I normally don't comment on videos, but I have read every section in my textbook and attended every lecture, yet I get more out of this 14 minute video. Thanks for being so clear
I really appreciate this video explaining exactly what an infinite potential well is. Most college professors will just tell you there is an infinite potential well and expect you to conceptually understand what that is. Thank you!
wowwww! im speech less! this videos are great. in our university we have a course called electronic physic and i've always struggled to understand what our professor wants to say and these videos provides best way to understand these subjects
Initial part of your lectures tells us the reason why we study Infinite Potential Well and I think that's the most important part may teachers skip. Thanks for this and best of luck.
6:02 "If you are a math person I don't advocate you doing this because you might have an aneurysm. If you are an engineer like me you will have absolutely no trouble with this ..." lol that was hilarious
Sir, please continue this series I have to learn semiconductor physics.. My college have gross teacher, u r the only hope now and please recommend me some books too
Dude, a math person might have an aneurysm for plugging infinity in but a word nerd would point out an aneurysm is only a bulge of a blood vessel; what I had is closer to a hemorrhage
Schrödinger's equation is a wave equation but it defines the probability of existence of matter in space. Please help me connect that... How is the range of a sine wave function [0,1]...
It's the magnitude squared of the wavefunction that corresponds to probability, not just the wavefunction (and really probability *density*, or probability per unit space).
I had a question about 6:55. I'm still lost on how the second equation leads to the conclusion about the wave function not existing outside of the range of x=0 to x=L. Like I understand why that makes sense physically but I don't understand how the 2nd equation describes this.
@@fancybluepen3489 It's because the electron cannot exist outside he well, so the function must be 0 outside the well. It is something just set to 0. Then, since the function must be continuous from -inf to inf, then the function must also be 0 at the lower and upper bounds.
Dear Mr. Edmunds, First thank you very much for all your videos. I have a question about A1 term calculation: solving for it at 13:30 shouldn't it be sqrt(2/(L-sin(2kL))). Is there a reason why the sin(2kL) from the denominator reduces to 0? Thank you again.
Great question! Sin(kL) needs to be zero because from our underlying model we've said the electron is confined to the box. In other words, the wavefunction must be zero everywhere outside the box, and since the wavefunction has to be continuous (you can get this just from the structure of the Schrodinger equation), this means it must be zero at the boundaries (x=L and x=0 being the two boundaries).
@@JordanEdmundsEECS Maybe additional question: this means wave function is equal to 0 fot all x > L or < 0? If true, I struglgle to see it from the final formula you derived at 14:00. Is there something I am missing again :). Thank you in advance.
Yup! It’s not in the formula, because the formula only applies from 0 to L. Outside that region the potential is infinite and the wavefunction must be zero.
Nope, it’s zero to infinity. If it were negative infinity the electron would want to jump down there and would release infinite energy in doing so - it wouldn’t be bound.
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These lectures are so beautifully and eloquently taught!!! Man I'm so happy I found them.
I normally don't comment on videos, but I have read every section in my textbook and attended every lecture, yet I get more out of this 14 minute video. Thanks for being so clear
I really appreciate this video explaining exactly what an infinite potential well is. Most college professors will just tell you there is an infinite potential well and expect you to conceptually understand what that is. Thank you!
wowwww! im speech less! this videos are great. in our university we have a course called electronic physic and i've always struggled to understand what our professor wants to say and these videos provides best way to understand these subjects
Initial part of your lectures tells us the reason why we study Infinite Potential Well and I think that's the most important part may teachers skip. Thanks for this and best of luck.
Thank you! Finally an explanation of the "particle in the box" with an application.
6:02 "If you are a math person I don't advocate you doing this because you might have an aneurysm. If you are an engineer like me you will have absolutely no trouble with this ..." lol that was hilarious
Mathmatic User : Minus, Why there your are?!?!?!?!
Engineering User : Well! that's fine. Keep going, sir.
I wanted to add :if you're a physicist you are in a superposition between being confused and not
@@PAA-ne3pc ahh clever!
@@PAA-ne3pc If you are a physist your wave function shows a vary low probability of you being in the state "Nobel Laureate"
@@LagDaemonProgramming as long as it's not a zero I'm fine
I watched this twice and I took notes.
Im on my fourth rewatch personally, no notes though.
@@noahvaillant8509 I think after watching it, you should take notes.
This was the clearest explanation I've ever seen for the wave number! Thanks a ton for this video.
Four years later, still this man saves lives. What a legend
You are very clear. I got every step of the way.
It's just so nice, clear, and useful, which saves me a large amount of time in comprehending, thanks soooooo much
Thank you so much !! Everything makes sense slowly and gets more clear
Thanks, been searching all over for this, great explanation.
Thanks Sir.
I was Struggling with these concepts.
Sir, please continue this series I have to learn semiconductor physics.. My college have gross teacher, u r the only hope now and please recommend me some books too
Dear Nikhil, in a similar situation here my brother. Did you make it through and if so would you care to impart some advice on us
Yes, Hey!!! Tell us how it went???
@@rorytobin1492I'm curious myself 🤔🤔
It was a very neat explanation. Thank you, Sir!
I have seen this video, it's so much helpful that i pressed the Bell icon, thank you sir.. 💕
I'm in love with your teaching sir!
The explanations are just Awesome
Thanks for this deep explanation
Thank you for your explanations. I finally understood some things.
honestly, you're awesome! thank you!
Dude, a math person might have an aneurysm for plugging infinity in but a word nerd would point out an aneurysm is only a bulge of a blood vessel; what I had is closer to a hemorrhage
Explained well, thank you.
I need the link of previous video
When you said it takes 5ev for an electron to escape, did you mean 5Mev?
Bless you man, you are so awesome!
I LOVE THIS!
5:46 why is there no negative sign in front of the term?
I think this is a typo, it should be there
see 7:46
really good.
great great teacher!!
thank you
Thanks a lot.
Thank you!
Schrödinger's equation is a wave equation but it defines the probability of existence of matter in space. Please help me connect that... How is the range of a sine wave function [0,1]...
It's the magnitude squared of the wavefunction that corresponds to probability, not just the wavefunction (and really probability *density*, or probability per unit space).
@@JordanEdmundsEECS So, If I want to know the reason.... must I learn quantum physics first?
I had a question about 6:55. I'm still lost on how the second equation leads to the conclusion about the wave function not existing outside of the range of x=0 to x=L. Like I understand why that makes sense physically but I don't understand how the 2nd equation describes this.
Oh wait! Is it because When U(x) = infinity, then x ≠ 0 to L and when U(x) = 0, then x = 0 to L?
@@fancybluepen3489 It's because the electron cannot exist outside he well, so the function must be 0 outside the well. It is something just set to 0. Then, since the function must be continuous from -inf to inf, then the function must also be 0 at the lower and upper bounds.
Hi Edmunds, may I know what software are you using for the vedio?
OBS Studio / Duet Pro / Autodesk Sketchbook
"We're done".
Me:
Then why do you still have SIX MINUETS LEFT IN THE VIDEO HMMMMM????
Can n=0 however?
Dear Mr. Edmunds,
First thank you very much for all your videos.
I have a question about A1 term calculation: solving for it at 13:30
shouldn't it be sqrt(2/(L-sin(2kL))). Is there a reason why the sin(2kL) from the denominator reduces to 0? Thank you again.
Great question! Sin(kL) needs to be zero because from our underlying model we've said the electron is confined to the box. In other words, the wavefunction must be zero everywhere outside the box, and since the wavefunction has to be continuous (you can get this just from the structure of the Schrodinger equation), this means it must be zero at the boundaries (x=L and x=0 being the two boundaries).
@@JordanEdmundsEECS Very clear. many thanks again!
@@JordanEdmundsEECS Maybe additional question: this means wave function is equal to 0 fot all x > L or < 0? If true, I struglgle to see it from the final formula you derived at 14:00. Is there something I am missing again :).
Thank you in advance.
Yup! It’s not in the formula, because the formula only applies from 0 to L. Outside that region the potential is infinite and the wavefunction must be zero.
So is k^2=2m(E-V)/hbar^2 or 2mE/hbar^2 ?
If you have a potential, then you’ll want to include the V. Otherwise, you can just go with the E. In this case, V=0 inside the well.
@@JordanEdmundsEECS ok thanks
I have an aneurysm now omg...
actually U varies between -infinity and 0, not 0 and +infinity. That should correct your maths.
Nope, it’s zero to infinity. If it were negative infinity the electron would want to jump down there and would release infinite energy in doing so - it wouldn’t be bound.