Greeks: "Screw those letters for "huffing, coughing, and clearing your throat." Also Greeks: "We need letters for how we sound like we are breathing heavy."
@@hangukhiphop There where the so called "spiritus" which indicated if a vowel should be breathed on (similar to the h in english in : haptic, hollow, house.)
Fun fact, though. The Greeks took the Phoenician name for "G" (Gimel) and turned it into Kamelon, so the word camel is of Phoenician origin. Not only was it the name of the "G," but the glyph of gimel originally was drawn in hieroglyphics as a camel.
They didn't. They were just the first one's to include written vowels in an alphabetic system. Other non-alphabetic writing systems had written vowels.
@@carterwood4197 how could this be possible? The other non-alphabet had written vowels but greeks were first to include? So semitic alphabets had written vowels separated from their alphabets?
@@Daniel-um6vy I don't really understand what you're asking. The Greek writing system is an alphabet, which means that it has a symbol for each phoneme. The "k" sound has it's own symbol, and the "a" sound has it's own symbol. So, in order to make the "ka" sound, you have to use two symbols to make a pronounceable syllable. That's an alphabet. The Greeks were the first to include written vowels in this type of system, which they derived from the Phoenician writing system which was basically an alphabet, but without the vowels (called an abjad). However, it's not fair to say the Greeks "invented vowels" as other non-alphabetic writing systems had written vowels, such as the Brahmi script of India. Another example would be the Japanese writing systems Katakana and Hiragana (excluding Kanji, which is Chinese-derived and logographic). These are syllabaries, where the vowels are written, but they're built in to indivisible syllables, whereas an alphabet is more atomic. Brahmi and its descendants are somewhere in between an alphabet and a syllabary (sometimes called an alphasyllabary) where at the start of a word, the vowel has its own symbol, and anywhere else in the word it appears as a diacritic attached to a non-vowel. They may not have written them in the same way, but some other writing systems definitely wrote their vowels.
@@carterwood4197 yes, vowels exist in every language. There is always some method to write vowels in some way. Even in abjads. It is very common for abjads to have some kind of system of diacritics for vowels in important things. In most abjads you can find the letter for /w/ used for /u/, and the letter for /j/ used for /i/. The Greeks did not at all invent vowels, they just added a bunch of ways to write vowels, and made a system that has marking them mandatory and as distinct letters.
@Daniel Mk I believe Carter Wood meant to emphasize that Greeks first included written vowels *TO AN ALPHABET SYSTEM.* Semitic languages, for example, don’t have alphabets, they have abjads and abugidas, so they didn’t include vowels *IN AN ALPHABET.* They included them in an abugida/abjad.
I suspect the reason phonecians didn't bother writing vowels is because as far as I know, semetic languages have much lesser importance on vowels than indo-european language. The issue of homonymns is much less of a problem in those languages, because of their inherent focus on consonant roots. I think :P
In Semitic languages and in ancient Egyptian almost all roots are consonantal skeletons working like the English root "s-ng" - vowel change indicates grammar not root meaning "sing, sang, sung, song". This sort of thing is actually rare in English but even in a language like English y cn stll ndrstnd mst f t wtht vwls. In Semitic because almost everything works as described above, its even easier to understand without vowels written and in fact having to write vowels would actually make it harder to read as words with the same basic meaning only differing in grammar would end up appearing very different - a major problem in Akkadian cuneiform for example.
You are right about the vowels "having much less importance". Once you recognize the (usually) tri-literal root, which is always three consonants, you can guess the rest with little difficulty. Yet starting in about King Solomon's time, they started writing long vowels using Waw for 'u' or ''o' and He for 'a' and 'e' and Yod for 'i'. This reduces the guesswork and cuts out some ambiguity, especially in verb tenses. So by that time they wrote long vowels, but still not in a "one symbol, one sound" way. Not only were they reusing consonants, but when read as a vowel, a given consonant could be one of two vowels!
7 лет назад+1
"Not only were they reusing consonants, but when read as a vowel, a given consonant could be one of two vowels!" That's kinda stupid. Why not just invent vowels? Makes no sense.
Pat Micucci You are entirely missing the point of not only this video, but the point of what you're trying to say. All languages, from the beginning of spoken language to all of the languages of today, have always had a means of vocalization, that is, vowels and vowel-like syllable nuclei. That isn't at all being debated. The video clearly shows that vowel sounds existed before the ancient Greek alphabet, but they simply were not written. That's the point of the video; it demonstrates merely the origin of the written vowel in an alphabetic form. Now, returning to your comment, Ugaritic did have vowel SOUNDS, yes, but it's WRITING SYSTEM was an abjad, which meant that, like other Semitic languages, the vowel sounds were somewhat templatic within consonantal roots. Which means that the vowels, although, pronounced, were not written. Your comment makes it seem as though you not only think NativLang says that vowel SOUNDS never existed before the Greek alphabet, but that a very ancient, and very dead Semitic language used a very modern Romanized orthography for writing. That's assinine.
This series is great. As someone studying mnemonics, it checks all the boxes for good encoding. It’s a combination of having memorably designed little characters, a locative landscape where things play out, distinct descriptions (SPLAT!), and precise detailed information- all good features of a mnemonic passage. There’s a lot of info here in a short length.
As others have said, this video doesn't mention kind of an important/essential thing: there is no way Greek could have ever been written without vocals as it does not share the three consonants system of the Semitic. In Greek there are many important words entirely composed by vowels or with a vocals/consonants ratio of up to 4/1 On the other hand they could have simply perfected the Linear B to create a syllabary but, that didn't happen because of the Greek dark ages that essentially liquified the Mycenean civilisation and the new Greeks started writing from scratch. This is to say that this video is kind of inaccurate and omits several relevant details, the first and foremost being that, in establishing the one letter / one sound system, the Greeks had no choice.
A truly wonderful video. However, one correction; the whole one letter-one sound idea was not put into place up until AFTER the archaic age which is the era this video probably takes place in. In fact, in Athens this idea was only put in place in 403 B.C. and it had to do with the letters Ε and O, each standing for 3 different sounds up to this point. Before 403 B.C., when the Athenians adopted the Ionian alphabet, the letter Ε stood for the sounds e, eː & ɛː, while O stood for the sounds o, oː & ɔː. The above were fixed by the introduction of two more written dipthongs (ΕΙ, ΟΥ), the changing of the Heta into eta (Η) and the introduction of the Omega (Ω) into the Athenian alphabet, all in 403 B.C.. Once again, your videos are gold and keep up that effort.
I am sorry, the semitic alphabets do have vowels, just not all of them. The vowels which are important in the meaning are written down, like long a, i and u. So alpha, iota and omega are actually present in phoenician as aleph, yodh and waw.
I think reconstructing based on Hebrew or maybe Aramaic gives a fairly good approximation. Phoenician and Hebrew were at that time essentially two dialects of the same language. I think the alphabet is widely known as Phoenician because the Phoenicians spread it far and wide, but otherwise it was common to most people of that region.
I would like to bring into your attention the ground breaking discovery of Dispilio Tablet from Xourmouziadis, in 1993 in a Neolithic lake settlement in Northern Greece near the city of Kastoria Source ChronologyRadiocarbon Dating of the Neolithic Lakeside Settlement of Dispilio, Kastoria, Northern GreeceYorgos Facorellisa1, Marina Sofronidoua2 and Giorgos Hourmouziadisa2a1 Department of Antiquities and Works of Art Conservation, Faculty of Fine Arts and Design, Technological Educational Institute of Athens, Aghiou Spyridonos, 12210 Egaleo, Athens, Greece. Email: yfacorel@teiath.gr.a2 Department of History & Archaeology, School of History and Archaeology, Aristotelian University of Thessaloniki, University Campus, 54124 Thessaloniki, Greece.AbstractDispilio is the only excavated Neolithic lakeside settlement in Greece. Archaeological research provided evidence that the site was continuously used from the Early Neolithic (∼6000 BC) to the Late Chalcolithic period (∼1200 BC, Mycenaean period). During several archaeological campaigns, a portion of the settlement has been excavated that enabled a sufficient understanding of the architectural layout of homes, the building materials, and the organization of space, while the finds (fragments of pottery, stone and bone tools, anthropomorphic and zoomorphic clay figurines, miniature representations of objects also on clay, animal and fish bones, charred cereal grains, and other fruits) provided information on the everyday lives of the Neolithic inhabitants. A series of charcoal and wood samples, originating mostly from the Middle and Late Neolithic layers of the site, were radiocarbon dated and their dates range from ∼5470 to 4850 BC. The most unexpected of the finds, a wooden tablet from the lake bearing engraved symbols, was 14C dated to 5260 ± 40 BC. In addition, clay tablets and pottery vessels engraved with similar symbols were also unearthed from layers dated to the same period. If this proves to be a primary source of written communication, the history of writing should be reconsidered and Neolithic societies should not be considered “societies without writing.” Link www.ancient-origins.net/ancient-writings-ancient-places-europe/dispilio-tablet-oldest-known-written-text-00913 By the way i am Hellene (but you can call me Greek i dont mind) Languages are wanderfull tools of human mind Happy reading and writting cause "η ημιμαθεια ειναι χειροτερη απο την αμαθεια"
You know something I don't get about the Greek alphabet? Why does it bother having letters like Ψ to substitute for perfectly good (but weird) digraphs like πσ, yet digraphs like τσ and πτ get nothing?
@@hangukhiphop I think it exists for orthography for example: Εκ + στρατός = εΚΣτρατεία Not εΞτρατεια This helps a lot in orthography, this way we know the word. Εκστρατεία comes from the preposition Εκ and the word Στρατός so we can spell it correctly,(because Greeks have many vowels spelled the same way) As about Ψ, i don't know, maybe because Greek words are long and we need single letters By the way Z is also like Ψ and Ξ, its Δ + Σ
did you guys notice?? every time he speaks of writing his voice raises from excitement so much that it sounds almost like a female voice!! what a dedication though
Since when did Greeks wear togas? Oh, that's right, when history was re-written post 1960. The Romans were the ONLY ones who wore togas. In fact, there is a phrase in Latin that is synonymous with being Roman "gens togata."
A likely source of the toga: Greece's en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Himation ...likely sources of Greek clothes: google.com/search?tbm=isch&q=Book+of+Gates the whitemen on the left: Libyan Carthaginian Canaanites, "Aamu" in the pharoah's language.
The references supplied to me by the Butcher of Benghazi are for the himation, while similar, is still not a toga. Togas are associated with Etrusco-roman culture. And while togas may be copies of the himation, linguistically it is still not a toga since the himation came first.
It's in the accusative. I think the spelling is pre-classical; originally Η represented /h/, not long /e:/. Then it was broken in half, the halves evolved into the breathing marks, and the original Η turned into a vowel.
την καμηλον (αιτιατικη κλιση της αρχαιας ελληνικης γλωσσας) αλλα χρησιμοποιει το ε - > καμελον , για να βοηθησει αυτους που χρησιμοποιουν αγγλικη γλωσσα , να καταλαβουν τον τονισμο απο το φωνηεν (η) . translate it
The "one sound, one character" thing is not absolutely correct. It used to be that way, but New Standard Greek has lots of different sounds for "ee" 's , "e" 's and "o" 's which come from a combination of vowels that wouldn't be read that way normally, which also depends on where the accent is placed. Plus double consonants are not stressed, and there's no way to guess they have to be double unless you just know.
Maria Stergia This video is NOT about Modern Greek. It's about when the alphabetic writing system came to Greece, you know, several, SEVERAL centuries ago. So each letter had its own sound, and many of them were different than Modern Greek. Your comment is unnecessary, and confuses the issue. What you are describing is the result of historical sound changes which occurred well AFTER the alphabet had been introduced to Greece.
Not even close. Glagolitic alphabet didn't look like anything close to the Greek alphabet. The problem of glagolitic alphabet is that people didn't like it but liked the Greek alphabet more because it served as numbers. So for people to convert to the Glagolitic alphabet wasn't just desired. That's why Cyril's students created an alphabet which is closer to the Greek one and named it on their teacher - Cyril. In some Balkan countries (Croatia) the glagolitic alphabet stayed but in some other like Bulgaria which was heavily helenised at that moment the Cyrillic alphabet was preferred. And the rest (like they say) is history.
NativLang - I subscribed. Do you have any videos that explain why the Greek upsilon sometimes sounds like an "I" and sometimes like a "U"? Am I even right that it does this?
upsilon originally made an U sound when the Greeks borrowed the alphabet but it eventually shifted in attic and ionic to close front rounded vowel like ü in German by the sixth century BC. The vowel became unrounded in modern Greek yielding an "I"
What is the standard best book that gives all this details? and I hope you would create a full length documentary teaching this with proper info and dateline etc and who were the scholars that discovered the things. I thought Rebus was a man but I didn't see any ref of that.
Huh, I designed an Abjad for English the other day (I made a video about it, check it out, it's only 15 letters), and I basically did the exact same thing the Greeks did to mark vowels.
Here’s how I’d fix English vowels, simply and elegantly. Aaa, Ay (Aaa as in fat, Ay as in late) - make two different ‘A’ characters instead of ending in ‘e’ to distinguish Eh, Eee (Eh as in pet, Eee as in please) - same thing, make two different ‘E’ characters ih, Aye (ih as in hit, aye as in bite) - same thing, two ‘I’ characters Ah, Oh (ah as in not, oh as in note) same, two ‘O’ characters Uh, Ooo (uh as in nut, ooo as in nude) same, two U characters Then stick with the spelling all the way through, none of these irregularities. Like why do ‘new, zoo, do, blue’ all rhyme? In my reform, it’d be (letter) (vowel ‘u’ second form) Alternatively a modification on the letter could signify it’s second form (an accent) or maybe the letter doubled up, etc. Also I realize there are some issues there with sounds, the ‘o’ making an ‘ah’ sound when ‘pow’ and ‘paw’ are ‘aaa’ and ‘ah - w’ (the opposite) but we’d have to establish some consensus and stick to it. My ears are open.
Even 1:46 shows how the Greeks took Canaanite vowels and modified them only slightly. The title is a farce, as Jian Lee pointed out: The user's (+NativLang) Eurocentric title doesn't even represent the content of the video itself.
1:37 ancient greeks called barbarians the races without written alphabets....all europe was barbarian at the time but not the egyptians and the babylonians.... so your comment on 1:37 does not make any sense.
"Barbarian" was an insult so each Greek used it in their own way. It's like how some English speakers might call a group of people "cunts" today, but that doesn't mean all English speakers today call that group of people "cunts".
Lovely video :) The Phoenician script, in scientific terms, wasnt exactly an ''alphabet'', but it was an ''Ugaritic abecedarium''. That means that Phoenician writing symbols were used only as consonants and syllables (consonant and vowel together). According to historical linguistics, the first time that a script represents only phonemes (consonants as well as vowels) is approx. in the 8th century BC with the Greek alphabet. As such, in scientific terms again, the first ''alphabet'' is the Greek one, whis was emerged from the Phoenician ''Ugaritic abecedarium''. So, an ''alphabet'' is a writing script which shows only letters; consonants and vowels.
I can see that phonecian is a huge inspiration for Arabic. They have sounds like “ق" and "غ" that seems barbaric, but not really. Also Arabic writing gets confusing for people who don’t study it! There are letters for vowels, but only long ones. Short vowel markers exist, except most people never use them for efficiency.
It's a bit unfortunate episodes #8 and #9 ended up a little backwards. The matres lectionis are the forerunners of vowels, not an old man in Greece. It happened due to an accident of history. Older West Semitic had some diphthongs, each leaving a single consonant in written form after dropping the vowel. Later these diphthongs shifted into vowels, but their spelling was retained. The /h/ sound at the end words also lost its voicing making it look like another vowel stand-in. Hence the idea of using a consonant to double as a vowel was born. Later this idea was extended further by inserting these consonants in places where they had not been historically found to indicate vowels in order to disambiguate the spelling of some words. The genius of the Greeks was to completely separate the vowels and consonants into entirely separate letters, and to make vowels mandatory wherever they appeared. There is an interesting similarity between the matres lectionis and the Latin vowels. The Latin letter "I" was used for both /i/ and /j/ and "V" was used for both /u/ and /w/. Just like the West Semitic equivalent letters. I don't know if the matres lectionis actually influenced this or if it was because these semi-vowels resembled the equivalent vowels in diphthongs. It would be interesting to find the answer.
The latin (not sure what the alphabet is called again) alphabet used to be an abjad? (abjads only contain consonants the readers have to mentally fill in the vowels)
*_...'hmmm'-one letter for each sound but sometimes there are three-in-one such as in the name, Su Shu Shw Shwᵐ or ŠŨ if you prefer, but sometimes linguist historians don't even know whether the syllable is 'uup' or 'puu'..._*
This is an old comment so you might have realised this by now, but there's a big difference between saying that a language has vowels (I'm pretty sure all languages do), and saying that the writing system for that language has symbols for vowels. According to the Wikipedia article you referenced, Ugaritic did indeed have vowels but they weren't written out. So it's exactly like the other semitic languages mentioned in this video.
Genius everyone speaks using vowels so you can't say they had written vowels when they didn't have written vowels just because they spoke using vowels, look up in the dictionary what the word written means.
What I'm saying is that Pat was talking about vowel phonemes, i.e. spoken vowels, whereas the video was talking about vowel graphemes, i.e. written vowels. As far as I can tell, there's nothing special about Ugaritic. It did not have symbols for vowels.
+Marko Đorđević This was deliberate, to show an obvious correspondence between four letters rather than respect any alphabetic sequence. But, of course, you're right! Б & В both derive from Greek "beta", and that could've been shown here.
I alway's thought egyptian hieroglyph's was a language conveyed with only the eye. I never thought it was bound to the tongue. Are there any modern computer languages spoken only through the eye and keystrokes? /= slash. How can you turn it into a vowel or consonant? I met a spirit that could only communicate through the eye... It spoke with only light.
No. Vowels were found in cuneiform and were in the A E F I of demotic writing, and in protocanatine. So even the phonicians had alef heh wow iod. Similar to the Arabic. It is only a theory that these were separate consonants (aspirated alef actually aw, h for heh actually aa, V or W for wow (actually difthong ipa:ou) and Y for yod, actually ipa:ji which is originally ipa:ei. Try this new paradigm and you will see that everything is explained, including the falsely claimed Canaanite shift, which in fact went the other way in Arabic and modern Aramaic, and was originally kept intact as difthong ipa:u in Old Akkadian and OB
Early inscriptions[edit] Ring of Pietroassa (from between 250 and 400 AD) by Henri Trenk, 1875 Runic inscriptions from the 400-year period 150 to 550 AD are described as "Period I". These inscriptions are generally in Elder Futhark, but the set of letter shapes and bindrunes employed is far from standardized. Notably the j, s, and ŋ runes undergo considerable modifications, while others, such as p and ï, remain unattested altogether prior to the first full futhark row on the Kylver Stone (c. 400 AD). Artifacts such as spear heads or shield mounts have been found that bear runic marking that may be dated to 200 AD, as evidenced by artifacts found across northern Europe in Schleswig (North Germany), Fyn, Sjælland, Jylland (Denmark), and Skåne (Sweden). Earlier - but less reliable - artifacts have been found in Meldorf, Süderdithmarschen, northern Germany; these include brooches and combs found in graves, most notably the Meldorf fibula, and are supposed to have the earliest markings resembling runic inscriptions. Theories of the existence of separate Gothic runes have been advanced, even identifying them as the original alphabet from which the Futhark were derived, but these have little support in archaeological findings (mainly the spearhead of Kovel, with its right-to-left inscription, its T-shaped tiwaz, and its rectangular dagaz). If there ever were genuinely Gothic runes, they were soon replaced by the Gothic alphabet. The letters of the Gothic alphabet, however, as given by the Alcuin manuscript (9th century), are obviously related to the names of the Futhark. The names are clearly Gothic, but it is impossible to say whether they are as old as the letters themselves. A handful of Elder Futhark inscriptions were found in Gothic territory, such as the 3rd- to 5th-century Ring of Pietroassa.
Just for comparison. Slovak alphabet is an extension of the Latin alphabet used for writing the Slovak language. It has 46 letters which makes it the longest Slavic and European alphabet. The modern English alphabet is a Latin alphabet consisting of 26 letters The Greek alphabet has 24 letters Who originated from whom and how?
Of these three alphabets, it started with the Greek alphabet. The Romans then imported the Etruscan alphabet, which itself was from an earlier form of the Greek alphabet, and made a few changes which better suited both the pronunciations of Latin, and Roman aesthetics. Next, as the Roman empire conquered various lands, they forced Latin and its alphabet upon the conquered people. At a similar time, some early Greek Christians were traveling the world, especially around the Slavic-speaking zones. (Okay, honestly, my timeline concerning Roman invasions and St. Cyril's visits to the Slavs is kind of murky, but I'm pretty sure St. Cyril's time was concurrent with or later than Roman expansion.) Anyway, St. Cyril had helped to create the Glagolitic alphabet using the Greek alphabet, as well as some new characters to better represent Slavic pronunciations, especially Old Church Slavonic. After the use of Glagolitic, a disciple of St. Cyril developed the Cyrillic alphabet and that got used in much of the Slavic zone for some time. Going back to the Roman empire, many of the different native languages eventually adapted, happily or not, to the Latin alphabet. And then the Goths, a Germanic group, invaded much of the western Roman empire and won. For whatever reason, they wanted to adapt to Roman customs. This is probably which helped lead to the Roman alphabet being used to replace older Germanic runes. So after several centuries, and through a lot of changes, the Ancient Greek alphabet eventually spawned the English alphabet. Returning to the Slavic peoples, the Cyrillic alphabet had similar changes and replacements. As the Slavic peoples fought for control of each other and themselves, different nations went different ways in either adapting the Cyrillic alphabet, or replacing it with other alphabets. And the Roman alphabet, again with changes for each specific language, was one of the replacement alphabets. Slovakia was one of the countries which went with an adapted Roman alphabet. ULTIMATELY, TO SUM UP, it all started with the Greek alphabet, but then after many centuries of changes and adaptations, and over two divergent paths which occurred at similar times in history, both the English alphabet and the Slovak alphabet (as variations of the Roman alphabet, which came from the Greek alphabet) emerged. I can't tell you exact dates on which of those two was first, but considering a timeline of centuries, it might not make a big difference.
Well, that's because semites gave alphabet to the europeans they were in contact with (who just simply didn't need them and so didn't invented them), since the semite langauges use a writting system of 3 consonant roots (or something like that) the vowels are infered in the context (if the word refers to male or female, etc) but in indoeuropean languages this thing is for some reason unknown to me impossible (but as i've seen, our root system seems to be based in things that already have gender). Even if you look at runes (liek the viking, the futhark) you see that runes represent sound but also other thing (ex; algiz represents life, but is "z" too).
um .....”The History of the Cyrillic Alphabet. The Cyrillic alphabet owes its name to the 9th century Byzantine missionary St. Cyril, who, along with his brother, Methodius, created the first Slavic alphabet-the Glagolitic-in order to translate Greek religious text to Slavic.” Cyrillic didn’t start “popping up” till much later. wtf
What is the date this happened ? Also, I want to ask about the Turkic alphabet, it has vowels too and must be independent from Greeks, right ? Just pointing out.. (Please don't come and say, "Turkey uses Latin alphabet", I said Turkic on purpose
The Linear B writing system wasn't their own Greek system tho, it was borrowed from another language. . On the contrary, they couldn't even accurately write down their words using Linear B. Words such as 'eruthros' 'Knossos' and 'hekwomai' had to be written down as 'e-ru-to-ro' 'ko-no-so' and 'e-qo-ma'
@Kukurukuku I'm not Greek but Google translate said that your comment means: "come fucked" and I'm confused now. Is this an insult, or is this an invitation to have sexual intercourse, or am I reading this wrongly? xd
OMG, is that why Latin languages have the same vowels as the Greek alphabet? (Α, Ε, Ι, Ο, Υ. Except one and except for one that they have but do not offer as a vowel: H) And are not all consonantsthe same? (Γ, Δ, Θ, Λ, Ξ, Π, Σ, Φ, Ψ. These are not the same)
Greeks: "Screw those letters for "huffing, coughing, and clearing your throat."
Also Greeks: "We need letters for how we sound like we are breathing heavy."
What letters would those be?
@@hangukhiphop There where the so called "spiritus" which indicated if a vowel should be breathed on (similar to the h in english in : haptic, hollow, house.)
@@blablub2402 it literally was just an ordinary /h/
@@hangukhiphop h
@@blablub2402 The _spīritus asper_ was not a letter. It was a diacritic mark.
"Once upon a time, people wrote this way"
People still apparently write like this. I mean, have you seen the internet?
A dire blow right from the craddle of Western civilization. BTW, thanks for un-barbarize us!
i mean, when all you had is 150 characters per send, and each send costs you, you gotta shave up some unnessecaries, y'know.
Have you seen Arabic? :)
lol
ДА, АЗЪ ЕСМЬ...
2:39 "haha, he's silly" that was legitimately adorable.
Dee Elmore agreed
i like your username :)
bruh they straight vibing
Go and check how vowels created by the dravidians since 5000bc.. greek latin jz innovated the already created vowels by the dravidian language
200th like
Fun fact, though. The Greeks took the Phoenician name for "G" (Gimel) and turned it into Kamelon, so the word camel is of Phoenician origin. Not only was it the name of the "G," but the glyph of gimel originally was drawn in hieroglyphics as a camel.
Там КГ(kg) в начале, где у египтян К, там у греков в начале Г. Гладиус/Кладиус Геа/Кеа Гало/Калис
It looks like camel in Amharic too ግመል 🐪
I did not know that the greeks invented vowels. Thank god they did. thumbs up
They didn't. They were just the first one's to include written vowels in an alphabetic system. Other non-alphabetic writing systems had written vowels.
@@carterwood4197 how could this be possible? The other non-alphabet had written vowels but greeks were first to include? So semitic alphabets had written vowels separated from their alphabets?
@@Daniel-um6vy I don't really understand what you're asking. The Greek writing system is an alphabet, which means that it has a symbol for each phoneme. The "k" sound has it's own symbol, and the "a" sound has it's own symbol. So, in order to make the "ka" sound, you have to use two symbols to make a pronounceable syllable. That's an alphabet. The Greeks were the first to include written vowels in this type of system, which they derived from the Phoenician writing system which was basically an alphabet, but without the vowels (called an abjad). However, it's not fair to say the Greeks "invented vowels" as other non-alphabetic writing systems had written vowels, such as the Brahmi script of India. Another example would be the Japanese writing systems Katakana and Hiragana (excluding Kanji, which is Chinese-derived and logographic). These are syllabaries, where the vowels are written, but they're built in to indivisible syllables, whereas an alphabet is more atomic. Brahmi and its descendants are somewhere in between an alphabet and a syllabary (sometimes called an alphasyllabary) where at the start of a word, the vowel has its own symbol, and anywhere else in the word it appears as a diacritic attached to a non-vowel. They may not have written them in the same way, but some other writing systems definitely wrote their vowels.
@@carterwood4197 yes, vowels exist in every language. There is always some method to write vowels in some way. Even in abjads. It is very common for abjads to have some kind of system of diacritics for vowels in important things. In most abjads you can find the letter for /w/ used for /u/, and the letter for /j/ used for /i/. The Greeks did not at all invent vowels, they just added a bunch of ways to write vowels, and made a system that has marking them mandatory and as distinct letters.
@Daniel Mk I believe Carter Wood meant to emphasize that Greeks first included written vowels *TO AN ALPHABET SYSTEM.* Semitic languages, for example, don’t have alphabets, they have abjads and abugidas, so they didn’t include vowels *IN AN ALPHABET.* They included them in an abugida/abjad.
This series is so very charming! I've been binge-learning for an hour now...
That really cute, bright, and young voice in narration helps a lot too!
I suspect the reason phonecians didn't bother writing vowels is because as far as I know, semetic languages have much lesser importance on vowels than indo-european language. The issue of homonymns is much less of a problem in those languages, because of their inherent focus on consonant roots. I think :P
In Semitic languages and in ancient Egyptian almost all roots are consonantal skeletons working like the English root "s-ng" - vowel change indicates grammar not root meaning "sing, sang, sung, song".
This sort of thing is actually rare in English but even in a language like English y cn stll ndrstnd mst f t wtht vwls. In Semitic because almost everything works as described above, its even easier to understand without vowels written and in fact having to write vowels would actually make it harder to read as words with the same basic meaning only differing in grammar would end up appearing very different - a major problem in Akkadian cuneiform for example.
You are right about the vowels "having much less importance". Once you recognize the (usually) tri-literal root, which is always three consonants, you can guess the rest with little difficulty.
Yet starting in about King Solomon's time, they started writing long vowels using Waw for 'u' or ''o' and He for 'a' and 'e' and Yod for 'i'. This reduces the guesswork and cuts out some ambiguity, especially in verb tenses.
So by that time they wrote long vowels, but still not in a "one symbol, one sound" way. Not only were they reusing consonants, but when read as a vowel, a given consonant could be one of two vowels!
"Not only were they reusing consonants, but when read as a vowel, a given consonant could be one of two vowels!"
That's kinda stupid. Why not just invent vowels? Makes no sense.
Pat Micucci
You are entirely missing the point of not only this video, but the point of what you're trying to say. All languages, from the beginning of spoken language to all of the languages of today, have always had a means of vocalization, that is, vowels and vowel-like syllable nuclei. That isn't at all being debated. The video clearly shows that vowel sounds existed before the ancient Greek alphabet, but they simply were not written. That's the point of the video; it demonstrates merely the origin of the written vowel in an alphabetic form. Now, returning to your comment, Ugaritic did have vowel SOUNDS, yes, but it's WRITING SYSTEM was an abjad, which meant that, like other Semitic languages, the vowel sounds were somewhat templatic within consonantal roots. Which means that the vowels, although, pronounced, were not written. Your comment makes it seem as though you not only think NativLang says that vowel SOUNDS never existed before the Greek alphabet, but that a very ancient, and very dead Semitic language used a very modern Romanized orthography for writing. That's assinine.
It's because there are no vowels in the Arabic languages that's why not saying they were Arabs they were Levantine but still.
"Heh, he's silly." I love it! ^_^
I love that name DNAlien !!
It was so so cute.
Heard it as soon as I read this
Go and check how vowels created by the dravidians since 5000bc.. greek latin jz innovated the already created vowels by the dravidian language
One letter, one sound? Tell that to the english. And the French. And wtf is dutch's problem?
German works. But the grammar is difficult.
not at all(
DarKMaTTeR dutch pronounces almost al letters with a few exceptions
alek tell us how it has changed, if you can?
Thank you I was wondering why anybody would consider Dutch orthography problematic....
This series is great. As someone studying mnemonics, it checks all the boxes for good encoding. It’s a combination of having memorably designed little characters, a locative landscape where things play out, distinct descriptions (SPLAT!), and precise detailed information- all good features of a mnemonic passage. There’s a lot of info here in a short length.
that out of control tablet gets me every time well done
As others have said, this video doesn't mention kind of an important/essential thing:
there is no way Greek could have ever been written without vocals as it does not share the three consonants system of the Semitic. In Greek there are many important words entirely composed by vowels or with a vocals/consonants ratio of up to 4/1
On the other hand they could have simply perfected the Linear B to create a syllabary but, that didn't happen because of the Greek dark ages that essentially liquified the Mycenean civilisation and the new Greeks started writing from scratch.
This is to say that this video is kind of inaccurate and omits several relevant details, the first and foremost being that, in establishing the one letter / one sound system, the Greeks had no choice.
FACTS! Greek Language is DEPENDENT on Vowels!!!
Go and check how vowels created by the dravidians since 5000bc.. greek latin jz innovated the already created vowels by the dravidian language
@@TruthSeeker69921 BWHAHAAHA 🤡🤣
This whole series is fantastic! Thank you!
This was a really good video explaining the vowels
Greece is amazing
Thanks/Ευχαριστούμε
it is all Greek to me
I love how the whole alphabet is just inspired by the Greeks
The beauty of simplicity :).
Greeks wore chitons, not togas...
Even I didn't know that lol!
geocedille This is before that.
The Butcher Of Benghazi. Libya indicted me because I'm too stupid to delete my incriminating emails? so stupid
Stelios20 Gkrekass just look at the name, clearly a troll
ναι το ξερω χιτωνες
A truly wonderful video. However, one correction; the whole one letter-one sound idea was not put into place up until AFTER the archaic age which is the era this video probably takes place in. In fact, in Athens this idea was only put in place in 403 B.C. and it had to do with the letters Ε and O, each standing for 3 different sounds up to this point. Before 403 B.C., when the Athenians adopted the Ionian alphabet, the letter Ε stood for the sounds e, eː & ɛː, while O stood for the sounds o, oː & ɔː. The above were fixed by the introduction of two more written dipthongs (ΕΙ, ΟΥ), the changing of the Heta into eta (Η) and the introduction of the Omega (Ω) into the Athenian alphabet, all in 403 B.C.. Once again, your videos are gold and keep up that effort.
You couldn't even buy a vowel :D
What?
I am sorry, the semitic alphabets do have vowels, just not all of them. The vowels which are important in the meaning are written down, like long a, i and u. So alpha, iota and omega are actually present in phoenician as aleph, yodh and waw.
The DO, but they DIDN'T.
Ok thank you all. I learned this fact by the first comment!
I think reconstructing based on Hebrew or maybe Aramaic gives a fairly good approximation. Phoenician and Hebrew were at that time essentially two dialects of the same language. I think the alphabet is widely known as Phoenician because the Phoenicians spread it far and wide, but otherwise it was common to most people of that region.
I would like to bring into your attention the ground breaking discovery of Dispilio Tablet from Xourmouziadis, in 1993 in a Neolithic lake settlement in Northern Greece near the city of Kastoria
Source
ChronologyRadiocarbon Dating of the Neolithic Lakeside Settlement of Dispilio, Kastoria, Northern GreeceYorgos Facorellisa1, Marina Sofronidoua2 and Giorgos Hourmouziadisa2a1
Department of Antiquities and Works of Art Conservation, Faculty of Fine
Arts and Design, Technological Educational Institute of Athens, Aghiou
Spyridonos, 12210 Egaleo, Athens, Greece. Email: yfacorel@teiath.gr.a2
Department of History & Archaeology, School of History and
Archaeology, Aristotelian University of Thessaloniki, University Campus,
54124 Thessaloniki, Greece.AbstractDispilio
is the only excavated Neolithic lakeside settlement in Greece.
Archaeological research provided evidence that the site was continuously
used from the Early Neolithic (∼6000 BC) to the Late Chalcolithic
period (∼1200 BC, Mycenaean period). During several archaeological
campaigns, a portion of the settlement has been excavated that enabled a
sufficient understanding of the architectural layout of homes, the
building materials, and the organization of space, while the finds
(fragments of pottery, stone and bone tools, anthropomorphic and
zoomorphic clay figurines, miniature representations of objects also on
clay, animal and fish bones, charred cereal grains, and other fruits)
provided information on the everyday lives of the Neolithic inhabitants.
A series of charcoal and wood samples, originating mostly from the
Middle and Late Neolithic layers of the site, were radiocarbon dated and
their dates range from ∼5470 to 4850 BC. The most unexpected of the
finds, a wooden tablet from the lake bearing engraved symbols, was 14C
dated to 5260 ± 40 BC. In addition, clay tablets and pottery vessels
engraved with similar symbols were also unearthed from layers dated to
the same period. If this proves to be a primary source of written
communication, the history of writing should be reconsidered and
Neolithic societies should not be considered “societies without
writing.”
Link www.ancient-origins.net/ancient-writings-ancient-places-europe/dispilio-tablet-oldest-known-written-text-00913
By the way i am Hellene (but you can call me Greek i dont mind)
Languages are wanderfull tools of human mind
Happy reading and writting cause "η ημιμαθεια ειναι χειροτερη απο την αμαθεια"
@@konstantinosstefanidis5642 DISPILIO IS LEGIT !!! Will Break Historical Boundaries one Day! 👍
-Sebastianos the Philhellene
Ο Τσίπρας φταίει
runforest έτσι 😂
runforest αυτο δεν το κανε ο τσιπρας αλλα εμεις οπως εμεις ψιφήσαμε τον Τσιπρα
You know something I don't get about the Greek alphabet?
Why does it bother having letters like Ψ to substitute for perfectly good (but weird) digraphs like πσ, yet digraphs like τσ and πτ get nothing?
@@hangukhiphop Good question. I have no idea why!
@@hangukhiphop I think it exists for orthography for example:
Εκ + στρατός = εΚΣτρατεία
Not
εΞτρατεια
This helps a lot in orthography, this way we know the word. Εκστρατεία comes from the preposition Εκ and the word Στρατός so we can spell it correctly,(because Greeks have many vowels spelled the same way)
As about Ψ, i don't know, maybe because Greek words are long and we need single letters
By the way Z is also like Ψ and Ξ, its
Δ + Σ
0:15 - When she said "Not that Greece", I thought she was talking about Greece today :}
I was wondering about that too! although as a Greek I still use the same word for sky and for sea as grandparents used to say....
"The be all, end all" ...so you mean the alpha and omega?
did you guys notice?? every time he speaks of writing his voice raises from excitement so much that it sounds almost like a female voice!! what a dedication though
Awesome :) Need more
Since when did Greeks wear togas? Oh, that's right, when history was re-written post 1960. The Romans were the ONLY ones who wore togas. In fact, there is a phrase in Latin that is synonymous with being Roman "gens togata."
A likely source of the toga: Greece's en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Himation
...likely sources of Greek clothes: google.com/search?tbm=isch&q=Book+of+Gates the whitemen on the left: Libyan Carthaginian Canaanites, "Aamu" in the pharoah's language.
The references supplied to me by the Butcher of Benghazi are for the himation, while similar, is still not a toga. Togas are associated with Etrusco-roman culture. And while togas may be copies of the himation, linguistically it is still not a toga since the himation came first.
A C Moore we wore chitons and I am greek
why do you care?
I believe gens togata means "the toga generation"
Might be wrong tho
It should read κάμηλος "kamelos", I believe...
Rainer Lewalter that's modern greek the grammar, and it's kamila now
Rainer Lewalter no in ancient pronacation was kameelos
I think using Γ instead if κ is closer to the origin of the word “jamal” in Arabic (probably originating from even older Semitic language)
It's in the accusative. I think the spelling is pre-classical; originally Η represented /h/, not long /e:/. Then it was broken in half, the halves evolved into the breathing marks, and the original Η turned into a vowel.
την καμηλον (αιτιατικη κλιση της αρχαιας ελληνικης γλωσσας) αλλα χρησιμοποιει το ε - > καμελον , για να βοηθησει αυτους που χρησιμοποιουν αγγλικη γλωσσα , να καταλαβουν τον τονισμο απο το φωνηεν (η) . translate it
The "one sound, one character" thing is not absolutely correct. It used to be that way, but New Standard Greek has lots of different sounds for "ee" 's , "e" 's and "o" 's which come from a combination of vowels that wouldn't be read that way normally, which also depends on where the accent is placed. Plus double consonants are not stressed, and there's no way to guess they have to be double unless you just know.
also the vowel "υ" when used I with vowels "α" & "ε" can sound like an "f" or a "v"
Maria Stergia no it is correct
Maria Stergia
This video is NOT about Modern Greek. It's about when the alphabetic writing system came to Greece, you know, several, SEVERAL centuries ago. So each letter had its own sound, and many of them were different than Modern Greek. Your comment is unnecessary, and confuses the issue. What you are describing is the result of historical sound changes which occurred well AFTER the alphabet had been introduced to Greece.
Cyrillic didn't "pop up" it was created whole from the mind of Saint Cryil, a millennium later...
Actually Cyrillic wasn't created by St. Cyril, that's a legend. He actually created a precursor to that language, called the Glagolitic alphabet
RJ And Cyrillic developed a bit later from Glagolitic.
that's pop-up
Not even close. Glagolitic alphabet didn't look like anything close to the Greek alphabet. The problem of glagolitic alphabet is that people didn't like it but liked the Greek alphabet more because it served as numbers. So for people to convert to the Glagolitic alphabet wasn't just desired. That's why Cyril's students created an alphabet which is closer to the Greek one and named it on their teacher - Cyril. In some Balkan countries (Croatia) the glagolitic alphabet stayed but in some other like Bulgaria which was heavily helenised at that moment the Cyrillic alphabet was preferred. And the rest (like they say) is history.
Love the Stargate reference. :)
χαχαχα!!! άκου εκεί ΚΑΜΕΛΟΝ !!!!!!
Lv th vd!
Love the vid!!
NativLang - I subscribed. Do you have any videos that explain why the Greek upsilon sometimes sounds like an "I" and sometimes like a "U"? Am I even right that it does this?
RS S it actually never sounds like "u" in modern Greek. Can sound like "ee" "f" or "v" when attached to vowels "α" & "ε"
upsilon originally made an U sound when the Greeks borrowed the alphabet
but it eventually shifted in attic and ionic to close front rounded vowel like ü in German by the sixth century BC.
The vowel became unrounded in modern Greek yielding an "I"
Y Epsilon in Spanish is known as E Griega. It can also have a V sound depending on where it is placed in a word ;) 😇
Imagine in like 50 years we might go back to not using vowels, like when people say “sry”
What is the standard best book that gives all this details? and I hope you would create a full length documentary teaching this with proper info and dateline etc and who were the scholars that discovered the things. I thought Rebus was a man but I didn't see any ref of that.
At 1:00 the symbol reminded me of the Stargate TV show. I know you didn't intend that, I just thought it was interesting.
Huh, I designed an Abjad for English the other day (I made a video about it, check it out, it's only 15 letters), and I basically did the exact same thing the Greeks did to mark vowels.
Here’s how I’d fix English vowels, simply and elegantly.
Aaa, Ay (Aaa as in fat, Ay as in late) - make two different ‘A’ characters instead of ending in ‘e’ to distinguish
Eh, Eee (Eh as in pet, Eee as in please) - same thing, make two different ‘E’ characters
ih, Aye (ih as in hit, aye as in bite) - same thing, two ‘I’ characters
Ah, Oh (ah as in not, oh as in note) same, two ‘O’ characters
Uh, Ooo (uh as in nut, ooo as in nude) same, two U characters
Then stick with the spelling all the way through, none of these irregularities. Like why do ‘new, zoo, do, blue’ all rhyme? In my reform, it’d be (letter) (vowel ‘u’ second form)
Alternatively a modification on the letter could signify it’s second form (an accent) or maybe the letter doubled up, etc.
Also I realize there are some issues there with sounds, the ‘o’ making an ‘ah’ sound when ‘pow’ and ‘paw’ are ‘aaa’ and ‘ah - w’ (the opposite) but we’d have to establish some consensus and stick to it. My ears are open.
Why did writing direction change from right to left?
Most thrilling storyline
Even 1:46 shows how the Greeks took Canaanite vowels and modified them only slightly.
The title is a farce, as Jian Lee pointed out: The user's (+NativLang) Eurocentric title doesn't even represent the content of the video itself.
1:37 ancient greeks called barbarians the races without written alphabets....all europe was barbarian at the time but not the egyptians and the babylonians.... so your comment on 1:37 does not make any sense.
for greek states maybe!! never for the egyptians!!
Barbarian was the guy who spoke an unknown languages for Greeks.
"Barbarian" was an insult so each Greek used it in their own way. It's like how some English speakers might call a group of people "cunts" today, but that doesn't mean all English speakers today call that group of people "cunts".
Barbarians are the people who s spelling is not "clean"
Do you know or is there knowledge of how Classical and Hellenistic (Koine) Greek was spoken or sounded?
Fuck, this shit is so addictively interesting.
Is it true that cuniform writing could write vowels , long before the greek inventions ?
Lovely video :)
The Phoenician script, in scientific terms, wasnt exactly an ''alphabet'', but it was an ''Ugaritic abecedarium''. That means that Phoenician writing symbols were used only as consonants and syllables (consonant and vowel together).
According to historical linguistics, the first time that a script represents only phonemes (consonants as well as vowels) is approx. in the 8th century BC with the Greek alphabet. As such, in scientific terms again, the first ''alphabet'' is the Greek one, whis was emerged from the Phoenician ''Ugaritic abecedarium''.
So, an ''alphabet'' is a writing script which shows only letters; consonants and vowels.
FACTS!!! Phoenician was an Abjad 🤷🏻♂️
The Greek Alphabet is the First True Alphabet with our modern definition
I get it. Vowels cost $250 on Wheel of Fortune because we're still paying royalties to the Greeks every time they come up. 👍
Haha...FACTS 💯🤣
I can see that phonecian is a huge inspiration for Arabic. They have sounds like “ق" and "غ" that seems barbaric, but not really. Also Arabic writing gets confusing for people who don’t study it! There are letters for vowels, but only long ones. Short vowel markers exist, except most people never use them for efficiency.
1980 videos of the alphabet: bcdfghjklmnpqrstvwxz.
2021 people watching 1980 alphabet videos: You missed five letters, a, e, i, o, and u.
Great :) I'm learning the new testament in greek. 🐛🦋🗺️🙏🕊️🐑❤️🌞✌️🎁
The vowel sounds A, E, U are basic vowel sounds in Arabic. Is there any relation? If yes, how?
It's a bit unfortunate episodes #8 and #9 ended up a little backwards. The matres lectionis are the forerunners of vowels, not an old man in Greece. It happened due to an accident of history. Older West Semitic had some diphthongs, each leaving a single consonant in written form after dropping the vowel. Later these diphthongs shifted into vowels, but their spelling was retained. The /h/ sound at the end words also lost its voicing making it look like another vowel stand-in. Hence the idea of using a consonant to double as a vowel was born.
Later this idea was extended further by inserting these consonants in places where they had not been historically found to indicate vowels in order to disambiguate the spelling of some words.
The genius of the Greeks was to completely separate the vowels and consonants into entirely separate letters, and to make vowels mandatory wherever they appeared.
There is an interesting similarity between the matres lectionis and the Latin vowels. The Latin letter "I" was used for both /i/ and /j/ and "V" was used for both /u/ and /w/. Just like the West Semitic equivalent letters. I don't know if the matres lectionis actually influenced this or if it was because these semi-vowels resembled the equivalent vowels in diphthongs. It would be interesting to find the answer.
If I had to guess, the Romans copied from the Greeks. Actually, I'd bet my House on it 😆🤣
Greeks didn't wear togas, they wore himations.
There was never a word ΚΑΜΕΛΟΝ in Greek. ΚΑΜΗΛΟΣ is the correct word for camel.
Are you guys also waiting for the '' Major moment in the history of writing! ''
Hey how do I write the letter Y, as in the name Yaritza?
Йот = head
It is a bit different. Study the works of Ranke Graves and you see the development of the letters.
The latin (not sure what the alphabet is called again) alphabet used to be an abjad? (abjads only contain consonants the readers have to mentally fill in the vowels)
*_...'hmmm'-one letter for each sound but sometimes there are three-in-one such as in the name, Su Shu Shw Shwᵐ or ŠŨ if you prefer, but sometimes linguist historians don't even know whether the syllable is 'uup' or 'puu'..._*
He didnt invent vowels, he discovered them, *directly* acknowledging and categorizing their existence
what
What about Runic alphabets?
The "sound for clearing out the throat" is in no way barbarian. If you can't pronounce [q], you don't need to discriminate it.
Love the narration! Who is she?
Thanks! She's Jessica from the channel CompChomp. I tried recording this whole thing myself, but hers turned out much better.
She's got an amazing rhythm and her emotions transmit contagiously through her voiceover. Would recommend further collaborations :)
This is an old comment so you might have realised this by now, but there's a big difference between saying that a language has vowels (I'm pretty sure all languages do), and saying that the writing system for that language has symbols for vowels. According to the Wikipedia article you referenced, Ugaritic did indeed have vowels but they weren't written out. So it's exactly like the other semitic languages mentioned in this video.
Genius everyone speaks using vowels so you can't say they had written vowels when they didn't have written vowels just because they spoke using vowels, look up in the dictionary what the word written means.
What I'm saying is that Pat was talking about vowel phonemes, i.e. spoken vowels, whereas the video was talking about vowel graphemes, i.e. written vowels. As far as I can tell, there's nothing special about Ugaritic. It did not have symbols for vowels.
You made a mistake, the Cyrillic alphabet goes like this: А,Б,В,Г,Д...not А,В,Г,Д.
+Marko Đorđević This was deliberate, to show an obvious correspondence between four letters rather than respect any alphabetic sequence. But, of course, you're right! Б & В both derive from Greek "beta", and that could've been shown here.
+NativLang Also, it's called vita 😜
In Modern Greek.
That's wrong. the B sound in greek is written as m+p. B is "vita"
Δαρείος Χαλίλι In Modern Greek. In Ancient Greek, the beta indeed represented something like a Latin B.
The first phrase would be "gong with friends to the part" - no letters in roots are omitted.
Why did you ditch Georgian? Before Cyrilic emerged there was definitely Georgian! Or do you think we designed our own alphabet?
cute little not-quite-an-easter-egg at 3:09 -- IPA in IPA
0:46 look at the 'ko' XDD
Going with friends to the port
GREAT.
I alway's thought egyptian hieroglyph's was a language conveyed with only the eye.
I never thought it was bound to the tongue.
Are there any modern computer languages spoken only through the eye and keystrokes?
/= slash.
How can you turn it into a vowel or consonant?
I met a spirit that could only communicate through the eye...
It spoke with only light.
[Proper] APL?
When did this channel switch narrators?
No. Vowels were found in cuneiform and were in the A E F I of demotic writing, and in protocanatine. So even the phonicians had alef heh wow iod. Similar to the Arabic.
It is only a theory that these were separate consonants (aspirated alef actually aw, h for heh actually aa, V or W for wow (actually difthong ipa:ou) and Y for yod, actually ipa:ji which is originally ipa:ei. Try this new paradigm and you will see that everything is explained, including the falsely claimed Canaanite shift, which in fact went the other way in Arabic and modern Aramaic, and was originally kept intact as difthong ipa:u in Old Akkadian and OB
Ngl the animated characters eyes are kinda cute, just me?
Hah, hah! Ice mole!
Phonetic language, what you hear is what you write and what you write is what you pronounce. Try that in French or in English.
0:08 did you know thoth in greek is Θώθ and since he is a scribe for da gods u wold say Θώθ what is ur knowlege?????????????????????
StupidSallyArtz God I love this
What do you mean?
What about the Norse? Their runic alphabet had that long before Rome. Did they get it directly from Greeks back in the bronze age?
possibly, since they exist documents that recorded transactions, travelers, etc
Early inscriptions[edit]
Ring of Pietroassa (from between 250 and 400 AD) by Henri Trenk, 1875
Runic inscriptions from the 400-year period 150 to 550 AD are described as "Period I". These inscriptions are generally in Elder Futhark, but the set of letter shapes and bindrunes employed is far from standardized. Notably the j, s, and ŋ runes undergo considerable modifications, while others, such as p and ï, remain unattested altogether prior to the first full futhark row on the Kylver Stone (c. 400 AD).
Artifacts such as spear heads or shield mounts have been found that bear runic marking that may be dated to 200 AD, as evidenced by artifacts found across northern Europe in Schleswig (North Germany), Fyn, Sjælland, Jylland (Denmark), and Skåne (Sweden). Earlier - but less reliable - artifacts have been found in Meldorf, Süderdithmarschen, northern Germany; these include brooches and combs found in graves, most notably the Meldorf fibula, and are supposed to have the earliest markings resembling runic inscriptions.
Theories of the existence of separate Gothic runes have been advanced, even identifying them as the original alphabet from which the Futhark were derived, but these have little support in archaeological findings (mainly the spearhead of Kovel, with its right-to-left inscription, its T-shaped tiwaz, and its rectangular dagaz). If there ever were genuinely Gothic runes, they were soon replaced by the Gothic alphabet. The letters of the Gothic alphabet, however, as given by the Alcuin manuscript (9th century), are obviously related to the names of the Futhark. The names are clearly Gothic, but it is impossible to say whether they are as old as the letters themselves. A handful of Elder Futhark inscriptions were found in Gothic territory, such as the 3rd- to 5th-century Ring of Pietroassa.
I love skipping the vowels when i write. In this way you can write faster.
I mean it works.. but it's still an incorrect form of writing now. Sounds like you were born in the wrong era.
Same here
i lv skpng th vwls whn i wrt, n ths wy y cn wrt fstr
i wrte mre lke ths, the vwl at the end or in the bgng indcts and you cn undrstnd a bt esr
Faster to read as well! I mean.. fstr t rd s wl..
I just noticed that Thoth is the god of wisdom in egyptian mythology, so “Thoth’s pill” makes sense
Just for comparison.
Slovak alphabet is an extension of the Latin alphabet used for writing the Slovak language.
It has 46 letters which makes it the longest Slavic and European alphabet.
The modern English alphabet is a Latin alphabet consisting of 26 letters
The Greek alphabet has 24 letters
Who originated from whom and how?
Of these three alphabets, it started with the Greek alphabet.
The Romans then imported the Etruscan alphabet, which itself was from an earlier form of the Greek alphabet, and made a few changes which better suited both the pronunciations of Latin, and Roman aesthetics. Next, as the Roman empire conquered various lands, they forced Latin and its alphabet upon the conquered people.
At a similar time, some early Greek Christians were traveling the world, especially around the Slavic-speaking zones. (Okay, honestly, my timeline concerning Roman invasions and St. Cyril's visits to the Slavs is kind of murky, but I'm pretty sure St. Cyril's time was concurrent with or later than Roman expansion.) Anyway, St. Cyril had helped to create the Glagolitic alphabet using the Greek alphabet, as well as some new characters to better represent Slavic pronunciations, especially Old Church Slavonic. After the use of Glagolitic, a disciple of St. Cyril developed the Cyrillic alphabet and that got used in much of the Slavic zone for some time.
Going back to the Roman empire, many of the different native languages eventually adapted, happily or not, to the Latin alphabet. And then the Goths, a Germanic group, invaded much of the western Roman empire and won. For whatever reason, they wanted to adapt to Roman customs. This is probably which helped lead to the Roman alphabet being used to replace older Germanic runes. So after several centuries, and through a lot of changes, the Ancient Greek alphabet eventually spawned the English alphabet.
Returning to the Slavic peoples, the Cyrillic alphabet had similar changes and replacements. As the Slavic peoples fought for control of each other and themselves, different nations went different ways in either adapting the Cyrillic alphabet, or replacing it with other alphabets. And the Roman alphabet, again with changes for each specific language, was one of the replacement alphabets. Slovakia was one of the countries which went with an adapted Roman alphabet.
ULTIMATELY, TO SUM UP, it all started with the Greek alphabet, but then after many centuries of changes and adaptations, and over two divergent paths which occurred at similar times in history, both the English alphabet and the Slovak alphabet (as variations of the Roman alphabet, which came from the Greek alphabet) emerged. I can't tell you exact dates on which of those two was first, but considering a timeline of centuries, it might not make a big difference.
At the beginning you have a missing "y". Y is only a semivowel. It wouldn't be missing in an abjad.
the y in party is a vowel
"Aliens"
παρακαλούμε
Well, that's because semites gave alphabet to the europeans they were in contact with (who just simply didn't need them and so didn't invented them), since the semite langauges use a writting system of 3 consonant roots (or something like that) the vowels are infered in the context (if the word refers to male or female, etc) but in indoeuropean languages this thing is for some reason unknown to me impossible (but as i've seen, our root system seems to be based in things that already have gender). Even if you look at runes (liek the viking, the futhark) you see that runes represent sound but also other thing (ex; algiz represents life, but is "z" too).
0:01 what does that say!?!
Going with friends to the party
Why κάμελον though? It's κάμηλος in ancient greek, καμήλα in modern.
1:43
um .....”The History of the Cyrillic Alphabet. The Cyrillic alphabet owes its name to the 9th century Byzantine missionary St. Cyril, who, along with his brother, Methodius, created the first Slavic alphabet-the Glagolitic-in order to translate Greek religious text to Slavic.” Cyrillic didn’t start “popping up” till much later. wtf
Kyrillos & Methodios! 🙌🏻🇬🇷🙌🏻
People before greeks be like: Ths pckls
What is the date this happened ? Also, I want to ask about the Turkic alphabet, it has vowels too and must be independent from Greeks, right ? Just pointing out..
(Please don't come and say, "Turkey uses Latin alphabet", I said Turkic on purpose
Turkick never had a writing system until they adopted arabic alphabet .
Turkey does use a Latin Alphabet, and before that Arabic 🤷🏻♂️
The Linear B writing system wasn't their own Greek system tho, it was borrowed from another language. . On the contrary, they couldn't even accurately write down their words using Linear B. Words such as 'eruthros' 'Knossos' and 'hekwomai' had to be written down as 'e-ru-to-ro' 'ko-no-so' and 'e-qo-ma'
@Kukurukuku I'm not Greek but Google translate said that your comment means: "come fucked" and I'm confused now. Is this an insult, or is this an invitation to have sexual intercourse, or am I reading this wrongly? xd
Wrong e-vowel. The Greek word for a camel is κάμηλον.
A like in Apple
E like in ElEphant
I like in IdIot
O like in cOmputer
U like in pOOl
gang with fronds out thou port
OMG, is that why Latin languages have the same vowels as the Greek alphabet?
(Α, Ε, Ι, Ο, Υ. Except one and except for one that they have but do not offer as a vowel: H)
And are not all consonantsthe same?
(Γ, Δ, Θ, Λ, Ξ, Π, Σ, Φ, Ψ. These are not the same)
2:06 JumpScare
this video needed more work
They didn't need vowels. Before Mater Lectionis, there were only two that they used: a and i.
referring to ancient Hebrew