sir, I have a doubt from your explanation. as you said that the interpolation function, y = sigma (from i = 1 to n)(ci * phi(i)), then how can we take y = (c0 + c1x) as an interpolation function in the example that you have solved? as sigma is from 1 to n i think the interpolation function should be y = (c1x + c2x^2). kindly clarify my doubt. Sir, you have given a simple solution to convert a differential equation to variational form (i.e., the functional "I"). I have tried it to apply the same on the applications of FEM such as heat transfer through 1-d element but i am not getting the variational form exactly. Is there any other method? kindly suggest us. Thank you
I appreciate your learning skill, interpolation function should have summation from i=0 to n. Answer to your 2nd doubt is: Other than this method I didn't use..
If a(x) = 0 then it's reduces to first order differential equation which can be solved easily. For Rayleigh Ritz method , we need 2nd order differential equation.
Thanks for the great explanation, sir.
Welcome.. keep learning 😇
Thankyou sir
God bless.. keep learning 😇
Great explanation 👌
Thank you so much sir
Most welcome ✨ keep Learning ✨
Thank you!
Glad.. it help! Keep learning
Brilliant teacher and fantastic explanation super easy and calm .❤❤❤
Learners like you are the true motivation 🔥🔥keep learning❤️
Thankyou sir🙏,it is very helpful to me and my batchmates❣️
Glad to hear that❤️
Hello Sir ! great explanation..learnt this module from u
Thank you Pavan.. keep learning 😇
C1=-1/2. Really nice sir
Thank you so much dear learner... Keep learning & keep sharing my content to the needy ones.
Hello brother, please tell the book name 🙏
Could you please give the reference book for the same
Sir plz send just answer of practice question
sir,
I have a doubt from your explanation. as you said that the interpolation function, y = sigma (from i = 1 to n)(ci * phi(i)), then how can we take y = (c0 + c1x) as an interpolation function in the example that you have solved? as sigma is from 1 to n i think the interpolation function should be y = (c1x + c2x^2). kindly clarify my doubt.
Sir, you have given a simple solution to convert a differential equation to variational form (i.e., the functional "I"). I have tried it to apply the same on the applications of FEM such as heat transfer through 1-d element but i am not getting the variational form exactly. Is there any other method? kindly suggest us.
Thank you
I appreciate your learning skill, interpolation function should have summation from i=0 to n.
Answer to your 2nd doubt is:
Other than this method I didn't use..
How to solve same method for non linear equation
I have to see to it.
sir i have one question how to solve the problem if a(x) gets zero
If a(x) = 0 then it's reduces to first order differential equation which can be solved easily. For Rayleigh Ritz method , we need 2nd order differential equation.
at 22:23 the required solution does not satisfy the given differential equation, why?
Try one more time
Aap konsa book se padhte ho sir
Kya book ka naame bol sakte ho please
Any book you can refer which has this tooic.
at 10:20 how do we write it?
Good question Vijay... We are assuming y= C⁰+C1x+C2x² as in the given problem we have 2nd order Differential equation.
Please provide the solution of practice problem
I got answer Y=0
Answer is: y = 0.5 x (x-1)
Apply exactly the same procedure to get answer. Try one more time if still you are not getting then mail me at atishgour1990@gmail.com
using galerkin's method ,solve the boundary value problem y''=3 xx+4y;y(0),y(1)=1.
Plz sir solve the problem
y"=3x+4y ; y(0)=0,y(1)=1 using the Glaeekin's method.
You should try solving problems in order to enhance your problem solving skills.
Thankyou sir
Glad it help.. keep learning