The correction note at 6:03 is incorrect. It says "4th row 3rd column", however the note is actually referring to the 4th column 3rd row, where "-6L^2" is written: This term should not be squared. It should simply be "-6L".
if anyone is wondering how to solve the equations at the end , you can use the equation mode in the scientific calculator and consider 3 unknowns . enter the corresponding values and you will get the same answer although i did observe a sign error . i checked the equation and it was perfectly right . if anyone knows pls do put it up here. thank you guyz
bro.. u said F1 and M1 = 0 and there will be of bending momeent at the node 3 but while solving problem u are taking M3=0 and M2=0.. I can't understand ..
since we are calculated bm2 with reference of node 1 ,so bm1=0 and m2 should not zero because v.force * distance ,how do u took it as zero, is reference is node 2 for bm2? 0 is not possible practically, beam to have bm2 at centre. am i correct !!! and finally u calculated bm1 and is it zero right, because that is reference point... ? or....?
What you are saying man ... @ once you are saying that due to load there is bending moment at node 2 .. and no bm at 1,&3 ... And in boundary conditions u substituted that ( M2 = 0) ( M3=0)
In explanation u clearly said that at roller support bending moment is presence but while doing problem you take bending moment is zero at roller support.. Can you explain ??..at Pointload also u said that bending moment is zero..
I have a 20 x 20 matrix for a beam element such as yours, I have solved the vertical and rotational displacements and now I want to find the bending moment at each node/element. Do you know how?
BM= Force*distance = The distance is '0' for the applied force. For more details watch another Problem on Beam (udl acts entire the span) & Subscribe the channel.
The correction note at 6:03 is incorrect.
It says "4th row 3rd column", however the note is actually referring to the 4th column 3rd row, where "-6L^2" is written: This term should not be squared. It should simply be "-6L".
if anyone is wondering how to solve the equations at the end , you can use the equation mode in the scientific calculator and consider 3 unknowns . enter the corresponding values and you will get the same answer although i did observe a sign error . i checked the equation and it was perfectly right . if anyone knows pls do put it up here. thank you guyz
Sir your values are wrong sir
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bro.. u said F1 and M1 = 0 and there will be of bending momeent at the node 3 but while solving problem u are taking M3=0 and M2=0.. I can't understand ..
F1 and M1 will not be zero ....there is a resisting moment
Thank you very much. Explicitly defined.
Thank you so much 👍
Thanks allot you your lessons are really useful 🙏🙏🙏 greetings from Belgium 🇧🇪
Thank u , lot of love .. Your support should be there..
I wil teach you FEM online
thanks for your information its actually useful
Very good and neat explanation with clear steps. Tq sir
Thanks you from Algeria 🇩🇿
🙋♂️
During18:36
U told that there will be Bending moment and even told us why,but during 19:45 u wrote as M2=0 ,M3=0
Yes
@@MaheshGadwantikar u said at point load we have a bending moment. why did you take zero I mean M2 is 0 ??
Be clear sir .
@@901-sairam6 because no external moment is given in question. in question there is only one external force acting on the system.. no external moments
@@justinejacob6137since there is external force at 2 it will produce bending moment...
since we are calculated bm2 with reference of node 1 ,so bm1=0 and m2 should not zero because v.force * distance ,how do u took it as zero, is reference is node 2 for bm2? 0 is not possible practically, beam to have bm2 at centre. am i correct !!! and finally u calculated bm1 and is it zero right, because that is reference point... ? or....?
Thanks a lot! I find it helpful!
All the best
Only we have to consider minus sign for theta during calculating bending movement? For calculating shear force theta will be positive right?
Yes..
THANKU SO MUCH SIR
🙏My pleasure
Thank you mahesh sir 😊😊
🙏
think the value θ2 is negative = - 0.003125 ?? i dont know why u indicated a positive value? but its a good explanation all in all
shear force and bending moment need to calculate for load vector..
What you are saying man ... @ once you are saying that due to load there is bending moment at node 2 .. and no bm at 1,&3 ... And in boundary conditions u substituted that ( M2 = 0) ( M3=0)
Why did you cancel out rows F1, M1 and F3?
BRO WE ALL HAVE DOUBT AT THE POINT WHERE YOU TOOK M2 AND M3 = 0.. CLARIFY IT AND BE CLEAR
:(
please explain the boundary conditions what u did in the last
Sir ji plz add video on truss problems like c^2 cs s^2 all that type plz needed
Okay
In explanation u clearly said that at roller support bending moment is presence but while doing problem you take bending moment is zero at roller support.. Can you explain ??..at Pointload also u said that bending moment is zero..
Hello Prashant,
The bending moment is nothing but the vertical force into the distance, if moment at the same point then the bm will be zero.
Hello sir can you please show how to calculate the values of V2 using the calculator
very useful !!!
Thank You So Much
Sir how to calculate that values in calculater I have fx991ES PLUSE calculater
How to write the shear and bending moment equation sir?
cheers from NTU
How can I numerically find the bending moment at node 2? I'm currently building a FEA engine using python
Please elaborate your questions, there are different aspects to calculate the bending moment.
I have a 20 x 20 matrix for a beam element such as yours, I have solved the vertical and rotational displacements and now I want to find the bending moment at each node/element. Do you know how?
If there is a prop at the end then how the boundary conditions will be changed
Pls reply sir
Prop?
@@MaheshGadwantikar in the case of propped cantilever beam
Wl^2/12
@@MaheshGadwantikar Sir
in the boundary and loading conditions at the propped end will v3, F3,M3 and slope becomes zero ?
V3& M3 will be Zero.. not F3..
And for stresses... Formula is same as bar?
No, There Sigma= E/L( -1 1)(u1
u2)
hello! why the M2 is equal to 0 ?
Good one
Thanks
How m2 and M3 were zero?
There is no moment there
@@abidem908 thanks for the fast reply bro😂
I have completed by btech 3 years ago
Where is this sum from
Sir why the m2 = 0 pls explain me
Bending moment@ node 2, because the force is acting at 0 distance in node 2
Bro put a video on Rayleigh Ritz method
what is 12, 61 and 41 sir
Tell mi techique of to find V2;tita3and tita2????
sir why we are not considering shear forces here?
السلام عليكم سيد طه اكو موقع عربي يتحدث على نفس الموضوع
@@eng763 translation plzz in eng
My dear know location in Arabic speak in this matter with pleasure
Hello
I need pdf for FEM for these lecture
In the description given
My dear how brought number in matrix can explain
Hello dear, For matrix number you have to watch stiffness matrix for beam. Here Problem based on Beam only
In your location my dear thinks to replay your good person
Sorry I didn't get you..
My friends I wants to understand this method
Your from?
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Oh ok
Why Bending Moment at node 2 is zero
BM= Force*distance = The distance is '0' for the applied force. For more details watch another Problem on Beam (udl acts entire the span) & Subscribe the channel.
@@MaheshGadwantikar nice explained
Thankyou sir
Thanks for the comments 👍
There's is wrong in that i think y bending moment m3 become zero 🙄
🤔
Asante
tq sir
chad shit right here
Values ela vastunnayo cheppanappudu enduku cheppadam bund chey
What's happening in the background? It sounds like an exorcism is taking place.
Is it.?
Thanks sir
Thanks for your kind words..All the best. share the links with your friends if you think it will helpful for them!!!.