@@vickyvk8876 and 4 is came from p/A =πd/π/4 d square ....so numerator d and dinominator d gets cancel and π also gets cancel in both numerator and dinominator....and we get 4/d
Velocity at inlet is high (low pressure), as moving on through the pipe velocity decreases due to friction so at outlet velocity is relatively low to inlet (high pressure), always pressure flows from high to low ( fancy term:back flow)
Thanks for your work!! begins at 1:50
good lecturing mam keep it up
may god bless U and be happy 100 years teaching like this only
your explanation is very very nice thanks for providing this type of video
THANKS MAM FOR YOUR EASY UNDERASTANDABLE EXPLANATION
Thanks you, looking like my mother 😀
Looking like my dream girl 🤩
@skrisnakumari3429 😂😂
It is really understandable video mam,thanks for these video,we expect much more these type of understanding videos..
Nice explanation madam and good delivery of word clearly
Thanks madam super telling excellent work
Thanks mam... It will really help me 😍
Thank you ma'am I saw your video just before the exam and it helped :)
Good Madum but in friction.... There is one correction that( pie.d.l.....)means wetted surface area.... Thanq really helpful.....
Superb explanation
Helpful video really mam
Super madam good explanation
Tq Madam this video very useful to me
Still confused on friction factor and coefficient of friction
Tq mam .i easily understood it
thank you for the explanation i like the way youve kept it short
though the language am not getting it. but thanks
Thank you very much...madam
Explanation good
Well done!
Nice explaination mam
Thank you very much for your brief and straight to point explanation madam
Nice mam 😊🥰😍👍
In last step 4÷2 =2 not 1/2
Thank you so much ma'm
Super mam
Thank you mam i fill easy...
Madam. Since we have two pressure heads P1 and P2 so then why don't we have frictional forces F1 and F2
Bro friction is same with surface
Friction is always acts opposite to the flow of the fluid.....
too good mame osm loke it 😋😋😋😋
Thanks mam...🎉
Thank you mam
May I ask why f'/p = f/2?
She tell know it's constant
Mam we can cancel out 4/2 so i.e answer will 2flv^2/gd ❤️
Dhanyavaad
Perfect!
Thank you mam, you're beautiful and God bless you
Thank you teacher
Got the concept :)))
in last line some mistake may be please you see and do correct this
i do not understand last line how came in the position put f=f'
Thanks Mam
لكل زول بقرى عند ساتي يدعي للمرة تجي تقرينا
Thank you madam
Thanks mam❤
mam why pressure p2 is opposite to flow
Thank you
Mam coming 29th machining technology exam ply give any important questions
Thanks
Dekh k hi nhi dekhne ka Mann Kiya
How does row turns into 2 in the last step
Its actually rho(density)
Same doubt
@@prateekparbat no its 2 only... if it is rho where is that 4
@@vickyvk8876 f'/rho =f/2 ....so in the place of f'/rho we have taken f/2
@@vickyvk8876 and 4 is came from p/A =πd/π/4 d square ....so numerator d and dinominator d gets cancel and π also gets cancel in both numerator and dinominator....and we get 4/d
Madam why u take P2 as negative
Velocity at inlet is high (low pressure), as moving on through the pipe velocity decreases due to friction so at outlet velocity is relatively low to inlet (high pressure), always pressure flows from high to low ( fancy term:back flow)
It is in opposite direction
Madam chaala speed ga cheppukoni velthunnaru we can't catch your speed pls tell slowly other your way of teaching was good👍👍
Other wise
Thankyou
Wow
Boundary layer chapter
🙇🙇🙇
10:12
what are the minor losses mam
Like losses in elbow , bend ,sudden expansion in pipe or sudden contraction and also in valves
never hf=(4fLV2/2gd) It is hf=(4fLV2/8gd)
Thanku mam
Thank u madam
jo samjana nhi aaya bahut jldi skip kiya (f/2)
tq mam
Thank you madam