is the 50th day, Pentecost. The first sabbath of the seven sabbaths is numbered and called ‘The First Sabbath’ and is Nisan 21, the ‘Second Sabbath’ is Nisan 28, and so on until the Seventh Sabbath. This counting of the seven sabbaths is referred to as the counting of the Omer. These are the Seven Sabbaths of Passover and can collectively be referred to as the ‘First Sabbaths.’ The Passover dates and the counting of the Omer provide the meaning of the literal text. ‘The eve of the sabbaths’ would be the eve of the First of the Seven weekly sabbaths which is Nisan 21. ‘At dawn, toward the first of the sabbaths’ tells us the time of day, which is just before or at sunrise. In the literal interpretation, the author indicates the exact month, day, and time of the resurrection. We can now understand that the passion of Jesus began at the Last Supper with the announcement of the betrayal by Judas and ended with His resurrection on the final Holy Convocation of the Feast of Unleavened Bread. Jesus’ week of passion is confirmed in the 7 days of the feast. The counting of the 40 days to Ascension parallels the counting of the Omer to the 50th day. Jesus’ 7 days of passion and 40 days to ascension align with the 7 days of Jonah and the 40 days that were given to Nineveh to turn from their evil way. Israel did not turn from their wicked ways after the crucifixion, so Jesus ascended earth leaving Israel desolate of His presence which fulfilled the prophecy of Daniel 9. The seven days and the 40 days also align with Noah’s seven days before the flood when they entered the ark and the 40 days of rain. Are there other texts that support a sabbath resurrection day? In the Matt 12:8-13 text, was Jesus prophesying about himself when He described these events? “For the Son of man is Lord even of the sabbath day. And when he was departed thence, he went into their synagogue: And behold, there was a man which had his hand withered. And they asked him, saying, Is it lawful to heal on the sabbath days? that they might accuse him. And he said unto them, What man shall there be among you, that shall have one sheep, and if it falls into a pit on the sabbath day, will he not lay hold on it, and lift it out? “Of how much more value then is a man than a sheep? Therefore, it is lawful to do good on the Sabbath.” Then He said to the man, “Stretch out your hand.” And he stretched it out, and it was restored as whole as the other.” Jesus had a withered nail-pierced hand from the cross and as the Lamb of God, He fell in the pit of death and God lifted Him out on the Sabbath. (Note: in verse 5 and in verse 10 the word ‘days’ is plural. Are the Pharisees referring to the days of the Seven Sabbaths? Maybe.) Does the literal translation of Matt 28:1 more accurately reflect the meaning intended by the author?
It lets the Bible speak for itself and understands that there are other broad themes like kingdom and biblical covenants that are driving the Bible's narrative. Redemption from sin is a very important theme but it's not the starting point for understanding Scripture.
Seems like LGH is, at best, a somewhat misleading term. Literal apparently doesn't mean what we usually think of as literal (Jesus isn't a literal gate). LGH doesn't seem to encompass Intertextuality (verses and passages that connect or correlate in some meaningful way). Historical, as I think is usually understood, doesn't seem to cover audience relevance. All in all, LGH seems like a mess that doesn't convey much useful meaning.
This is geat job to help all like me ,God bless your effert
Brother, these videos are excellent. Thank you for making it available to all of us.
Thank you for doing this rundown of the historical-grammatical method. I myself am not a dispensationalist, but I utilize the historical-grammatical method for biblical interpretation. The past few years have seen a vicious attack against dispensational premillennialism and historical-grammatical hermeneutics, and it makes me sick.
Indeed. The attacks from professing brothers and sisters in Christ against these views IS sickening. Meanwhile, the world is laughing and watching with🍿and 🥤 😕
How can you take the word literally and not see a distinction between Israel and the church 🤦🏼♂️
I’m reading “Dispensational Hermeneutics” right now. Thanks for this video and that book. Both very helpful! 🙏
This is so good! Thank you!!!
thank you very much
Thank you!
Splendid!
Thank you for the great overview and explanation of biblical interpretation. The following 2 verses stand out to me as having translational issues. One deals with Easter and the other with the day of Jesus’ resurrection.
The reference to Easter in KJV Acts 12:4 is corrected in the NKJV to be Passover. However, it demonstrates how the Easter holiday influenced the translators' interpretations. The events of the Easter holiday also seem to play a role in the translation of Matt 28:1 and the corresponding texts of Mark 16:1, Luke 24:1, and John 20:1.
NKJV Matt 28:1 - Now after the Sabbath, as the first day of the week began to dawn, Mary Magdalene and the other Mary came to see the tomb. From this translation, we conclude that Jesus’ resurrection was on Sunday.
However, a more literal translation of the Greek text would read, ‘And on the eve of the sabbaths, at the dawn, toward the first of the sabbaths, came Mary the Magdalene, and the other Mary, to see the sepulcher.’ The literal translation is quite different from the NKJV, but what does it mean?
In God’s appointed times of the annual Feasts, He mandates some very specific dates and rules to follow. Lev 23 and Deut 16 tell us that Nisan 14 is Passover, and Nisan 15 is the first day of the seven-day Feast of Unleavened Bread, which ends on Nisan 21.
The month of Nisan is the first month of the lunar year and is confirmed by the barley harvest in the middle of the month. The first day of the month, Sunday, is established by sighting the first crescent moon. The full moon occurs 14 days after the first crescent moon. So, Passover being on the fourteenth day is a weekly sabbath and a full moon. Starting with the first day after Passover, seven Sabbaths are counted and numbered, and the next day is the 50th day, Pentecost. The first sabbath of the seven sabbaths is numbered and called ‘The First Sabbath’ and is Nisan 21, the ‘Second Sabbath’ is Nisan 28, and so on until the Seventh Sabbath. This counting of the seven sabbaths is referred to as the counting of the Omer. These are the Seven Sabbaths of Passover and can collectively be referred to as the ‘First Sabbaths.’
The Passover dates and the counting of the Omer provide the meaning of the literal text. ‘The eve of the sabbaths’ would be the eve of the First of the Seven weekly sabbaths which is Nisan 21. ‘At dawn, toward the first of the sabbaths’ tells us the time of day, which is just before or at sunrise.
In the literal interpretation, the author indicates the exact month, day, and time of the resurrection. We can now understand that the passion of Jesus began at the Last Supper with the announcement of the betrayal by Judas and ended with His resurrection on the final Holy Convocation of the Feast of Unleavened Bread. Jesus’ week of passion is confirmed in the 7 days of the feast.
The counting of the 40 days to Ascension parallels the counting of the Omer to the 50th day. Jesus’ 7 days of passion and 40 days to ascension align with the 7 days of Jonah and the 40 days that were given to Nineveh to turn from their evil way. Israel did not turn from their wicked ways after the crucifixion, so Jesus ascended earth leaving Israel desolate of His presence which fulfilled the prophecy of Daniel 9. The seven days and the 40 days also align with Noah’s seven days before the flood when they entered the ark and the 40 days of rain.
Are there other texts that support a sabbath resurrection day? In the Matt 12:8-13 text, was Jesus prophesying about himself when He described these events? “For the Son of man is Lord even of the sabbath day. And when he was departed thence, he went into their synagogue: And behold, there was a man which had his hand withered. And they asked him, saying, Is it lawful to heal on the sabbath days? that they might accuse him. And he said unto them, What man shall there be among you, that shall have one sheep, and if it falls into a pit on the sabbath day, will he not lay hold on it, and lift it out? “Of how much more value then is a man than a sheep? Therefore, it is lawful to do good on the Sabbath.” Then He said to the man, “Stretch out your hand.” And he stretched it out, and it was restored as whole as the other.” Jesus had a withered nail-pierced hand from the cross and as the Lamb of God, He fell in the pit of death and God lifted Him out on the Sabbath. (Note: in verse 5 and in verse 10 the word ‘days’ is plural. Are the Pharisees referring to the days of the Seven Sabbaths? Maybe.)
Does the literal translation of Matt 28:1 more accurately reflect the meaning intended by the author?
Great video, Thank you!
How does this compare to a redemptive historic hermeneutic?
It lets the Bible speak for itself and understands that there are other broad themes like kingdom and biblical covenants that are driving the Bible's narrative. Redemption from sin is a very important theme but it's not the starting point for understanding Scripture.
Seems like LGH is, at best, a somewhat misleading term. Literal apparently doesn't mean what we usually think of as literal (Jesus isn't a literal gate). LGH doesn't seem to encompass Intertextuality (verses and passages that connect or correlate in some meaningful way). Historical, as I think is usually understood, doesn't seem to cover audience relevance. All in all, LGH seems like a mess that doesn't convey much useful meaning.