Hi, I am not positive I understand your question, but I think this is what you are looking for: The main idea behind one-way ANOVA is to compare the variance (or spread) between the different groups to the variance within each group. We want to see if the variability between the group means is significantly greater than the variability within the groups. So for your question, "Is it possible that the within groups is much higher than the between groups?": Yes, this is possible. If the variability within the groups is much larger than the variability between the group means, then this suggests that the group means are not significantly different from each other. In other words, the independent variable (the factor being tested) is not having a significant effect on the dependent variable. "Is it valid?": Yes, it is still valid to perform the one-way ANOVA in this case. Even if the within-group variance is higher than the between-group variance, the ANOVA test can still be used to determine if the group means are significantly different. "Can we still continue to perform ANOVA?": Absolutely. You should still proceed with the one-way ANOVA analysis. The ANOVA test will compare the between-group variance and the within-group variance, and provide a p-value that indicates whether the group means are significantly different or not, regardless of the relative magnitudes of the variances. Hope that helps!
@@motherofturtles3297 Hello, ma'am! May I ask why there are instances where the within-groups sum of squares is larger than the between-groups sum of squares? In articles that I have read, it is stated that this situation implies that the results have no significant difference. However, I have also come across examples in articles, existing studies, and even books where the results show a significant difference (with the within-groups sum of squares being larger than the between-groups sum of squares). What is the reason for this, ma'am? Is there any study/reference that will support it?
Hello! I am trying to find a way to contact you after I have discovered your channel. Do not worry, I am just a student with some dilemmas and questions about writing a research paper. Would you please drop an email address or a form of contact? Thank you in advance, it would be very much appreciated!
Hi Johnny, I don't give out my contact info except to students at my institution but I am happy to direct you to some resources. Do you have some specific questions I can answer? I wish you luck!
Hello ma'am! Is it possible that the within groups is much higher than the between groups? Is it valid? Can we still continue to perform ANOVA?
Hi, I am not positive I understand your question, but I think this is what you are looking for: The main idea behind one-way ANOVA is to compare the variance (or spread) between the different groups to the variance within each group. We want to see if the variability between the group means is significantly greater than the variability within the groups.
So for your question, "Is it possible that the within groups is much higher than the between groups?": Yes, this is possible. If the variability within the groups is much larger than the variability between the group means, then this suggests that the group means are not significantly different from each other. In other words, the independent variable (the factor being tested) is not having a significant effect on the dependent variable.
"Is it valid?": Yes, it is still valid to perform the one-way ANOVA in this case. Even if the within-group variance is higher than the between-group variance, the ANOVA test can still be used to determine if the group means are significantly different.
"Can we still continue to perform ANOVA?": Absolutely. You should still proceed with the one-way ANOVA analysis. The ANOVA test will compare the between-group variance and the within-group variance, and provide a p-value that indicates whether the group means are significantly different or not, regardless of the relative magnitudes of the variances.
Hope that helps!
@@motherofturtles3297 Hello, ma'am! May I ask why there are instances where the within-groups sum of squares is larger than the between-groups sum of squares? In articles that I have read, it is stated that this situation implies that the results have no significant difference. However, I have also come across examples in articles, existing studies, and even books where the results show a significant difference (with the within-groups sum of squares being larger than the between-groups sum of squares). What is the reason for this, ma'am? Is there any study/reference that will support it?
Hello! I am trying to find a way to contact you after I have discovered your channel. Do not worry, I am just a student with some dilemmas and questions about writing a research paper. Would you please drop an email address or a form of contact? Thank you in advance, it would be very much appreciated!
Hi Johnny, I don't give out my contact info except to students at my institution but I am happy to direct you to some resources. Do you have some specific questions I can answer? I wish you luck!