۱.Taking the square root of all data 2.Taking the logarithm of all data 3. 1/x to calculate 4. Arc sin(square root (x)) If didnt solve again. what shoul we do???
Dear Sir I have conducted MANOVA, the homogeneity variance assumption has been violated. Could you kindly provide me some references- if there is any alternative solution. Can I alternatively use standard deviation as a surrogate . Thanks in advance Sir.
Correct me if i'm wrong, but isn't the IQ-scale per definition adjusted according to the standard deviation such that an IQ of 115 is one standard deviation away from the mean and 130 thus two standard deviations away (which corresponds to 2.5 percentage scoring above)? Thus it wouldn't make sense to speak of two different distributions of IQ, would it?
No. The distribution for the entire population has certain fixed limits. It is, however, completely conceivable that if we were to take a sample of IQ at a fair of "Extraordinary People" we'd get a distribution with a very large variance. Equally taking a sample at a convention of nuclear physics would give us a distribution with a mean of let's say 130, that is, 30 points above the mean of the population distribution. The entire population has been fixed, yet individual groups may still vary.
![[TF2] The Russian Bear Trap](http://i.ytimg.com/vi/YFNSwz2_rOA/mqdefault.jpg)
Thanks for the video, it would have been helpful to know the two numbers in the heterogenous bit were supposed to be IQ scores
۱.Taking the square root of all data
2.Taking the logarithm of all data
3. 1/x to calculate
4. Arc sin(square root (x))
If didnt solve again. what shoul we do???
Hello teacher. When we faced with heterogeneous variance after this fourth work that did'nt solve it , what should we do?????
Thank goodness for this video. Yay!
Dear Sir
I have conducted MANOVA, the homogeneity variance assumption has been violated. Could you kindly provide me some references- if there is any alternative solution. Can I alternatively use standard deviation as a surrogate . Thanks in advance Sir.
Correct me if i'm wrong, but isn't the IQ-scale per definition adjusted according to the standard deviation such that an IQ of 115 is one standard deviation away from the mean and 130 thus two standard deviations away (which corresponds to 2.5 percentage scoring above)? Thus it wouldn't make sense to speak of two different distributions of IQ, would it?
No. The distribution for the entire population has certain fixed limits. It is, however, completely conceivable that if we were to take a sample of IQ at a fair of "Extraordinary People" we'd get a distribution with a very large variance. Equally taking a sample at a convention of nuclear physics would give us a distribution with a mean of let's say 130, that is, 30 points above the mean of the population distribution. The entire population has been fixed, yet individual groups may still vary.
Thanks
huh?