Physics 34.1 Bernoulli's Equation & Flow in Pipes (8 of 38) Calculating the Frictional Head Loss
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- Опубликовано: 28 сен 2024
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In this video I will calculate the frictional head loss of a cast iron pipe, L=100m, v=2m/s, D=2”=50.8mm, of water of temp=20C.
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Now I understand why Western education system are so advanced and practical 👍
Great playlist, this is really well explained and helpful! Thanks for the great work
Thank you. Glad you liked it. 🙂
Thank you, I'm learning a lot more than my lecturer taught
Glad to hear that!
Thank you Mr. Michel, Great lesson.
Glad you liked it!
where can use the formula 4flv^2/2gD and flv^2 / 2gD is there any difference? please give some example between 4flv^2 /2gD and flv^2 / 2gD . when I can use that formula?
where can use the formula 4fLv²/2gD and flv²/2gd is there any difference? thank you sir!😊
The Darcy Weisbach equation for frictional head loss is: flv^2 / 2gd.
Thank you
You're welcome 🙂
Great lecture!
At 2:52 I think we should look for 0.003 instead of 0.03 on chart, if I'm not wrong.
He did look for 0.003 on the map. :) Just a slip of tongue
Good explain man 😂
Thanks 😅
I don't get same fanning friction factor value😭
What if the flow is laminar.. could you tell me what is the next step..?
What if we are given the friction instead, how would you find the relative roughness or at least the roughness of a pipe using experimental data only?
Great explanation! I was following all the way through. I just need to know what "effective length" is. Apparently it has the something to do with the addition of head loss in pipe and head loss due to fittings (k factor)? Any help would be greatly appreciated!
The effective length is the length of a pipe that would account for the same pressure drop or head loss as the pipe in question without any bends, fittings, etc.
Mr. Michel why did you calculate the friction factor from the Moody diagram? Could I possibly have utilized f = 64/Re where Re is the Reynolds number
I solved using that and my answer appears to be encountering a momentous deviation from your answer 😭
64/Re is for when the flow is laminar. If Re is more than 4000, its turbulent and u need to do with moody
What is rpr?
thank you. simple and straight forward
You are welcome.
Why does my book and teach say RPR is D/e I noticed that a lot of formulas we’re using on my class are kinda swapped, like that, idk why. Our flow graph relative roughness numbers are the polar opposite, they’re tens of thousands as opposed to 10’s of thousandths.
I know this is not really relevant to the video exactly but does the viscosity of a fluid depend on its temperature if so what formulae are there to describe this, also does the flow rate change therefore depending on temperature?
Yes, they are both dependent on temperature
@Michel van Biezen how are you doing?
I was wondering if I can ask you a question, regarding head loss math problem I have. I can't seem to figure it out. Can I email you ?
We try to answer questions here on the comments when time permits. We have our regular jobs, so our time is very limited with the many requests.
@@MichelvanBiezen Ok I understand, I appreciate your time. Thank you.
What is the unit of kinematic viscosity in this equation?
Thank you for this.
You are welcome.
Thanks sir
thanks sir 😍😍
Most welcome
Dear, Michel van Biezen.
It was a wonderful tutorial. Appreciated it, Thank you!
But, How about pipes connected end to end? or a network of supply lines going to the house tap, say, a shower?
Yes, what we typically cover is the theoretical pipe flow without viscosity and affect of bending and connections. That requires a whole new set of videos covering those topics. We plan on covering that, we just haven't been able to get to it.