Sir thanks for the video. However please note that fluid is moving due to the energy (head, pressure, velocity) created by pumping system not due to pressure drop (p1-p2) which is due to losses like frictional. This pressure drop is not at all desirable in any pipeline.
awsm sir . gr8 work . m from Don Bosco Univrsty .guwahati,Assam. sir hindi mei bohot asche se samja ajj orr vi vid baniye engg 4th sem ke sylbus pr.respct&love.hope ki..... 1 year oe 2 year k badd me ye chnnl youtb ka search engine ka 1st list me hoga.
sir, I had one question. can u plz solve it for me? " One meter diameter pipe is to carry a water discharge of 1 cumec at a minimum loss of energy. What will be the permissible height of surface roughness?" It is the full question, but sth is either hidden or not given, which may be needed to be assumed. It had been asked in our exam. What values will be assumed to solve this question? Thank you! I like your videos.
There is friction coefficiant, darcy friction factor, fanning friction factor !!! I dont know which one to use....please help if you see this comment. I did not get the answer even after watching full video.
Sir can you clarify me that in Darcy-Weisbach equation that {f'/density} = {f/2} (how is this derived) That means ratio of frictional resistance per unit wetted area per unit velocity to density will be equal to half of co-efficient of friction.
Sir... What about pressure... As u told in the previous class during verturimetet derivation, that If diameter increase = press increase+ velocity decrease. And vice versa. Then what about pressure here because, here all the measurements are equal Such as area,velocity, and main thing is that diameter also equal. So as your concept of previous class, pressure should also equal
Sir, Mistake at 10:10 Friction resistance equation is based on the assumptions. Why we need to multiply with square of velocity, instead of velocity..???
because it is also an assumption that frictional resistance is proportional to nth power of velocity. some books take n=1.5 and some take n=2 so v square (In laminar frictional resistance is proportional to velocity only)
In some books you will get friction factor as f which is also called as lamda and they will also say f is coefficient of friction so, don't get confused. Actually, in head loss due to friction equation (hf) = 4fLV^2/(2gD) where f = coeffeicient of friction and if we take (4*f) this term in head loss equation (hf) we call it as a friction factor. Which is also called as lamda (Friction factor). Thats why in Moodys diagram you will get on L.H.S (Lamda = 64/Re), Since Lamda = 4f then (4f = 64/Re) after that ( f = (64/Re*4)) and finally you get coeffeicient of friction (f = 16/Re). Without correct, coefficient of friction value you will not be able to find correct head loss due friction.
In some books you will get friction factor as f which is also called as lamda and they will also say f is coefficient of friction so, don't get confused. Actually, in head loss due to friction equation (hf) = 4fLV^2/(2gD) where f = coeffeicient of friction and if we take (4*f) this term in head loss equation (hf) we call it as a friction factor. Which is also called as lamda (Friction factor). Thats why in Moodys diagram you will get on L.H.S (Lamda = 64/Re), Since Lamda = 4f then (4f = 64/Re) after that ( f = (64/Re*4)) and finally you get coeffeicient of friction (f = 16/Re). Without correct, coefficient of friction value you will not be able to find correct head loss due friction.
In some books you will get friction factor as f which is also called as lamda and they will also say f is coefficient of friction so, don't get confused. Actually, in head loss due to friction equation (hf) = 4fLV^2/(2gD) where f = coeffeicient of friction and if we take (4*f) this term in head loss equation (hf) we call it as a friction factor. Which is also called as lamda (Friction factor). Thats why in Moodys diagram you will get on L.H.S (Lamda = 64/Re), Since Lamda = 4f then (4f = 64/Re) after that ( f = (64/Re*4)) and finally you get coeffeicient of friction (f = 16/Re). Without correct, coefficient of friction value you will not be able to find correct head loss due friction.
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This teacher is amazing, may God gives him more knowledge n good health........... 🙂🙂🙂🙂🙂🙂
instablaster...
You are the best fluid mechanics teacher I have ever seen!!!
your videos has made my life easy and i confidently say...now i know fluid dynamics..thank u...God bless u...
It happy to hear a class from a teacher who want to teach the perfect concept with good effort..
Love your videos sir. You make me understand that i can't understand in class. Thank you once again
Thank u sir .
Aap ki samjhane ki tarika mst hai.
👍👍👍👍👍👍👍
Sir you explain everything so patiently. Thankyou so much!
Nice explanation sir
Much Better than our sir I have understood it sir
He explained it so easily 👏
Bohot help hua mujhe...sir up ki video bohot aachha ha matlb samajh aata ha...kal mera fluid ka exm he...thank you sir for this helpful video..
sir aapke vidios dekh kar fm1 me sabse jiyada number mujhe aye hai exam me.
thankiyou sir app ase hi vidios banate rahiye
Sir,Your channel deserved Millions Subscribers..
Sir thanks for the video.
However please note that fluid is moving due to the energy (head, pressure, velocity) created by pumping system not due to pressure drop (p1-p2) which is due to losses like frictional. This pressure drop is not at all desirable in any pipeline.
Pump Energy ,pressure energy ,kinetic energy aur potential energy me distribute ho jayega h
this man saved me back 2019
Many adds,, they create too much disturbance 😢😢😢, by the way amazing teaching skills!!!
Thanks 🙏🏻 sir your teaching experience is very good 😊😊
Best teacher in the world ...Tys Sir ....
ruclips.net/video/C1HJ4WxRpOQ/видео.html
Sir your explaning talent is amazing ,...I am getting topics quickly in my mind ..Thank you sir
Sir ur the best teacher in the would ..
Sir, the way you teach is very fantastic. Please upload navier stokes derivation.
I don't even speak the language but I understood this better here than in class....
awsm sir . gr8 work . m from Don Bosco Univrsty .guwahati,Assam. sir hindi mei bohot asche se samja ajj orr vi vid baniye
engg 4th sem ke sylbus pr.respct&love.hope ki..... 1 year oe 2 year k badd me ye chnnl youtb ka search engine ka 1st list me hoga.
What will be the force on pipe hangers due to self weight of pipe and fluid pressure..can you give some examples on that
Thanks alot your videoes are very helpful.. now my all concepts are clear
The way you teach it's really 👌sir I just loved it ❤
You are the best teacher sir we love you
Really amazing video!!! Thank u Sir!!!
🇳🇵🇳🇵🇳🇵
Very easy to understand.
Nice presentation
sir, I had one question. can u plz solve it for me?
" One meter diameter pipe is to carry a water discharge of 1 cumec at a minimum loss of energy. What will be the permissible height of surface roughness?"
It is the full question, but sth is either hidden or not given, which may be needed to be assumed. It had been asked in our exam.
What values will be assumed to solve this question? Thank you!
I like your videos.
There is friction coefficiant, darcy friction factor, fanning friction factor !!! I dont know which one to use....please help if you see this comment. I did not get the answer even after watching full video.
Thank you sir..
Really i m appreciating from your videos
Good to see your video
love ur explanation . iwould reccomend to use a bigger class room seems conjusted but content is great and helpful
Best explanation ever!!!
excellent lecture.......koi confusion nehi
I like your way of teaching.
Keep going on.
Sir can give more important questions abou fmhm
ruclips.net/video/C1HJ4WxRpOQ/видео.html
P2 ka direction opposite kyu hai? Pls explain
Sir can you clarify me that in Darcy-Weisbach equation that {f'/density} = {f/2} (how is this derived)
That means ratio of frictional resistance per unit wetted area per unit velocity to density will be equal to half of co-efficient of friction.
😮
Thanks sir bohot a66e se samajh paya ...😇😇
I loved your teaching sir, thanks.
Sir...
What about pressure...
As u told in the previous class during verturimetet derivation, that
If diameter increase = press increase+ velocity decrease.
And vice versa.
Then what about pressure here because, here all the measurements are equal
Such as area,velocity, and main thing is that diameter also equal. So as your concept of previous class, pressure should also equal
Explanation bahut hi Accha tha sir thanks sir
Congratulations for quality. There are many details
Sir,
Mistake at 10:10
Friction resistance equation is based on the assumptions.
Why we need to multiply with square of velocity, instead of velocity..???
because it is also an assumption that frictional resistance is proportional to nth power of velocity. some books take n=1.5 and some take n=2 so v square
(In laminar frictional resistance is proportional to velocity only)
Ur classes are damn good
Explanation way is nice keep it up sr plz complete fm first
Sir i have found flv2/2gd and 2fLv2/gd. Which one is correct?? Help
so for headloss calc in pipe, when should i use Hazen poiseuille eq and when to use the Darcy weisbach eq???
make videos on SFD and BMD
May add plz
Super sir muje aaj pata chala yeh equation bas kal FM paper aram se jaaye..
Simply , sir you the best ever
If fluid is viscous then how can we use continuity equation here
U made it easy to understand
Sir Pls share your skin care routine.
Sir ,
Flow regime ka bi ek video bana dijiye
Bhot meherbani hogi apki...
Vo topic ni smjh aa rha
You should give link to previous video in which you told about datum line..In description
Sir aap ko kisi motivation ki jarurt nhi h aap amazing ho or rhoge
can i use darcy weisbach eq for both flow for ex. turbulent and laminar.
thanks sir you r a good teacher
Please how did you get the lamda for the final head loss?
Perfect teacher👍👍👍
Sir God bless you 🙏🙏🙏🙏
You are Great teacher
V good explanation...thnk u v much
Sir aap bornuli eqn pe video nahi bnaye hai kya please reply sir
Whay P2 pressure is comes??, please explain this,, 🥺
Sir plz make videos of Stanton and
Moody diagram
Sir how Velocity will be same at 1 and 2 if dia is same?
P2 ka direction opposite kaise liya? Can you explain that?
Love your teaching sir🙂
ruclips.net/video/C1HJ4WxRpOQ/видео.html
Plz explain....how( f'/density=f/2 ).
In some books you will get friction factor as f which is also called as lamda and they will also say f is coefficient of friction so, don't get confused. Actually, in head loss due to friction equation
(hf) = 4fLV^2/(2gD) where f = coeffeicient of friction and if we take (4*f) this term in head loss equation (hf) we call it as a friction factor. Which is also called as lamda (Friction factor).
Thats why in Moodys diagram you will get on L.H.S (Lamda = 64/Re),
Since Lamda = 4f then (4f = 64/Re) after that ( f = (64/Re*4)) and finally you get coeffeicient of friction
(f = 16/Re).
Without correct, coefficient of friction value you will not be able to find correct head loss due friction.
Sir a is question ka explaination nahi hai..
Sir why P2 has reverse direction ? Please explain
very useful video. thank u sir
Can you make a video on velocity of sound waves
Very well explained 👏🏻👏🏻😇
Really well explained sir
sir bahot bahot badhiya ❤️❤️❤️
Dear sir pleas thoda bade board use kijiye jise ki jyada se jyada concept board pe dikh sakhe
Sir what is the unit of frictional resistance
Fprime not satisfying this equatin in form of units.
Scientist de gya vo thik hai but kaise
Thanku sir this video helped me alot...
Sir please explain dupit's equation for head loss
impressive sir nice explanation
Thank you sir. Fluid mechanics me v banaye. Love from nepal
Super explanation sir thank u so much sir
Sir ...Bow Down To You 🙏
Sir refrence book rk jain ki process follow kiyi to nahi jamtaa kyaa?
very nice explained
Sir u apply in our college for Professor Job my doubt about this equation truly got cleared
Sir meko plzz smjhaiye ki coefficient of friction aap isme kaise laye. Or f aata kha se h. Plzz Sir. Mujhe aapke ans ke liye kab tk wait krna pad ga.
amazing vid ,watching from nepal
plz explain f'/density =f/2
In some books you will get friction factor as f which is also called as lamda and they will also say f is coefficient of friction so, don't get confused. Actually, in head loss due to friction equation
(hf) = 4fLV^2/(2gD) where f = coeffeicient of friction and if we take (4*f) this term in head loss equation (hf) we call it as a friction factor. Which is also called as lamda (Friction factor).
Thats why in Moodys diagram you will get on L.H.S (Lamda = 64/Re),
Since Lamda = 4f then (4f = 64/Re) after that ( f = (64/Re*4)) and finally you get coeffeicient of friction
(f = 16/Re).
Without correct, coefficient of friction value you will not be able to find correct head loss due friction.
where do we use (flv^2/2gd) and (4flv^2/2gd)
friction factor (f) = 4 * coefficient of friction. whenever friction factor is given, use (flv^2/2gd)
Thankyou sir you are very sweet 😊😊
sir..in some books friction factor is taken as flv(square)/2gd ...so which one is correct
In some books you will get friction factor as f which is also called as lamda and they will also say f is coefficient of friction so, don't get confused. Actually, in head loss due to friction equation
(hf) = 4fLV^2/(2gD) where f = coeffeicient of friction and if we take (4*f) this term in head loss equation (hf) we call it as a friction factor. Which is also called as lamda (Friction factor).
Thats why in Moodys diagram you will get on L.H.S (Lamda = 64/Re),
Since Lamda = 4f then (4f = 64/Re) after that ( f = (64/Re*4)) and finally you get coeffeicient of friction
(f = 16/Re).
Without correct, coefficient of friction value you will not be able to find correct head loss due friction.
How would you get f'/rho = f/2 ?
Same question, if you got it then tell me
Sir Kindly Share me Your SOM Playlist for Civil Mechanics Of Solids ..
Sir aap achhe padhate h..👌
We want video on ...rotameter
Head loss in hdpe pipe ?
14.54sec?? How do we know??
Thanks to explain for this topic sir
Sir Hows that F' /p = f/2