Isn't that direct 5ths between the soprano and bass on the IV chord in measure 1 (bass going to C and the soprano going to G)? When bass and soprano move in similar motion, the soprano must move by step for it to be okay. Even though you have added a passing tone, that doesn't excuse the pre-existing direct 5th issue.
Rules are there as guidelines, in the end the question to ask is "Does it sound good?" If so keep it. When an artist runs out of canvas they'll paint on the walls.
If we descend A to D in tenor in the final chord wouldn't it be Parallel 5th with the previous chord voicing where bass is D and tenor is A. I mean D A (5th) and then G D (5th)?
Some people call it V(6,4) because the bass is in the Dominant and it kind of works like a Dominant chord. Its nuts, better to call it I(6,4) or even K(6,4) to indicate de cadence
jimmy alderson think of this. Inversions expand on tonic, dominant in this case, etc etc etc. since I64 prepares to go to V it loses the fact that it’s a tonic chord because it is expanding on dominant. This is why some write it as a V64
Nelson Riveros well the way I was taught by my theory professor is that when you are preparing for a cadential 64, the Chord loses its tonic-ness because it’s an inversion of a chord. Inversions expand on, in this case at least, dominant so even though it’s written as a I6/4 it’s really dominant. Thusly we have a V64-53 situation when we see cadential 64 chords.
You are correct in that the notes make up a I 6/4 chord but by thinking about the chord from what I would call a purely academic perspective you miss the context of the chord's function which is to extend/prolong the dominant section of a phrase. A I-chord doesn't serve that purpose but a V-chord does if you think of the non-root (in this case the B and D) notes as being suspensions of the other two notes of the V-chord (A and C#). Because ultimately it is to the V7 chord that the 6/4 chord resolves. It also helps if you notate it as a V6-5/4-3 chord further emphasising its function in the phrase. I would encourage you to read (re-read) the theory behind the purpose of the cadential 6/4 chord (if you haven't already over the course of the year since you posted your comment) and gain an appreciation of how to see them as V-chords. Cheers
why is the I 6-4 and the V 6-4 are the SAME notes? they should be different notes the V 6-4 is the V chord in second inversion which are different notes compared to the 1 6-4 notes so they are NOT the same notes, but you're same that the I 6-4 and the V 6-4 are the same notes, why?
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Love your channel!
Paper and pencil is definitely the best way to teach voice leading stuff
I struggle with these types of things a lot but thank you so much for allowing me to understand it!!
i like this kind of paper pencil video ... feels more natural and connected.
Don't double the 3rd in the final tonic chord. Instead, triple the Root! Good counterpoint practice demands it.
This is what college teaches it doesn't work like that in practise, he is doing it the right way.
yeah agree ! that triple G
Cadential 6/4s are gorgeous.
:)
this helped a lot. thank you!
katie jm you're welcome. Thanks so much for watching!
Thanks man ^^
Isn't that direct 5ths between the soprano and bass on the IV chord in measure 1 (bass going to C and the soprano going to G)? When bass and soprano move in similar motion, the soprano must move by step for it to be okay. Even though you have added a passing tone, that doesn't excuse the pre-existing direct 5th issue.
Rules are there as guidelines, in the end the question to ask is "Does it sound good?" If so keep it. When an artist runs out of canvas they'll paint on the walls.
Yes it is but it can be easily resolved by dropping the bass note of the I-chord an octave.
Ok, what about it its a true 6/4 chord with the 5th in the bass? All i see are the standard 6/4 cadential dominants
If we descend A to D in tenor in the final chord wouldn't it be Parallel 5th with the previous chord voicing where bass is D and tenor is A. I mean D A (5th) and then G D (5th)?
Deniz Ali Kıran relative fifths. I believe that relative fifths are only acceptable in the middle voices. but my theory is rusty
No, triple the root at the end
Why would you call it a a I6/4? Cos surely V6/4 in G is G second inversion but I6/4 in G is C second inversion. So how are they the same chord?
didnt understand this either
Some people call it V(6,4) because the bass is in the Dominant and it kind of works like a Dominant chord. Its nuts, better to call it I(6,4) or even K(6,4) to indicate de cadence
jimmy alderson think of this. Inversions expand on tonic, dominant in this case, etc etc etc. since I64 prepares to go to V it loses the fact that it’s a tonic chord because it is expanding on dominant. This is why some write it as a V64
I don’t understand ,the I6/4 and the V6/4. Which chord Is it? I only see the I6/4. Where is the V6/4 ? Thank you
Nelson Riveros well the way I was taught by my theory professor is that when you are preparing for a cadential 64, the Chord loses its tonic-ness because it’s an inversion of a chord. Inversions expand on, in this case at least, dominant so even though it’s written as a I6/4 it’s really dominant. Thusly we have a V64-53 situation when we see cadential 64 chords.
You are correct in that the notes make up a I 6/4 chord but by thinking about the chord from what I would call a purely academic perspective you miss the context of the chord's function which is to extend/prolong the dominant section of a phrase. A I-chord doesn't serve that purpose but a V-chord does if you think of the non-root (in this case the B and D) notes as being suspensions of the other two notes of the V-chord (A and C#). Because ultimately it is to the V7 chord that the 6/4 chord resolves. It also helps if you notate it as a V6-5/4-3 chord further emphasising its function in the phrase. I would encourage you to read (re-read) the theory behind the purpose of the cadential 6/4 chord (if you haven't already over the course of the year since you posted your comment) and gain an appreciation of how to see them as V-chords. Cheers
why is the I 6-4 and the V 6-4 are the SAME notes? they should be different notes the V 6-4 is the V chord in second inversion which are different notes compared to the 1 6-4 notes so they are NOT the same notes, but you're same that the I 6-4 and the V 6-4 are the same notes, why?
with the tv in the back ground its very irritating