Matthew's writings were primarily to a Jewish audience. The exception clause is only found in Matthew 19:9. Mark and Luke never mention the exception clause because their audience was primarily to Gentiles. The word Fornication is not talking about Adultery. Galatians 5:19, dealing with the works of the Flesh, list Fornication and Adultery as two different words and meanings. The Bible teaches that while a man is betrothed to a woman, that if any one of them commits fornication you can put them away. Joseph and Mary went through the same thing but the Bible called it Fornication, not Adultery. Married couples don't commit fornication, it's called adultery. I was married for 20 years and have been divorced for 7 years now because of my ex-wife's infidelity. We went through professional Christian Counseling through a Professional counseling firm. I wanted reconciliation, but she didn't want to do the things to repair the marriage so she asked for a divorce. I had no choice but to give it to her because she wanted out of the Marriage. I tried dating 3 years after my divorce but no matter how I tried I could never enter into a relationship with a woman. God gave me the revelation in 2016/17 that remarriage was adultery and He was saving my soul from the pit of hell, that's why the relationships didn't work out. My ex-wife has been remarried 4 years now. I've forgiven her and understand that she is in an adulterous relationship. I now walk in the power and the grace of God that the Apostle Paul prayed for, that he himself would be kept from fornication. I'm Single, Saved, Sanctified and filled with the Holy Ghost. I shall remain single as long as my ex-wife is living. I pray she lives long because my prayer is that she repents and comes out of that adulterous marriage, not for me, but for her soul sake.
Ivory Perry III I actually got that revelation in September of 2015 and by November of that year I was separated from my second marriage and you know what's so crazy is that the whole time in the second marriage there was never any peace . Thank you Lord for your word
Oct 2000, Our soul is worth more than any marriage here on earth. If we only knew what Jesus has in store for His people if we would only endure to the end. Read Revelations 21. Thank God for revelation and wisdom. Blessings and Strength in the Holy Ghost!
Ralph Borroel, first thank you for your service. I'm a US Army Veteran (82nd Airborne). The answer is yes. When we repent with the right motive in our heart, the blood of Jesus Christ washes away our sins. The Baptism of the Holy Ghost is given to every man or woman that repents and calls upon the Name of the Lord. Divorce isn't the end of life as we know it. It's painful, and it takes time to heal, but with the help of the Lord you will heal. Seek the Lord and find out from Him what He has called you to do and God Speed on your Journey with Christ!
Love this video! As we discuss this issue, we must deal with the idolatry of marriage. The usual reaction against this view is that one just *has* to remarry because they're just not complete without a spouse. This perceived impossibility of staying single reveals the idol we have made of having a spouse.
Mark 10: 11 Jesus answered, “Anyone who divorces his wife and marries another woman commits adultery against her. 12 And if she divorces her husband and marries another man, she commits adultery.”
Hildafunk's World do you sin? Are you pure in Heart? Are you in total obedience? If not ya should strive a little harder, you have no idea how many people your condemning. My conscience is clear, people need forgiveness and Grace. What's done is done. Repent and move forward in obedience, but repent and divorce your 2nd marriage? Pure ignorance friend.
Romans 7: 2 for example, by law a married woman is bound to her husband as long as he is alive, but if her husband dies, she is released from the law that binds her to him. 3 So then, if she has sexual relations with another man while her husband is still alive, she is called an adulteress. But if her husband dies, she is released from that law and is not an adulteress if she marries another man
@@byrongreene8983 you dont want to be told, before judgement day, that you are living in sin.....what are the consequences, of that....at least now you can repent and be forgiven.....as that will not be the case, once again, on judgement day...
The context of Romans 7 is the Mosaic Law, NOT marriage; this is simply a false proof text used by many. The correlation is such: just as the marriage bond is broken/dissolved by the death of one party, the death of Christ frees us from our previous obligation to practice the Mosaic Law (a wife cannot marry another without committing adultery, but if he is dead/legally divorced from, she is free to take on a new spouse; therefore in the same way in order for believers to be Christ bride & have new life, we cannot live by both law & grace, but one must die/be separated, divorced from) a. He’s not saying death is the only way to dissolve the marriage (1 Cor. 7:10-15, 27-28)
3 yrs ago i had to make the most difficult decision in my life...i left the only man iv ever loved.when i met my x-fiance, i thought it was right in God's eyes to marry a divorced man.but God revealed the truth to me. it was devastating.but i didnt regret a thing.i knew God loved me so much that he saved me. . .
This is what Christ said ...and what he told his disciples. If a man divorces his wife for another, the wife is put in a situation that would cause her to remarry again. Thus putting her and the new husband in sin. Christ basically is pointing out that there is no excuse for a man to put his wife away. But in 1 Cor. 7: 10,11 ... Paul is explaining that if the woman leaves, she is to remain unmarried or reconcile. By her remaining unmarried it will allow for a future reconciliation, but if she remarries there is no command for the husband to remain unmarried. What did Christ say in Matthew 19: 5, 6? ... And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh? Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder. Who was not to put asunder? Man. ...because it was man that had that authority, under the law of Moses. Not woman! Men was no longer given authority to put away their wives, as it was in the time of Moses and by his law. No matter if it was due to her displeasing him or because he wanted another woman. This is so very clear in scripture, yet so misunderstood. Remember back to the law of Moses, If a man put away his wife and she remarried and later was put away again or widowed ...was the original husband allowed to remarry her? No ...she was now considered "unclean". When properly translated, Luke 16:18 says ... "Any man who divorces his wife to marry another woman is committing adultery. Any man that marries a woman divorced, while her covenant husband is alive, is also committing adultery.
you are wrong about not being able to return to the first spouse. Churches are falsely teaching that. Look at rejoiceministries.org. Look under questions and answers. She can explain it a whole lot better than I can. That was an old testament teaching that was taken out of context. You are living in an adulteress marriage if you stay with the non-covenant spouse and not return to your first spouse.
@@fibo12358 She is standing in the gap for her marriage, praying for the reconcillliation of her covenant marriage. She has forgiven her spouse and loves him and is trusting in God that he will restore. God bless you Anna.
@youreconfused 1 Corinthians 7 addresses this issue. A man is not to put away/divorce his wife. A wife is not to depart BUT IF SHE DOES she is to REMAIN UNMARRIED OR BE RECONCILED TO HER HUSBAND. There are times when a reconciliation is not possible (for whatever reason) and believers need to embrace this reality as painful as it might be. Some Christians teach there MUST be a reconciliation. That's not what Scripture teaches. The woman can stay departed.
2 Corinthians 5:17 that verse still calls them husband and wife though she departed and the husband must not put away his wife. No matter if the wife returns He must still always desire her to return and love His wife (Hosea). Ephesians 5:25-33 the mystery is marriage is a symbol of Christ and the church we are to role play Christ and the church to each other as spouse. Jesus will never leave or forsake His bride no matter what she does. The Gospel is the Good News of God. So marriage or any other statement can not be started with Good News... even from bad news then it’s likely not aligning with the Gospel. What words are God news unconditional love, forgiveness as Christ forgave us, mercy, reconciliation and prayer 🙏 Good News God so loved the world he gave His only begotten Son that whosoever shall believe in Him shall not perish but have ever lasting life. Give glory to God and serve Him.
I am one of MANY who fell victim to the heresy of divorce and remarriage being permissible. Eight years ago, I sought the counsel of my pastor about my failing marriage, and he lead me straight into the direction of divorce on account of my remaining in the marriage was not fair to my two young sons. Although my spouse was the one to eventually seek a divorce, I grieve almost every day over not doing more to save the marriage. My children had, for the most part, a happy home. They are a constant reminder of what I allowed; the divorce of our marriage. There is NEVER a shortage of tears, and regrets.
Praise God! I love this good news! I'm praying for my spouse too. I'll pray for you and your spouse also. I know with God all things are possible, and if it be his will, it will be done.
Thank you for pointing out the fact that "BOUND" is not the same as "BONDAGE". But my understanding of Paul using the word "bondage" in 1Corinthians 7:15 is saying that although the unbeliever is sinning by divorcing their believing spouse, the believer is not in "bondage"; in sin, by letting them go, but that God has called us to peace. It is to assure that YES divorce is a SIN, but that the innocent believer is not IN SIN because their spouse is divorcing THEM. Paul uses the word "bondage" several times in his writings to indicate the state of being in sin.
As in modern times we have no objection to an engaged couple terminating their engagement for whatever reason, so the exception clause was simply identifying that same thing. In their culture they used the terms 'married', 'husband', and 'wife' to apply to their engaged (betrothed) state. Also, they used the word "divorce" or the term "put away" to identify a termination of their engagements. So the exception is an interjected 'aside', referring to their special premarital divorces. That is why we see an allowance for the man to 'marry another' after the divorce for fornication (Matt 19:9): because he is still single, just like in modern times when a man terminates an engagement. That is why the "wife" so divorced can marry after the engagement-divorce (Matt 5:31,32): because she is also still single.
You can not compair our engagement to Jewish bethroal. Our engagement is nothing more than an intention to marry. While at that time when they were bethrothed they were married cause they maid there morally binding commitment. They entered the convant.. They had a moral and legal contract that was as binding as the marriage (it was a marriage). To commit fornication broke the agreement. If you look at today's marriages and weddings they are all performed together, the vows with the ceremony. Where as Jewish biblical times this was two parts....but today's engagement has nothing to do with Jewish bethroal...
thank brother many Christians r trying to twist the word to fulfill their fleshly desire. it's sad because they r trading a life of pleasure for eternity. thanks for posting.
God Changes the heart!!! It is not your spouse it is the spirits working through them Ephesians 6:10-20. If it is not what is of God it is not finished yet. You continue to speak out with your mouth and declare and decree that she is a proverbs 31 wife of noble character ECT... When it is hopeless praise God! When it looks impossible praise God! Because that is situation He wants to use for his Glory! Do NOT listen to people saying she has her free will and has to want to change!!! Did Jonah have his free will? He ran from God and look what happened! Did Saul have His free will? And who did he become? A new man from a murder to Pual the greatest apostle. Did pharo have his free will and God said HE hardened his heart for His glory! Did king Nebenekanezzar have His free will? And God made him like an animal for 7 years and then God gave him back his mind and he submitted to God! “God moved king Saul’s heart” in 1 Samuel 10:9 and the “valiant men whose heart God had touched” in 1 Sam 10:26. Deuteronomy2:30 God made Sinohn king of Heshbon spirit and heart change for his glory-“The Lord your God has made his spirit stubborn and his heart obstinate in order to give him into your hands, as He has now done.” Jeremiah 24:7 'I will give them a heart to know Me, for I am the LORD; and they will be My people, and I will be their God, for they will return to Me with their whole heart. Did not God move in in the nation of Israels hearts and put his spirit in them Ezekiel 36 and breath into the dead dry bones in Ezekiel 37? Didn't God move in King Cyrus's heart to let His people go? Ezra 1:5 The the family heads of Judah and Benjamin, and the priests and Levites-everyone whose heart God had moved!!- prepared to go up and build the house of the Lord in Jerusalem. Didn't Jesus come and bring Lazareth out of the grave when they said if you had of come sooner Jesus he would not have died...He is body is stinking now no hope!!! And THEN Jesus spoke life into him and brought the dead back to life! He is just looking for someone to have the faith to believe what is in the Bible. Will you?
Brother you deliver a very well spoken and nice message! Prayer and blessings to you and your wife to continue speaking the truth! I am in a three-year plus stand for my marriage (involving our 2 early teenage girls in the unfortunate mess) and I am absolutely taking the eunuch approach to it until she decides to come back for God's glory! Until then and after I am going to sharpen my sword and stand beside you in spreading this truth that comes from Him!
Jesus said Matthew 5:28 But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart. So, if you have looked at a woman lustfully, you have already committed adultery. You can't cherry pick verses that suit you and ignore others.
My understanding of the "exception clause" is: If the bride was NOT A VIRGIN when the husband first took her to bed following the wedding, and he figures this out because she didn't bleed; hence the cloth to show to the family, HE CAN PUT THAT SEXUALLY IMMORAL WOMAN AWAY AND REMARRY. To have a virgin bride was a must.
How can they possibly know if they were a Virgin or not?! They couldn't tell that just on the basis of the girl not bleeding. I didn't bleed my first time and plenty of other girls don't. Your hymen can be broken by riding horses, playing sports or just on its own. That is proven medically.
Kayla Sobeck First of all, TMI....Second, women in those days, in that culture were highly unlikely to have been involved in such activities as you named, and perhaps they had other ways of knowing. Jesus said, "There is nothing covered, that shall not be revealed; and hid, that shall not be known." There may have been deception, unbeknownst to the husband, just as there is today. Let God be the judge.
+Mellomoon Haze I would assume they would have more of chance of not bleeding and having it not intact by the culture they did live. Hard work, lifting, running at all like a child would do to play.... I would think they would have to have some sort of physical eye proof of not being a virgin like pregnant when they are engaged (betrothed) like Mary.
+Mellomoon Haze If we should "let God be the judge", then why are you passing judgement? Do you not know that you will be judged as you judge? If you judge with mercy, will not God Almighty show mercy to you? If you judge with condemnation, will God not also judge you with condemnation? These three remain: faith, hope, love... In every situation, many of which BTW are NOT clearly covered by scripture (which frustrates me, believe me!), what would be the most loving thing to do? What would bring hope to the hopeless? What would build up one's faith in Christ, instead of crushing hope and destroying faith? Do you think Paul repented of all of his sin and thereafter never committed it again? "For I do not do the good I want, but the evil I do not want is what I keep on doing." - Rom 7:19 Does this mean Paul was also a habitual sinner, like us?
Why in Matthew 5:31-32 does it only talk about the actually divorce papers once in verse 31? Going on it only uses the words divorce and send away which in Hebrew mean apaluo. What if divorce and send away actually mean sending the spouse away and not legally divorcing them. Therefore making that person commit adultery if they get remarried because they were never actually properly by law divorced? Men where doing this all the time during this time so they they didn’t have to pay the woman there dowry. So maybe just maybe our loving Jesus isn’t condemning people to hell for getting out of terrible marriages but simply saying to do it properly and go get the divorce papers. ( apastatio) in Hebrew which is a separate word than divorce and send away.
@@mareksumguy1887 leaving is not a Biblical reason....the term is not under bondage, not....not bound.....and it is porneia....not adultery.....so figure out what that word really means...
At 6:25 he starts talking about the exception clause. His explanation goes to 9:45. He does a good job identifying that the key is found in that there were two kinds of divorces. The premarital and the post marital. A few apparently contradictory Biblical issues are resolved once it is realized there are two things involved. If there were only 1 kind of divorce then 5:31,32 and 19:9 are a complete convoluted contradictory mess as he reveals in the first part of the video. The fact that there existed two kinds of divorces; and that mid-stride the exception clause refers off to that OTHER kind, which does NOT cause the wife to commit adultery; makes perfect sense. Here is an example of another similar sentence that does the same thing. The sentence starts off talking about tickets that cause insurance rates to go up, but the exception clause jumps off to refer to an entirely different kind of ticket that does NOT cause the rates to go up. The sentence has a reasonable flow of comprehension. In fact, this "non essential" function of the exception clause is the ONLY function the sentence format can accommodate for the exception clause. That by itself destroys the divorce for adultery explanation. A) You have heard the rumor that getting tickets is of no concern with regard to your auto insurance cost B) But I say to you 1) That whoever gets tickets, 2) Saving for jaywalking, 3) Causes their rates to go up, 4) And whoever uses your vehicle and gets a ticket causes the rates to go up In a college town where the campus police are jaywalking hawks as well as very strict on moving violations, this would make perfect sense. Since the audience is familiar with that OTHER, different kind of ticket, which is commonly issued, the exception fits perfectly. As in the above parallel, Jesus' exception clause also jumps off to refer to a different kind of divorce. Matt 5:31,32 broken down: A) It hath been said, Whosoever shall put away his wife, let him give her a writing of divorcement: B) But I say unto you, 1) That whosoever shall put away his wife, 2) saving for the cause of fornication, [that other divorce done premaritally] 3) causeth her to commit adultery: 4) and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.
God Changes the heart!!! It is not your spouse it is the spirits working through them Ephesians 6:10-20. If it is not what is of God it is not finished yet. You continue to speak out with your mouth and declare and decree that she is a proverbs 31 wife of noble character ECT... When it is hopeless praise God! When it looks impossible praise God! Because that is situation He wants to use for his Glory! Do NOT listen to people saying she has her free will and has to want to change!!! Did Jonah have his free will? He ran from God and look what happened! Did Saul have His free will? And who did he become? A new man from a murder to Pual the greatest apostle. Did pharo have his free will and God said HE hardened his heart for His glory! Did king Nebenekanezzar have His free will? And God made him like an animal for 7 years and then God gave him back his mind and he submitted to God! “God moved king Saul’s heart” in 1 Samuel 10:9 and the “valiant men whose heart God had touched” in 1 Sam 10:26. Deuteronomy2:30 God made Sinohn king of Heshbon spirit and heart change for his glory-“The Lord your God has made his spirit stubborn and his heart obstinate in order to give him into your hands, as He has now done.” Jeremiah 24:7 'I will give them a heart to know Me, for I am the LORD; and they will be My people, and I will be their God, for they will return to Me with their whole heart. Did not God move in in the nation of Israels hearts and put his spirit in them Ezekiel 36 and breath into the dead dry bones in Ezekiel 37? Didn't God move in King Cyrus's heart to let His people go? Ezra 1:5 The the family heads of Judah and Benjamin, and the priests and Levites-everyone whose heart God had moved!!- prepared to go up and build the house of the Lord in Jerusalem. Didn't Jesus come and bring Lazareth out of the grave when they said if you had of come sooner Jesus he would not have died...He is body is stinking now no hope!!! And THEN Jesus spoke life into him and brought the dead back to life! He is just looking for someone to have the faith to believe what is in the Bible. Will you?
Do we just ignore these scriptures??? 1 Corinthians 7:27. Kjv... Art thou bound unto a wife? seek not to be loosed. Art thou loosed from a wife? seek not a wife.7:28 But and if thou marry, thou hast not sinned; and if a virgin marry, she hath not sinned. Nevertheless such shall have trouble in the flesh: but I spare you. Bound means Married Loosed means Divorced.. Simple Truth...
Carol Richardson loose meaning not married not divorced the context is for single people. And I was shocked to see that basically almost all commentaries explain that as well
@@DENZ85081 The Word loosed in that particular scripture in the Greek is as follows.. Greek: λύω Transliteration: luō Pronunciation: loo'-o Definition: A primary verb; to loosen (literally or figuratively): - break (up) destroy dissolve (un-) loose melt put off. Compare G4486 . KJV Usage: loose (27x), break (5x), unloose (3x), destroy (2x), dissolve (2x), put off (1x), melt (1x), break up (1x), break down (1x). Occurs: 46 In verses: 40. This scripture is talking about married, divorced and virgins..
To those here that believe the Matthew divorce exception clause means adultery during a marriage: then if a divorce happened because of adultery (D is initiated by the adulterer), and adulterer "remarries" another person, then since this "remarriage" is adultery (right?), then for the adulterer to divorce from a "remarriage", this is biblical, right? -- since "remarriage" is also adultery (as long as original first-marriage spouses were both alive at the time of the "remarriage"). I don't see what the big deal is about divorcing from an *adulterous* "remarriage". It's following scripture, especially if you believe in the exception clause to mean/include adultery. Also in your exception clause passage, please remember that Jesus said "Moses allowed" (not God allows), and also don't forget what He said about hard hearts. Go back and read everywhere the Bible talks about hard hearts and hearts of stone. Not a good thing, i.e. something we would be wise to avoid and flee from (the initial divorce in the first place, that is). By this view (exception = adultery), you are promoting and widening the door for no-fault divorce because people (even pastors) will now extend this to other "exceptions", citing Bible verses. Dangerous territory. Deut 24:1-4 - to those who love this passage, keep in mind it's about a very specific situation. How can you make a blanket generalization and make this passage apply every situation here in modern times? Sounds dangerous to me. Do you actually go back and read that passage for yourself, or do you just rely on what some preacher, teacher or Internet comment tells you? Have you researched what scholars think the Hebrew words for "something unclean" means? Do they know - beyond any doubt - exactly what that ancient Hebrew phase actually means? I am glad that God reconciled us back to Him through Jesus, the bride, no matter how many layers of spiritual "adultery remarriage" (turning away, divorcing ourselves God, "remarrying" to sin, etc) that we commit in our lives. By the grace of God and only through Him, I follow that example of Jesus.
I got married in 1990. My wife had left her husband prior to that. She had been forced to marry him since she lived in a military dictatorship. And he was an officer. We are still married but we do not live in an intimate relationship. I know that God blessed our wedding and has blessed our marriage.
@ Linkowski, Excellent teaching on this. I am in agreement with you. This teaching or preaching will cause many to hate you. Pawson and Zac Pooen and many other teachers that do not believe in divorce and remarriage, dance around the truth when it comes to a someone already in an adulteress remarriage. At least all the teachings I have seen when that question comes up. They for whatever reason they are afraid whether it is to not lose members or speaking engagements, money whatever.
You are right....I have yet to hear a preacher say "It is not lawful for thee to have her" as John the Baptist said to Herod (who was already remarried).
If you are divorced from a covenant marriage, then no, so long as your previous spouse is alive there is no remarriage. I believe this is his teaching. However, if you married, but not in a covenant marriage, such a marrying a divorced person who was in a previous covenant marriage, then I believe this is where Jer3 applies. You are doing nothing but turning from sin when you divorce from a noncovenant marriage, and I believe because of Jer3, you are free to remarry. I think this is what he teaches, but not exactly sure.
While in the beginning God's pattern for marriage was that it would be permanent but then sin entered the world and as we go into the old testament and even Jesus quoted that in the beginning it was God's design that it would be permanent but because of man's heart hardening people did get divorced. I am familiar with all the NT passages myself being a pastor of a church for many years and a Christian of 50 years this teacher does misquote some things e.g 1 Corinthians 7 where Paul has been asked a simple question which was asked by new Christians. They asked Paul if it was still ok to be married to an unbeliever or would God now want them to separate. Paul said no stay with it for the reasons that he explained. Sadly many preachers use this passage as an answer for all types of marriage and divorce situations but it can not be used in such a way. Here is not the time for a big teaching but nearly every video I watch on this teaching many even go on to say that if you got married again then you are an adulterer and the marriage should cease. Jesus was asked if a man can put away his wife for "any" reason, any being an important word here where Jesus goes on to refer to God's original intention before sin. Jesus said that adultery would allow a man or woman to divorce. We see King David commit adultery and God forgives him and we see many Christians divorce because sometimes people just don't get on with each other and the marriage fails. When two Christians separate it is a sinful deed just like any sin being no more or less than any sinful deed. When we are saved our sinful nature is changed and we have a new nature but we are still going to do at times a sinful deed and miss the mark because we are still in the flesh. God knows this and the bible says that when we miss the mark that God is faithful and just to forgive our sin and cleanse us from all unrighteousness. This is the one truth that ALL these preachers fail to comfort the saints with that God forgives and when he does we are free to move on and marry again. Many preachers just make these laws and many now live confused about what God thinks and many left violent marriages or marriages that were so horrific that they could not stay. Does God then punish you for the rest of your life and make you live alone when he knows that he meets every human need through your husband or wife. No, no ,no, God is a God who forgives and allows us to move on but many say no he doesn't forgive divorce. Well then God doesn't forgive any sinful deed then. No God forgives and if you are reading this looking for answers because you are remarried or divorced know that God didn't want you to fail but if you confess to God that you missed the mark ( sinned) he is faithful to forgive and don't let anyone tell you otherwise because God's word is the authority and God forgives. Take a quick look at Deuteronomy 24 : 1-4 and you will see that this video is false teaching and contradicts Gods word. Here you see that a person can not remarry someone once they have been married to someone else which shows how false this teacher is.
YES! if the first spouse is still living. Hear Ye! Hear Ye! Divorce is not permitted for dedicated and conscientious followers of the Lord Christ. As he both forbids divorce...."What God has joined together let not man put asunder". Along with remarriages. "9 Therefore what God has joined together, let man not separate." 10 When they were in the house again, the disciples asked Jesus about this. 11 He answered, "Anyone who divorces his wife and marries another woman commits adultery against her. 12 And if she divorces her husband and marries another man, she commits adultery." Mark 10:8-12 (ANIV) Period! "32 But the man" [or woman] "who commits adultery is an utter fool, for he destroys himself. 33 He will be wounded and disgraced. His shame will never be erased." Prov 6:32-33 (NLT)
Greeting to you in the name of our Lord and Savior Jesus the Christ. I appreciate what you have to say. I believe in the permanency of marriage, as do you and your wife. I do have a question that has confused me for quite some time, and any input that you can give me would be greatly appreciated, so here goes my one and only brief question: Matthew 5:28 King James Version (KJV) 28" But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart." Why would this not be considered fornication instead of adultery? If you are not Biblically married (I realize that the Bible does not specify in this particular passage), how can just the lustful thought be considered adultery? I understand that the perpetrator, in a since, is taking mental possession (coveting), of that person just by lusting after them, however, for me the confusion lies in the fact that perhaps the person lusting, or the person lusted after, has never been married. I thought that adultery could only be attributed to a Biblically defined marriage? But it seems that just lusting, whether married or not, would be adultery. Why then, would not two people never married be considered committing adultery? Thank you. Your brother in Jesus. ~Shawn
The equivalent, if you are not married, would be "you have committed fornication." From the context it could have been Jesus was talking to married people at that instance.
Thank you for responding. I took into account your comment, but Matthew 5:28 does not say fornication. It is specific in using the word adultery. Also, there is no mention in this passage that Jesus was applying the word adultery (in this case), to the married. Somehow, coveting someone via a lustful manner, brings about an adulterous heart. I am trying not to read into this passage what is not there, which is why I may be having trouble understanding this.
+Shawn Statzer I am not God or Jesus. This is only what I think. This passage I think is primarily for men. The young man who lusts after a woman or a bunch of women will keep that lust in his heart. Even after he gets married. This is kind of a way of seeing the future. Look at Matt 5:32. It says that "causeth her to commit adultery". I do not think that if she does not remarry, she will commit adultery. But normally, when women are divorced, they look to remarry and when they do, they will have been forced to commit adultery. That is my thinking, I am not God.
+Darryck Forrest Sr I think that I was wrong about my answer above. In Matthew 5:27, it is understood that Jesus is talking about people who are married. So if you stay with this context, he is still talking about married people in 5:28. Therefore he is talking about committing adultery . Not fornication. This answer does not give the man who is not married an excuse for lusting after women(I can't say, I am not married, this doesn't apply to me, I can lust after women that are not married.). Because 2 Timothy 2:22 tells us to flee youthful lusts. There are other passages prohibiting lusting. I do not know if you understand, agree or disagree. This is what I think the Spirit has led me to understand this verse. I could be in error.
+Darryck Forrest Sr I said that Matt 5:27 was understood to mean married people, because I believe that there were people back then and today who were married and lusting after women and unmarried lusting after married women. Adultery = Married man having sex with a woman not his wife, and an unmarried man having sex with a married woman. Do I have to say that this also applies to women?
Joey P, Deut. 17:17 says that God did not intend for men to be storing up many wives, and wealth, but it seems the culture still took that convenience, and it sure caused alot of jealousy, lies, and heartache
*Juleen Eyers “Remarriage while your original spouse is alive (if you were their original spouse) is adultery. Repentance requires STOPPING THE SIN and SINNING NO MORE - thus getting out of the adulterous remarriage. We would not say a homosexual marriage is okay if they continue to stay married, neither is an adulterous remarriage okay by staying in it.” This is how God feels about divorce: 'And this is the second thing you do: You cover the altar of the Lord with tears, With weeping and crying; So He does not regard the offering anymore, Nor receive it with goodwill from your hands. Yet you say, “For what reason?” Because the Lord has been witness Between you and the wife of your youth, With whom you have dealt treacherously; Yet she is your companion And your wife by covenant. But did He not make them one, Having a remnant of the Spirit? And why one? He seeks godly offspring. Therefore take heed to your spirit, And let none deal treacherously with the wife of his youth. “For the Lord God of Israel says That He hates divorce, For it covers one’s garment with violence,” Says the Lord of hosts. “Therefore take heed to your spirit, That you do not deal treacherously.” You have wearied the Lord with your words; Yet you say, “In what way have we wearied Him? ” In that you say, “Everyone who does evil Is good in the sight of the Lord , And He delights in them,” Or, “Where is the God of justice?” ' Malachi 2:13-17 NKJV Only the book of Matthew contains the "except for fornication" permission to divorce, as only the book of Matthew was specifically written for the Jews and the Jewish culture understood that this "fornication" meant sexual unfaithfulness in the betrothal/engagement period (not after the marriage was consummated by sexual union between the husband and wife). An example of this is shown where Joseph wanted to DIVORCE the mother of Jesus, Mary, before they had consummated their marriage as it appeared that she had been unfaithful as she was pregnant prior to having sex with Joseph. "Now the birth of Jesus Christ was on this wise: When as his mother Mary was espoused to Joseph, before they came together (sexually), she was found with child of the Holy Ghost. Then Joseph her husband, being a just man, and not willing to make her a publick example, was minded to put her away privily. But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost. And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins. Now all this was done, that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the prophet, saying, Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us. Then Joseph being raised from sleep did as the angel of the Lord had bidden him, and took unto him his wife: And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS." - Matthew 1:18-25 KJV (Jesus speaking) "It hath been said, Whosoever shall put away his wife, let him give her a writing of divorcement: But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication (the Greek word "porneia"), causeth her to commit adultery (the Greek word "moicheia") and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery." - Matthew 5:31-32 KJV (Jesus speaking) "I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery." - Matthew 19:9 KJV Note no fornication clause in the rest of the gospels, because it was specifically written to the gentiles which did not have the strict betrothal customs like the Jews: (Jesus speaking) "Whosoever putteth away his wife, and marrieth another, committeth adultery: and whosoever marrieth her that is put away from her husband committeth adultery." - Luke 16:18 KJV (Jesus speaking) "And he saith unto them, Whosoever shall put away his wife, and marry another, committeth adultery against her. And if a woman shall put away her husband, and be married to another, she committeth adultery." - Mark 10:11-12 KJV The ONLY permission for remarriage is the death of the original spouse: (Paul speaking) "For the woman which hath an husband is bound by the law to her husband so long as he liveth; but if the husband be dead, she is loosed from the law of her husband. So then if, while her husband liveth, she be married to another man, she shall be called an adulteress: but if her husband be dead, she is free from that law; so that she is no adulteress, though she be married to another man." - Romans 7:2-3 KJV Lastly, abandonment by a spouse does not allow remarriage to another. You must either reconcile or stay unmarried. (Paul speaking) "And unto the married I command, yet not I, but the Lord, Let not the wife depart from her husband: But and if she depart, let her remain unmarried, or be reconciled to her husband: and let not the husband put away his wife. But to the rest speak I, not the Lord: If any brother hath a wife that believeth not, and she be pleased to dwell with him, let him not put her away. And the woman which hath an husband that believeth not, and if he be pleased to dwell with her, let her not leave him. For the unbelieving husband is sanctified by the wife, and the unbelieving wife is sanctified by the husband: else were your children unclean; but now are they holy. But if the unbelieving depart, let him depart. A brother or a sister is not under bondage (to perform the marital duties - this does not allow remarriage) in such cases: but God hath called us to peace. For what knowest thou, O wife, whether thou shalt save thy husband? or how knowest thou, O man, whether thou shalt save thy wife?" - 1 Corinthians 7:10-16 KJV John the Baptist took the divorce and remarriage adultery so serious, that he lost his head over it via decapitation by Herod: But when Herod heard, he said, “This is John, whom I beheaded; he has been raised from the dead!” For Herod himself had sent and laid hold of John, and bound him in prison for the sake of Herodias, his brother Philip’s wife; for he had married her. Because John had said to Herod, “It is not lawful for you to have your brother’s wife.” - Mark 6:16-18 NKJV Of all the laws in the Old Testament, Paul emphasized only four - and abstaining from sexual immorality (which is what remarriage is while your original spouse is alive) is one of them: (Paul speaking) "For it seemed good to the Holy Spirit, and to us, to lay upon you no greater burden than these necessary things: that you abstain from things offered to idols, from blood, from things strangled, and from sexual immorality. If you keep yourselves from these, you will do well. Farewell." - Acts 15:28-29 NKJV Having children in an adulterous remarriage does not make it any less important to exit that adulterous remarriage as shown in Ezra 10 where they the people had to repent (stop being a part of) unlawful marriages, some of which resulted in offspring ("All these had taken pagan wives, and some of them had wives by whom they had children." Ezra 10:44 NKJV). Staying in an adulterous remarriage can take you to hell: (Paul speaking) Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor ADULTERERS, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind, Nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners, shall inherit the kingdom of God. And such WERE (note, they did not stay in their sinful acts as repentance requires STOPPING THE SIN) some of you: but ye are washed, but ye are sanctified, but ye are justified in the name of the Lord Jesus, and by the Spirit of our God. - 1 Corinthians 6:9-11 KJV
Very sad 😥 Continue to pray for his repentance. In the meantime, Jesus makes a much better companion that anyone on the face of the earth. I am happily remaining unmarried, praying for my x to come to repentance. God's peace and blessings to you.
In my view to presume porneia in the NT refers to betrothal sexual infidelity is a much too restrictive application of the word. If the Greek porneia (unchastity, immorality, fornication) in the NT is equivalent to the Hebrew zanah (harlotry, whoredom) in the OT as the Septuagint translation indicates; it implies more than just a minor or even major sexual indiscretion, but a 'spirit of harlotry', whoredom, unrepentant promiscuousness, a continuos way of life and character that makes continuation of a marriage impossible, however loving, Christlike, and forgiving a partner may be. Also, of all 25 times in the NASB that porneia is translated, only in a handful of the contexts could it be implied that betrothal sexual infidelity was a possible intended meaning of the author.
@@maunder01 The three explicit and conclusive truths that are consistently revealed throughout the New Testament are: (1) To marry another after divorce is adultery (2) To divorce a spouse for a reason other than fornication is adultery (3) To marry another after a husband or wife has died is not adultery.
THANK YOU, THANK YOU,THANK YOU.... You are helping so many escape He'll in the Future if they repent. I am in the midst of repenting from an adulterous remarriage. Thank you for helping tell the truth, many Pastors refuse to do the right thing and will be judged.
"But in the beginning it was not so"... "Except it be for fornication" means the woman has already been deflowered, and it was discovered on the wedding night, and this is the only grounds for "putting away your wife".... which begs the question: How many of us are truly married in the sight of Yahweh?... Most of us define marriage with a gentile, pagan bias ; two people, agreeing to love each other exclusively ; man gives women a ring, woman gives man a ring... "Awwwww... However, Yahweh is blasphemed by this "sun god " symbolistic, circle on the finger exchange... Yes, our societies' values are pagan-gentile, we do not know, and are not known by the TRICE HOLY GOD... ( Amos, 3:2 ) To Isreal… "You only have I known of all the families of the earth...." So the exchanging of vows by just any two individuals, in any pagan society, guarantees no union before Yahweh's eyes, unless His ways are exemplified, and Glorified.... In fact, no covenant by man is justified before the TRICE HOLY YAHWEH, without there being the clear display of His wrath against sin.... "Justice and judgement are the habitation of thy throne." Psalms 89 :14 … His presence before sinful man demands either man's death, or a substitute, to symbolize man's "deserved" death, if there is to be reconciliation ... Again, THE SHEDDING OF JUST OR INNOCENT BLOOD MUST SYMBOLIZE, THROUGH DEATH SUBTITUTION, THAT THE SINFUL MAN DESERVES DEATH, BEFORE THERE IS JUSTIFICATION OF HOLY UNION ; This is the messianic type... And the first and second Adam both bore out this symbolism, PRIOR TO THEM BEING GIVEN A WIFE … The woman came from the man, his rib (innocent blood being released prior), produced his wife, Eve... She was made to cleave (sexually unite as one flesh) to the man, who was made in the image of Yahweh.... Yahweh therefore, subsequently designed every woman from birth, with the mechanism to effectuate the intent to glorify Himself in judgement and justice ( messianic symbolism ; Yeshuah to produce his wife)..... Therefore it is said, "what Yahweh hath put together, let no man put asunder "...... The rupturing of the woman's innocent, untouched hymen, by the man ( the shedding of it's blood ), symbolizes the act of Yahweh pouring out His wrath, personifying Himself, and His demand for Holiness : He is demonstrating, through this consummation, the messianic type, the first and second Adam both bore out PRIOR TO THEM BEING GIVEN A WIFE..... And also illustrating that the both parties, deserve, since the fall, death ; by the presence of this innocent blood.... This is the creating of true covenant, with the messianic message on display.... ( A WIFE, from INNOCENT blood )…. Yahweh's Holy union in demonstration.. ( messianic symbolism, justice and judgement ).... So too, in the case of a widow or widower ; the death of the spouse, justified in Holy union, demonstrates the flow of the wrath of Yahweh against the innocent, again, to justify reunion by either.... Therefore the widow is justified to "remarry".. and vice versa...… For fallen man, there must be an awareness, through shedding of blood , death of the innocent substitute symbolism, of the judgement of his wickedness, before there is justification ..... Yahweh is always glorified in justice and judgement before Holy union or reunion... "Justice and judgement are the habitation ( BASE ) of thy throne." Psalms 89 :14..... This is Yahweh's signature, demonstrating His Holiness as Alpha and Omega. ( first and last Adam symbolism ).... So the shedding of innocent blood clearly is covenantal... A wife ( the church ) is produced.... ( all messianic, even down to the heart of messiah ; that the man be instructed to love his wife like messiah loves His wife, the church ) Make no mistake, even down to the deep sleep that Yahweh placed upon the first Adam, is a type of Yeshuah ( the second Adam ), dying... So wise and prophetic is our God, Yahweh.... to glorify Himself, in the image of Himself, Adam.... Therefore the fist woman you deflower is your wife for ever, by Holy ritual, because the Holy covenant established at the point of this sexual union, provides the only just basis for continual sexual union (repeated sex), in the same chasm.... If the woman is deflowered by object, the first male to enter the garnished chasm, is justified by default .... and if you marry a deflowered woman, her deflowerer or husband, better be dead ( making her eligible for new covenant ), or you are committing adultery... Only in this context, do Yeshuah's words make sense.. Matthew 19 : 3-12. "except it be for fornication".... meaning, she was already deflowered, and hence, in holy union with another, and he discovered it.. No blood ( messianic typing established prior to him ).. Therefore she just committed adultery, being already in Holy union, having FORNICATED PREVIOUSLY, lustfully... She's someone else's husband."... Therefore the man can put her away to be stoned. ( for committing adultery) ( Deut. 22:13-19 )…... Interesting to note, that Joseph was willing to put Mary away privately, when he discovered she had already been touched, and pregnant... He knew, her perceived fornication was grounds for her dismissal... Those with reverence for Yahweh are instructed to deem anything other than the scriptural, spiritual, innocent blood based concept of marriage, just described, as pagan ritualism ; corrupt ceremony sanctioned by pagan society....... So this includes a man marrying a deflowered woman, once her deflowerer is alive (No messianic symbolism)... It includes a woman marrying a woman (No messianic symbolism) ...… It includes a man marrying a man (No messianic symbolism)...... It includes a woman marrying a horse (No messianic symbolism)..... It includes a man marrying a dog (also, No messianic symbolism)....... None of these forms of fornication, except the " MAN - WOMAN - BLEEDING HYMEN PARADIGM " magnify or represent the purpose, or the prophetic messianic type, of the Alpha and Omega - Yahweh Yeshua Elohim, the exhalted sovereign, who inhabits eternity in the high and Holy place, between the cherubim........ He alone, who made Adam in His own image, and is Trice Holy, is separate from other gods.... He alone is glorified in justice and judgement, in heaven and earth...... And He alone, and this his standard, are hated today, only because we all love, and are guided by our pagan - gentile conditioning, to embrace fleshly "lusts"......…...Peace.
This is what the Holy spirit has shown me in the past few months he did a very clear case for what the bible teaches, Its amazing everything i came to believe this guy confirmed I believe my wife cheated and i want to leave and someday remarry but iam stuck but if its Gods will then i stay THANK YOU PASTOR
You’re not stuck you have an opportunity to show the same love and forgiveness you have been given by Jesus Christ. I sympathize there is no greater pain than betrayal but with God all things are possible. Prayers
Remarriage is always adultery if your covenant spouse is living 1 Corinthians 7:39. The exception clause was Jewish specific for a time when the Jews were still under the their Jewish/Mosaic law. Matthew was writing to a Jewish audience. It was this very audience who received the prophesy of the coming Messiah’s birth. It was this very audience who would understand the Jewish betrothal system of the Mosaic law as mentioned in Matthew 1:19, which describes the same situation Jesus excuses in 19:9 and 5:32. But Christ “abolished” the Old Law, making it “obsolete.” (Eph. 2:15; Heb. 8:13). Therefore, the exception clause, like the Old Law, with all its obligations, are done away with. The exception clause simply does not apply to Christians.
Why I disagree with Craig and Tamara Linkowski about those who are remarried revolves around the fact that both Jesus and Paul can be and should be understood in a congruous manner with Moses and the Old Testament. In other words nothing Jesus or Paul said should be understood as a contradiction with Old Testament precedents. Craig and Tamara have accepted false suppositions as truth. They have taken these suppositions to there logical conclusions but they don’t realize the difference in what Jesus actually said verses the Teachers that helped them form their beliefs. The following is for the purpose of differentiation. What does it mean to take Jesus literally when He speaks to the issue of divorce and remarriage? * Did Jesus mean divorce when He said divorce. * How about remarriage? Should we understand Jesus as not being literal when He said “marry another?” * Did Jesus conclude that adultery follows divorce and remarriage but he didn’t literally mean divorce and remarriage? * Should we understand the ensuing adultery literally but the divorce and remarriage that preceded it non-literally? Is this line of thinking confusing and might the confusion be because an interpreter has chosen to interpret some of what Jesus said literally and some non-literally? Throughout Church history Jesus’ teaching about divorce and remarriage was hard to understand for most individuals because they were associating ADULTERY with an intact marriage. In other words adultery was understood as being unfaithful to whom one is married. This definition creates a box from which most have not thought outside of. Therefore (for them) Jesus could not have meant that adultery occurs in the manner He described. But the truth is, it can. * Could Jesus have literally meant everything He said? Can adultery occur exactly how He described it? * Must we believe there is only one way to commit adultery? The most prevalent problem for bible expositors (past and present) on this issue has been the paradox of explaining the adultery. That’s because most interpreters can’t understand how adultery can be literal if the divorce was literal. Explaining the adultery has produced a variety of hotly contentious views. Some of these views seek to explain away the adultery, while others seek to explain away the divorce and second marriage. There are those who interpret divorce and remarriage non-literally and there are those who interpret the adultery as non-literal. For instance, David Servant takes the same (or similar) view as Dr. Craig Keener in their RUclips videos. Craig believes Jesus was being hyperbolic when He spoke of the adultery that followed divorce and remarriage. In other words the adultery is not to be understood literally, while the divorce and remarriage should. David Servant in like manner says that divorce and remarriage “is like adultery” but falls short of describing it as adultery. Both take a non-literal approach for the adultery while seeing divorce and remarriage as literal. This interpretation is not as detrimental to marriage and families as those who interpret the divorce and second marriage non-literally. Conversely individuals such as Stephen Wilcox and Dr. Joseph Webb interpret the adultery as literal but the divorce and second marriage non-literally. This way of interpreting Jesus for these guys means that divorce does not actually mean divorce nor does remarriage mean marriage. Here are a couple of propositional statements that both men affirm, * “Marriage survives remarriage and precludes it” * “A marriage is for life. No matter what a spouse turns out to be, or how they may act, what they do or don’t do, or the sins they commit, the covenant remains fully in effect. A remarriage while a former spouse lives is not marriage at all, but sinful adultery. God does not divide the one flesh relationship except by physical death” For context sake remember both statements are in reference to the issue of divorce and remarriage. Preclude means to prevent so they believe that the first marriage actually prevents a second marriage and that the first marriage doesn’t end at divorce. Therefore divorce and remarriage is not being interpreted literally. This interpretation mentally dismisses the very events that causes one to commit adultery this way. Mentally dismissing part of what Jesus said isn’t going to get you to truth. You can clearly see that the idea of “indissoluble marriage” creates self-contradicting statements. These statements actually invert words in which Jesus spoke to this issue. It creates an argument in the mind that was never set forth by Jesus. This way of interpreting Jesus does not mean that adultery is committed by two preceding factors, it actually eliminates those factors. They end up describing the adultery as if there was no divorce or second marriage. There is ample evidence from these men’s teachings that they purposely convey that this adultery is caused by not being divorced (from the original spouse). Therefore “indissoluble marriage” is forged into Jesus’ teaching by not taking divorce and remarriage literally. Consequently adultery does not ensue from divorce and remarriage (as described by Jesus), it occurs within the first marriage (as interpreted by Stephen and Joseph). See the difference? What is taken as literal and non-literal by David and Craig is reversed by Stephen and Joseph. They all have a issue with understanding all the factors as literal. For instance, Mensajes para el Remanente (Pastor Carlos), one who addressed me and said, “I, and the entire History of 2000 years of Christianity, take the words of Jesus literally and at face value. Your (False) premise, in my estimation, is that you believe Jesus did not literally mean what He said but the opposite in : "whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery." (Matt. 5:32)” Carlos who supports Stephen and Joseph interpretation makes a fundamental mistake about my “premise” in regard to Matthew 5:32. I take everything Jesus said there literally and at face value. This is why I disagree with all five men. Understanding all the factors given by Jesus literally and at face value means for me that the divorce was effective, the remarriage was effective and that adultery resulted as a consequence. Taking everything literally and at face value means that the adultery that ensued occurs because the first marriage ended and another one was constituted. This is a different way of committing adultery than those who believe the first marriage is still intact (indissoluble marriage). Continued in the comment thread.
Carlos makes the following observation by believing “indissoluble marriage.” Notice how he attributes to Jesus what he believes personally. Notice also that a non-literal interpretation of “divorce” and “marry” creates self-contradicting statements in what he is saying. Carlos writes, “What is significant about adultery in remarriage? When Jesus said, "whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery" (Matt. 5:32; Matt. 19:9) He said something significant that I did not see for a long time. When Jesus made that statement, He was stating that divorce does not end the first marriage. People have always assumed that divorce ends the first marriage, but Jesus said that it is not true. The sin of adultery can only occur if one or both of the persons involved is married. If neither of the persons are married the term adultery cannot be used. When Jesus said that "whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery", He was stating that when a man marries a divorced woman he is living with another man's wife and therefore is guilty of adultery. Divorce does not make a man or a woman single again. Divorce does not end a person's first marriage. That is why a person commits adultery when they marry and live with a divorced person. Do you get the significance of Jesus' use of the word adultery? Adultery could not occur in remarriage if divorce ended the first marriage. Adultery can only occur in remarriage because the divorced spouse is still married to their first marriage partner in Jesus' judgment. (Jesus is the Judge we will stand before, for our hearing on Judgment Day and it is important that we understand our Judge's reasoning and logic if we want to enter Heaven.) The significance of the sin of adultery in remarriage is that divorce does not end a person's first marriage!” Does this argumentation sound familiar to what I have pointed out? Notice what Carlos said, * “Divorce does not make a man or a woman single again.” * “Divorce does not end a person's first marriage.” Having stated this conclusion as a basis of reasoning for the ensuing adultery, he then makes “indissoluble marriage” the reason why a divorced person commits adultery. He writes, * “That is why a person commits adultery when they marry and live with a divorced person.” * “Adultery can only occur in remarriage because the divorced spouse is still married to their first marriage partner in Jesus' judgment.” Is Carlos representing Jesus’ judgment as he claims? Is he interpreting everything Jesus said literally and at face value? Is he not making the same fundamental mistake that Stephen and Joseph make when they dismiss divorce and remarriage as literal? Do you see the literal conflict Carlos makes with words he is using non-literally and inversely? He is actually using words he has to mentally discard in order to convince himself of what he is saying. Anytime you hear someone say “the divorce spouse is still married“ you have heard a self-contradicting statement that is made worse by attributing it to Jesus. What would happen to one’s interpretation if everything Jesus said is taken literally? It would eliminate the false supposition of “indissoluble marriage.” It would eliminate the supposed conflict between Jesus and Moses. It would simply mean that Jesus revealed to His covenant people that they had for hundreds of years been committing adultery by supplanting one spouse for another. It would mean that Jesus gave them a reason to stay married. It would mean there is no difference in the outcome of divorce from one Testament to the other. It would mean that “divorce” means divorce. It would mean that divorce terminated the marriage. It would mean the divorce was real. It would mean that the theory of “indissoluble marriage” is false. It would mean that a divorced woman WAS NOT “still married to her first husband.” It would mean that all the suppositions based on “indissoluble marriage” are false. Particularly the “divorce to repent” supposition. It would mean that “marry another” (Matthew 19) means marry another. It would mean remarriage is a marriage. It would mean remarriage was real. It would mean there is no difference in the outcome of remarriage from Old Testament to New. It would mean that all those who advocates “divorce to repent” are guilty of causing the dissolution of families. It would mean that all who divorced their second spouse out of fear transgressed another marriage. It would mean transgression were multiplied. It would mean wives and husbands abdicated their role in their home. It would mean that families were destroyed from false teaching. Continued in the comment thread.
This manner of adultery happens because the first marriage ended and another marriage was formed. Jesus was making a counter argument against the Pharisees from God’s design for marriage (Matthew 19:4-6, 8b). Jesus did not answer their question (v.3) by appealing to the law, but rather by appealing to God’s creative design for marriage. While Jesus acknowledged God’s creative design for marriage, He never denied the reality of divorce. This way of committing adultery happens exactly how Jesus described it and everything He said was relevant to whom He spoke. Jesus was explaining to the Pharisees that ending a marriage causes one to commit adultery when they remarry because the obligation of lifelong fidelity is violated. Women throughout the Old Testament were allowed to remarry if their husbands divorced them (Deut. 24:2). Consequently the ensuing adultery did not occur in the first marriage as “indissoluble marriage” advocates teach. There is a difference in the adultery that Jesus described from those who teach that the adultery is occurring in the first marriage. In the back and forth argument between Jesus and the Pharisees Jesus reveal to them that they were violating God’s creative design for marriage by prematurely ending it. Jesus never made an argument about the indissolubility of marriage. He never said that the woman divorced was not really divorced. He never made the argument that the husband in the second marriage was sleeping with another man’s wife. These are false suppositions forced into Jesus’ teaching by “indissoluble marriage” advocates, those who do not interpret all that Jesus said literally. While Jesus acknowledged God’s creative design for marriage (Matthew 19:4-6, 8b), He never denied the reality of divorce. I find no where in scripture where marriage is said to survive divorce. The claim itself is a self contradiction. When Jesus speaks to this issue He is specifically speaking to the premature termination of marriage and the consequence that causes for remarriage. Isn’t it better to interpret the biblical writers who speak to this issue congruously? Should we interpret Paul as contradicting Jesus? Should we interpret Jesus as contradicting Moses? The following is a congruous understanding of biblical history on this issue. When Moses conceded divorce to hardhearted men he did so for peace sake, just like Paul in 1 Cor.7:15. When Jesus made a reference to this fact (Matthew 19:8) He was not criticizing Moses (as claimed by some), He was actually being critical of hardheartedness that insisted on the right to put away their wives. Jesus’ following remark “but from the beginning it was not so” (8b) revealed to the Pharisees that divorce was foreign to God’s creative design for marriage (v.4-6). This masterfully exposed the calloused hearts of the Pharisees for wanting to divorce their wives for all kinds of subjective reasons and it revealed to them that they were transgressing God’s will for marriage by prematurely ending it. Divorce was therefore causing an inadvertent consequence for Israel not previously understood. In the sermon on the mount Jesus revealed to His covenant people that by divorcing their wives which were allowed to remarry (see Deut. 24:2), they were causing them to commit adultery (Matthew 5:32). Because marriage sets forth the responsibility of lifetime fidelity, divorce and remarriage inadvertently transgresses that obligation. In the Patriarchal society of Israel men were causing their former wives to commit adultery in this manner. Jesus revealed to them the consequences of prematurely ending a marriage. In the Patriarchal society of Israel, men who initiated divorce were the ones culpable of this adultery, “causeth her to commit adultery” (Matthew 5:32). Jesus never made an argument that divorce was not real. He always spoke of divorce and remarriage in it’s literal sense, never in a non-literal sense. This is a proper and contextual interpretation of Jesus’ teachings on divorce and remarriage. When Jesus is properly understood there is no difference in the outcome of divorce and remarriage in either Testament. The simple truth Jesus revealed to Israel was that obligations inherent in marriage are violated by divorce and remarriage. The catch 22 is that divorce and remarriage formed another husband wife relationship which transgressed in principle the exclusivity set forth by the first marriage, thereby causing the adultery in the manner Jesus described. Divorce and remarriage produced both a transgression and a transference of marital obligation. This is the dilemma it caused Israel then and the Church today. It is the very dilemma Jesus described. But the dilemma turns into an enigma when biblical precedents are dismissed. Or to put it another way, by believing this adultery occurs because the first marriage was not terminated.
@@philipbuckley759 Grace to you Philip The "relationship" you refer to is a marriage according to Jesus (Matthew 19:9 - shall marry another). Remarriage is NEVER called adultery in God's Word. You are following an interpreter, not the Bible. Jesus made the point to Israel that divorce causes remarriage to cause one to commit adultery. In context Jesus was referring to the Old Testament divorce concession they were allowed because of their hard hearts (Matthew 19:8). The Apostle Paul (in the New Testament) understood this when he instructed believers to yield to divorce for peace sake (1 Cor.7:15). So divorce is allowed in both the Old and New Testaments for peace sake. The view you follow claims Jesus abolished divorce but that is proven false when divorce exist in the New Testament. Once you accept the fact that your position depends heavily on false suppositions, maybe you can start understanding the historic context for Jesus' teaching. When Jesus spoke to this issue He was directly speaking to His covenant people Israel. He revealed to them what divorce caused for remarriage. His criticism focused on accommodating their hard hearts (Matthew 19:8). After remarriage a man was not allowed to remarry his ex-wife because he caused her to be defiled by releasing her (with the right of remarriage) to another (Deut.24:2,4). The defilement/adultery was the inadvertent consequence of allowing a marriage to end. Why? Because as Jesus revealed God had created marriage for life in the origin (the beginning / Matt. 19:8b). By accommodating their hard hearts hundreds of years later and allowing divorce (over against God's creative design for marriage) we can see that the second marriage transgresses the intrinsic obligation of exclusive faithfulness as design by God in the beginning. By creative design sexual intimacy is to be exclusive to husband and wife for life. Allowing a marriage to end (divorce) causes the second marriage to violate that exclusivity. Thus the adultery Jesus described and the defilement Moses revealed in verse 4 of Deuteronomy 24. Remarriage itself was not sinful and did not require repentance for being married. The point Jesus was making to those who ask Him about divorce for every cause (Matt. 19:3) was to help them understand that divorce was NOT inconsequential. There is a consequence for ending a marriage before death. It causes the intimacy God design solely for two to be transgressed when remarried. Jesus did not actually criticize remarriage, He criticized hard hearts who insisted on the right to put away their wives. The question the Pharisees ask Jesus trivialized marriage and thought of divorce as inconsequential. Thus Jesus reveal the consequence it caused them by not remaining married. If they had stayed married this manner of adultery would not have transpired. When you read Moses and Jesus congruous you will understand that this manner of adultery ensues because God graciously allowed remarriage (Deut. 24:2) after conceding divorce for peace sake. The actual focal point of Christ criticism centered around what hard hearts caused. Hope this helps. Blessings
May I ask, since you or your husband entered puberty, where hormones run wild, have never looked upon another with a bit of lust in your heart, even as a teenager? If you say no, that is a lie. Which means you, too, have committed adultery. Everyone in the human race, then, has committed adultery, according to those standards that Jesus gave us. So, then, why don't you get divorced in that case? I not trying to be snarky, but, to make you see or understand that Christ died to set us all free. Where is grace in this whole picture? We are still in the age of grace, correct? Being repentant and receiving forgiveness is not enough? Do you then advocate that millions of families with children divorce and break up? If you could, please respond. Remember, all have sinned and fallen short . I think this teaching is worthwhile in counseling a couple who is considering divorce. But to tell millions and millions to divorce is ludicrous. I am one of those. I have been remarried to a wonderful Christian man for 31 years. We were young in the Lord and truly did not understand. When a few years went by, we repented before God. How could divorce be an option now? That advocates being in sin again, doesnt it?
Please understand....no where in the bible does God tell two people living in what He calls 'adultery' to ever stay in their sin. Herod married Herodias and John the Baptist got his head chopped off for calling them out on their sin. John never said, "Herod, Herodias, just say you're sorry and stay in the very sin you are supposedly sorry for." Is there any sin that has a label change with time? Does lying stop being lying because we've lied for 50 years? Does stealing stop being stealing after 20 years? In the same way, what God calls 'adultery' is just that (Please read Ro7). And even if you've been married for 100 years, its still adultery. This is what I believe is pretty clear biblically, but because of so many people involved in this sin, it never gets preached today.
You are only using your emotions as you are not interested in doing what God has for you to do. Or course you are emotionally entangled with this man but you are living in adultery. Anyone who marries someone that has divorced commits adultery no matter how "nice" the new spouse may seem.
First, the Scriptures were not in english, everything is a translation. RUclips experts love to play semantics with periods, commas,. No ne can prove anything. RUclips just gives them an audience.
legalism right here. People God knows the hearts of everyone, he knows we are not perfect. Is divorce without consequence NO. Now I have talked to my Greek Priest's regarding this matter to great lengths... They always say the same thing "The heart of the law is MERCY" They know things we don't Placing bondage on someone isn't loving. It isn't merciful and its just wrong. This man bless him doesn't have love in mind when someone who has been cheated on repeatedly, beaten or abandoned Jesus said "you have had 5 Husbands" did they all die? I don't think so... Did our Lord tell her to go back to her first husband? NO he said Go and sin NO more!.. Let the word be written on your heart, The old testament permitted divorce and remarriage and the New testament explains that the un cleanness Moses talked about is immorality that's the reason to divorce. NOWHERE in the bible does it say you CANNOT remarry!!!. Our Lord said this is the consequence for divorcing without cause it is Adultery please love your neighbor God Bless
I had been in an adulterous union(marriage) to a man who was once married before me. He divorced her because she wasn't living up to his expectations. I met him years later, we had 2 children and married. His first wife Jenny is alive as far as I know. I got saved..he hated me and abused and cheated. I asked for a divorce, he filed for divorce. We are divorced and I have been single for years. I have held the position that I ought not to marry unless he dies, however, there are some who say because he was married before me that he was not my husband and that since I have repented of the adulterous union that I am free to marry. Repeatedly I have heard from multiple people that I am free to marry in this case. Please tell me what you see.
Jaime Harrington: HE WAS NEVER YOUR HUSBAND IN THE FIRST PLACE...HE WAS SOMEONE ELSE’S. YOU CAN MARRY BECAUSE YOU NEVER HAD A HUSBAND...YOU HAD THE HUSBAND OF SOMEONE ELSE.
Michael Chriswell.. Look him up... The departing first says no to Jesus.. They are dead!! That is why believer is not bound!!. You tie up heavy burden that you don't carry..
With respect, I have to strongly disagree with the case you make here. Christ knew billions of persons would read His words throughout the ages. To assume He would offer the exception clause under such an extremely narrow definition as you have offered makes little sense. When Christ says the only valid reason for divorce is fornication, adultery must be included in the broader term of fornication as it is immoral. Therefore, Christ is saying fornication (which adultery also is) is a valid reason to dissolve the covenant God requires between married persons. You're putting much into this that simply isn't there, nor would Christ expect persons to look where you have. He is simply stating that if your spouse takes up sexually with another (whenever that is!) that THEY broke the covenant and He allows you to move on. I'm believe you are a lover of truth. I am afraid your convoluted view is missing that mark here. You are not seeing the forest for the trees.
There are many things in scripture that need to be understood as it relates to the culture in which they lived. This view was held by a majority for quite some time so I am standing with that company along with many others who hold this view even today. The church continues, today, to allow culture to shape it. Many are even falling to homosexuality as being acceptable and the number of churches doing this is increasing. At a later time, this sort of exchange may just take place as it relates this issue of homosexuality. I hope not. We can agree to disagree in love, my friend. Blessings!
***** God's Word is clear that both divorce is allowed in the case of infidelity, and homosexuality is undesirable in His view. How you see the two directly connected is a mystery to me. The customs of the times can be enlightening to help understand God's Word, but cherry picking them to try and change the clear meaning of that Word is sadly, a fool's errand. I suspect you are happily married for many years. That is usually the lot of those with this viewpoint :). I appreciate your taking time to elaborate on your view of this, friend. I pray you always see God's will clearly. Blessings to you as well.
+caelachyt You are not agreeing with scripture. To be truthful, you nor I do not know why Jesus said fornication instead of adultery. You want it to mean adultery. But it does not say adultery. It says fornication. When you look at Luke 16:18 and Mark 10:11,12, there is no fornication. But it is clear what it is saying. But because you do not accept this clear meaning, you are going to interpret it to mean what you want it to mean. Do you agree that if there was no adultery in the marriage and a woman remarried and her 1st husband was still alive, she has the right to stay married to her 2nd husband?
+Darryck Forrest Sr I do not want it to mean adultery, nor did I say that. I said adultery is one kind of fornication so it must be included. That is irrefutable fact. I am agreeing with Scripture perfectly. Once a second marriage is entered into it must be adhered to until one or the other either dies or is unfaithful. It's a marriage.
Really, there is no reason for Christ to mention the exception unless it is actually an exception. Let's say a 20 yo woman marries. Her husband leaves her for another at age 24. Do you really think God expects her to stay alone for another 60-70 years without the comfort and companionship of a man? That's absurd! Use your common sense. God does. As Paul noted: "But since sexual immorality is occurring, each man should have sexual relations with his own wife, and each woman with her own husband." If Paul declared that a spouse was needed to avoid immorality, why would God expect this woman whose husband left to somehow manage going 70 years without being immoral? The husband FORCED her into adultery according to our Lord. The meaning couldn't be any plainer. Stop trying to complicate something that was so simply put.
You have good logic about whether the immorality happens before or after the divorce. It points out a big contradiction in the usual Protestant position. But you go onto enspouse the "bethrothal view" on the exception clause in Mathhew 5 and 19. Unfortunately thats view has been thoroughly demolished in its narrow view of the greek word "porneia" . Many a scholar have researched its ancient use and have concluded its a broad term on various sexual practises.. not limited to premartial sex. The easiest way to establish that is to look at how the Greek speaking Church Father Ireneaus uses the word "porneia" (translated fornication in our english translations) about the Samaritan woman at the well being married 5 times. He says by her many marriages she committed porneia. In our time the Scholar Richard Hays totally shows how porneia in Matthew is a general term. in other words it can refer to sex during bethrol with someone else and it can refer to extra marital sex or any kind. You argument has been demolished and its present in some older books and held by some preachers who learnt stuff prior. What i think you need to come to what your saying is to highlight that the "porneia" of the exception clause must be committed by the WOMAN. Nowhere does Jesus or others even remotely imply it applies to an exception if a MAN commits "porneia" . such a reading has NO scriptural authority. SO there is something strange being said there... different from our cultural post feminist way of looking at things. Using that in reference to premarital sex during the bethrothal period makes sense as the girl needed to have proof of her virginity and no proof was require or possible in the man. So the brethrol view already has the "double standard/sexist" happening. my own suggestion is that Jesus permitted a MAN to divorce a woman given to porneia both in bethrothal period and during marriage but if during the marriage period he should not remarry and neither should any guy remarry her. the man could live as a eunuch of the kingdom or his wife could repent and return to him. But i also think that since a remarried woman commits porneia in marrying and the man who marries a divorced woman commits adultery THEN a divorce can be made to break the adultery of the remarriage. AND the man can remarry (if he was only once married to the divorced woman) so that is also covered implicitly in the exception clauses in Mathew. all these situations the general use of the word PORNEIA covers
according to Pawson.....the porneia has to happen, before the separation.....thinking that if one separates, first then the reason, for the separation was not porneia....ergo, not valid....
@@philipbuckley759 David Pawson held to the " bethroval" view...arguing that the use of ""porneia" was limited to premarital sex with another man by the betrothed woman.
Yup it's sad but true, it says in the bible that some will accept this and some won't. We can't force people to believe this only the holy Spirit can convict people about this situation.
joe ryan..this is so hard to understanding. Unless we pray to God, in Jesus name to be blessed with a rewife...than we should not remarry unless our prayer in fully answered.
You have to understand binds/bonds/rings, and their rebinding capability to fully understand if remarriage is adultery. Marriage or Vow is believed to be singular, meaning only one is given to be used for the purposes of YOUR ONE AND ONLY LOVE. In order to re-marry, you would of had to have remained faithful during your 1st marriage, and only left your 1st marriage for the cause of betrayal, fornication (touching or tasting of another while married that beneath full sexual fulfillment being Adultery). Betrayal breaks the ring/bond enabling you to keep it for continued rebinding, and strengthening for added consecration. However, you would have to find another heart capable of rebinding, meaning one who has never been married, or those that have been betrayed within all their marriages as well, even those that have proved through their spouse dieing from their marriage(s) would as well have capability. So in essence as long as you kept/proved your 1st Vow being singular through them being unfaithful either through them touching or tasting upon another, or adultery, you would have proved, and kept your singular binding capability enabling you to rebind but only to those that have capability.
If you attempt to Marry one that does not have singular capability it will not bind, and you will not be in a solid bond. This is why Jesus states so too will the one that marries her, for she was put away by the hard beliefs of divorce that it's over, when in fact she is still in a solid bond that only breaks through declaration or betrayal. The ring only breaks through betrayal, meaning if you put your wife/husband away (divorce) you will cause the belief it's broken, and over, when in fact the ring only breaks through betrayal, fornication. Once you believe it's over by the hardness of divorce, and the beliefs it has upon you making you think the ring has broken, or the marriage is over it will do nothing more than keep you still sealed in the ring, and at some point you will encounter another heart which will touch/taste upon you/commit adultery. You always need to make sure you are sealing your singular trust to a capable heart, if not you will not BIND or form into a solid ring/bond/nest of the lovers/doves. If your attempting to seal with one that has not proved/kept their singular vow you will not enter into a solid marriage, hence so too will the one that marries her, for she lost her trust incapable of binding now.
Totally unbiblical teaching. If you can put them away during betrothed stage you can put them after. So a man is supposed to just be alone and lonely after knowing the fruits of marriage? Thats utterly rediculous. My ex was a cheating wife. She married her cheating lover. And now has two more kids with him. So im suppose to be alone and suffer for her SIN? HOGWASH!!! That isnt the word of God and that isnt the God I serve. He wouldnt wish for his children to be alone.
I am a believer and my wife and mother of my two children had two children before we met. Now when we got married, she had never been married before mind you, we had two children together. After 7 years of marriage, she decided that she no longer wanted to worship the same God that I served and she left me in the middle of the night. I tried for 2 years to resolve my marriage and she filed for divorce. After not getting to see my kids for 1 and 1/2 years, I finally pursued a legal solution and the only solution offered to me was a divorce. Now that I am divorced I have received custody of my children. I am dating a woman now and I do wish to get married to her. We are both believers and my now ex-wife has remarried. What do you propose that I do in my situation? I mean what say you to Corinthians 7:13-16. I mean there is a pretty clear message here and I do disagree with your stance here, but I am interested in hearing your take on this particular scripture. Especially the part that says, "the believer is no longer under bondage".
Sorry, I wrote this before the end of the video. I apologize. I now understand your stance on this. I don't necessarily agree with you, but I do understand where you are coming from and I appreciate what you are doing!
there is only one excuse for remarriage, a MAN NOT A WOMAN can remarry , only if the wife commits formication. all other leads to adultery, this is the feminism that has crept into the church, if you are abandoned, by a unbeliever does not mean your free to remarry...
Wrong. The Hebrew and Greek do not say "she was free to marry another man" -- It says *IF* she marries another. God isn't condoning adultery. The Greek Septuagint was written 1700+ years before the KJV, check it out yourself: ebible.org/eng-Brenton/DEU24.htm
The assumed "exception" is completely turned on its head by the carnal reasoning of the false church; thinking that the language is a means of dissolving a covenant marriage. The "fornication" that allows for a civil divorcement is a so called "marriage" that by it's nature is immoral, or a type of fornication. So then, if a woman civilly parts from her husband, then civilly "marries another", she has joined herself in a union that is 'fornication' by it's nature, and Jesus wants this woman to divorce herself from it. Why? because she already has a husband that is living, even though she "married another". To civilly marry a person, does not guarantee that you are not sinning, but rather, you must have the decree of God that you are "no longer two but one flesh" to be under the biblical definition of marriage. All 'marriages' that are not thus joined by God, are inherently 'fornication' and should be dissolved both through repentance, and by civil divorce as a means of publically renouncing the sin. All covenant spouse are both jointly and individually obligated to fulfill the commandment of God to live according to the 'law of love' toward all mankind, even an enemy. If a spouse has sinned, or is sinning, the law of love still applies which obligates us to pray for reconciliation and forgiveness with a heart full of mercy toward the offender. This does not mean to palliate the sin, or to treat it with indifference. On the contrary, bear a testimony against it without compromise, but see that the motive is love toward the one on the broad road. No reasonable parent would abandon a prodigal child, much less a spouse. Children are intended to be the fruits of a one flesh marriage, but the spouse is actually the 'one flesh' of the spouse. Children will leave their parents to marry, but death alone will part the husband and his one flesh spouse. Adultery is excluded as a means to obtain another spouse, since adultery is incidental to an existing covenant marriage. If one insists on sinning, they will lose their soul in the bargain, but the other spouse can remain in love and receive the reward of the inheritance for overcoming by faith. Take heed friends.
I totally disagree with your teachings. In Matthew 5:32 Jesus talked about a man who divorced his wife buy DIDN'T MARRY ANOTHER WOMAN. This is why the innocent party can't REMARRY. Both are still married to each other, there was not adultery. But in Matthew 19: 9 the man divorced his wife to marry another woman. Can the innocent part REMARRY? Jesus didn't say. To interpret this and say that you have to take back your wife/ husband when they finished having fun with their lover it is unfair and nowhere seeing in the scriptures. Yes you can REMARRY IF your other half is having extramarital relationships.
Good news bible 1st Chronthians 7:15. 15However, if the one who is not a believer wishes to leave the Christian partner, let it be so. In such cases the Christian partner, whether husband or wife, is free to act. God has called you to live in peace. What does this mean? Does believer Spouse after getting Devorce from a non believer spouse can Re-merry to a believer according to this verse 1st Chronthians 7:15. Could a believer spouse free to Act for Re-merry.
The fact that you address these issues on RUclips is simply righteous in Christ. My wife has remarried only 2 months after she divorced me. We have a 2 year old. My question... What does the Bible teaching about our child becoming 'unclean'? I take comfort in scripture. Any suggestion? My Christ continue to bless you and your family. Thank You.
dj2ndhand The "unclean" in 1Corinthians 7:14 is referring to familial sancitifcation not personal/spiritual...it just means that they are set apart for temporal blessing because one or both of the parents belongs to God. But, of course, this blessing also can lead to the salvation of the child and become personal/spiritual. You will always be their father - they remain set apart/holy because of you. I hope that helps. :-)
Look up the website www.rejoiceministries.org. This is the most encouraging and possibly accurate website I have found for those bravely standing for marriages!
Questions: Are desertion, adultery, and fornication the unpardonable sins now? Did Jesus then agree with one faction or the other of the Pharisees (one side said divorce only for fornication, the other side said divorce for any reason), thus creating a loophole to divorce and ok remarriage? Does forgive 70 times 7 not apply to married people who want to get out of their marriages? I need answers to these questions.
I am happy that you speak the truth. Don't worry about what people are saying. You can't argue about the truth and God word. We have to conform our lives to the word as belivers not the other way around. Thank you and God bless!
This topic is nothing but an Abbott and Costello's 'Who's On First' routine. Seriously. Now I understand why God gave us His grace. We are too busy being the new Pharisees. Whereas they worried about clean hands and healing ion the Sabbath, we are arguing over adultery and remarriage that is being entered into with repentance for the first sin. We are starting to make an algorithm of the bible. Peter was the same. He was never going to make a mistake and those that did were in a bad state. He knew all the answers and was one to point them out. Then, he sinned. He made the mistake.
But no one is saying it is not adultery. It is. So is lusting with your eyes. The issue is, does God forgive the divorce. If divorce is allowed, and not remarriage, then divorce should not be allowed. God would order us not to divorce period.
@@gaylechristensen6285 how many times does one have to address the same issue.....it is an argument from silence....because no reason is given for her situation.....
The issue of adultery is very gender-specific. Adultery is sexual relations with another man's WIFE. It is the woman who is commanded to remain single or be reconciled. It is the woman who is bound to her husband as long as he lives. While the man is commanded not to divorce his wife, nowhere does it state that a man cannot marry a never married lady. The only repercussion for a man who marries a never married lady is that he cannot be in a leadership position in church. If a woman leaves, a man can remarry. And if he lives in a country where he can marry more wives, he need not "remarry", he can just marry more. If a man leaves, a woman cannot remarry, but remain single or be reconciled. God himself stated that he gave David Saul's wives (because Saul was dead), when David took another man's wife (while the man was alive) all hell was let loose in heaven. So the rule about remaining unmarried or reconciled is for the female gender only. Note: I am female. I do not like the scripture's stand on gender-specific remarriage rules but we are called to be holy and not happy.
What do you do with these verses. The topic is so hard to understand. Jeremiah 3:8 KJVS [8] And I saw, when for all the causes whereby backsliding Israel committed adultery I had put her away, and given her a bill of divorce; yet her treacherous sister Judah feared not, but went and played the harlot also.
Abuse in Marriage people say there are gray areas what about abuse well the bible DOES talk about it! Why have we never seen this or our pastors talked about it? 1 Peter 2:18 Slaves, in reverent fear of God SUBMIT yourselves to your masters, not only to those who are good and considerate, but also to those who are HARSH. 19 For it is commendable if someone bears up under the PAIN OF UNJUST SUFFERING because they are conscious of God. 20 But how is it to your credit if you receive a beating for doing wrong and endure it? But if you suffer for doing good and you endure it, this is commendable before God. 21 TO THIS YOU WERE CALLED, BECAUSE CHIST SUFFERED FOR YOU, leaving you an example, that you should follow in his steps. 22 “He committed no sin, and no deceit was found in his mouth.”[e] 23 When they hurled their insults at him, he did not retaliate; when he suffered, he made no threats. Instead, he entrusted himself to him who judges justly. 24 “He himself bore our sins” in his body on the cross, so that we might die to sins and live for righteousness; “by his wounds you have been healed.” 25 For “you were like sheep going astray,”[f] but now you have returned to the Shepherd and Overseer of your souls. 1 Peter 3 New International Version (NIV) 3 WIVES, IN THE SAME WAY submit yourselves to your own husbands so that, if any of them do not believe the word, they may be won over without words by the behavior of their wives, 2 when they see the purity and reverence of your lives. 3 Your beauty should not come from outward adornment, such as elaborate hairstyles and the wearing of gold jewelry or fine clothes. 4 Rather, it should be that of your inner self, the unfading beauty of a gentle and quiet spirit, which is of great worth in God’s sight. 5 For this is the way the holy women of the past who put their hope in God used to adorn themselves. They submitted themselves to their own husbands, 6 like Sarah, who obeyed Abraham and called him her lord. You are her daughters if you do what is right and do not give way to fear. 7 Husbands, in the same way be considerate as you live with your wives, and treat them with respect as the weaker partner and as heirs with you of the gracious gift of life, so that nothing will hinder your prayers. 1 Peter 4:Living for God 4 Therefore, since Christ suffered in his body, arm yourselves also with the same attitude, because whoever suffers in the body is done with sin. God said you can separate but MUST REMAIN SINGLE OF BE RECONCILED!! 2 As a result, they do not live the rest of their earthly lives for evil human desires, but rather for the will of God.
I married a women that has been married before. But now we are divorced. So since I'm no longer living with her in adultery, can I remarry since according to this teaching she was not really my wife to begin with? And would she have to go back to her first husband? Thank you.....
Friend, in short, yes you are free to remarry, and yes she is commanded in 1Co7:11 to either remain unmarried or be reconciled to her first husband. Praise God that you have been delivered from adultery...both of you. God bless you!
***** Hey...what is going on here? remarry your former spouse? Deuteronomy 24:1-4 ESV / 64 helpful votes “When a man takes a wife and marries her, if then she finds no favor in his eyes because he has found some indecency in her, and he writes her a certificate of divorce and puts it in her hand and sends her out of his house, and she departs out of his house, and if she goes and becomes another man's wife, and the latter man hates her and writes her a certificate of divorce and puts it in her hand and sends her out of his house, or if the latter man dies, who took her to be his wife, then her former husband, who sent her away, may not take her again to be his wife, after she has been defiled, for that is an abomination before the Lord. And you shall not bring sin upon the land that the Lord your God is giving you for an inheritance. Is this not the same book (Deuteronomy) that is quoted from in this video to begin with? If you cant even reconcile with your former spouse after remarriage upon their death.....How is it you can do it while they are still alive?. If you cant give rock solid scriptural advice...DONT. Or at least qualify it by saying its your personal opinion, not a biblical opinion. The bible doesnt need to be dragged through the mud any more than it already is.
If you can't speak the truth in love, please DONT.....watch this video which addresses the issue before you make a judgment. Have no preconceived notions...but allow the Holy Spirit to teach you. MDR Question #3. Does Deut 24:1-4 Forbid The Return of a Former Spouse? and here's a short important message you will never hear preached in churches today. DIVORCE REMARRIAGE: Must We Repent of a Remarriage God Calls 'Adultery'?
***** While I agree with the teaching in your video I think you were far too hasty to claim that David Depesh was not speaking in love (basically you are claiming he was speaking in hate).
He does good up to 9:45 concerning the exception clause. That is the main and very important thing. He gets it concerning the exception clause being "non essential"; jumping off to a side point. What he says about original intention starting at about 14:00 is not completely correct. Yes, it is true that Jesus contradicts Dt 24:1 in Matt 5 and 19 by going back to original intention from Gen 2. That is different than what he says about not committing adultery in the heart. God's original intention by the ten commandments was that men were to not commit adultery in their hearts? No. They were not regenerated. God was touching on the main things., literal physical sexual adultery being one of them. The higher standard of not even committing it the heart is a NT thing accompanying regeneration. He should qualify that though the ECF were correct to forbid remarriage, they erred exceedingly by allowing "divorce/separation" for adultery in their misunderstanding of the exception clause. He spoke highly of the ECF without warning about their deception. Other than the few relatively minor points, he did a good job. The main thing being; he forbids all post marital divorces no matter why and the exception clause did not pertain to the post marital situation, which is why both the man and woman in that type of divorce are BOTH free to marry afterward as 5:31,32 and 19:9 reveal. Unless there is something hidden that we are not aware of, the video in and of itself is pretty good. I understand he at one time was allowing some remarried couples to stay in that condition and his wife was correct in disagreeing with him. Is that the same situation now or is there now unity between him and his wife? Or am I mistaken? Please someone straighten me out if necessary.
Matt 19:9 broken down into 5 parts: 1) And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, 2) except it be for fornication, 3) and shall marry another, 4) committeth adultery: 5) and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery. In Matt 19:9 we have two actions, 1) divorce, and then 3) marrying another. The second action, marrying another, naturally follows as a result of the first. An exception clause, 2), is placed between the two actions of 1 and 3. We then have the result, which is adultery 4), of a man doing the two actions, 1 and 3. Think of any two functional actions for 1 and 3 that will work in similar fashion, the second action being a natural and willful follow-up action after the first action; then include a negative result for 4. When an exception clause, 2) is inserted between the two actions, 1and 3, what you will see is that in EVERY case; what the exception clause allows means the final negative result, 4, does NOT occur. In Matt 19:9 above, if the man marries after the allowable divorce, that marriage is NOT adultery. The correct no-sex betrothal-divorce, exemplified in the Joseph-Mary scenario of Matt 1 fits perfectly. The man can indeed marry afterward and that is NOT adultery because the allowable exception-clause divorce only ends the equivalent of engagement. In Matt 5:31,32, the exception clause functions similarly; indicating that in the case of divorcing after the manner allowed by the exception clause, the woman is then NOT caused to commit adultery. Again, it fits perfectly with the correct no-sex betrothal-divorce, since the "husband" and "wife" in that kind of "divorce" are both eligible for marriage not ever having left and cleaved in marriage. They are both still single.
we need to instill in our kids that even if they marry the anti Christ, it is covenant if it is a first time marriage and can never be sin to be repented of #remarriageisadultery
Let us not forget Jesus nor the Bible gives there explicit blessing or permission to remarry except the spouse be dead!!! It is just that simple. You think 🤔 it’s going to matter how you feel about your new spouse or children on that day of judgment.Who do you love more Your new spouse or the one who has the power to cast you in to hell!!!
Most of the time when people lose a spouse they never get married again. I think most people today have lost the meaning of true love getting love mixed up with lust please and unto the eyes.
I have a question for you. How do you approach a situation were a couple of divorced people have met and married and are now Christians. Lets say they have 4 kids between them. Do you feel that they should split up in order to be true to scripture?
+David Depish Yes, they are still living in adultery, no matter if they have 15 children!... If they were having an affair and that affair produced 4 children , would they be found guilty of adultery, or not? They should split up, and yet still provide for those innocent children, if they want to be obedient to God/Jesus.
Mandy Groff no you should not separate for once saved always saved covers your sin .you should look into once saved always saved. Once you receive your free gift from god yoh can never lose it .neverrr no matter what you do Repenting of your so s is not the true gospel.
Ha, what a joke response. Jesus says *repent.* That means forsake. If you don't forsake an adulterous marriage by simply divorcing and stop having sex with one another, than you're not repenting from adultery. It's not complicated.
Note that the early church issue of no remarriage ever was based on Catholic teaching of permanence till death but even they brought in "annulment" in lieu of allowing Biblical divorce, which is a back door dishonest way of dealing with the issue. In Matthew 19 we see Jewish men divorcing their wives for no real reason, and Jesus brings us back to God's original plan for marriage but with a proviso in accordance with Deuteronomy 24.
Yup the Church of England was founded because Henry wanted a divorce and the Pope would not let him have one. So he set up his own religion that it coincided with Luther and the reformation is a bit weird. Many kings and queens of England and in europe were betrothed as sort of power marriages of convenience and many of them "put away" their spouses before the marriage and wars ensued.
what do you do if your wife left you? cuz she does not want to be married anymore? are you still under bondage or do you treat her like an unbeliever? (both being believers)
this treating people, as unbelievers....seems strange, because if that were the case, everyone would be an unbeliever....and even if that person were....it would not be an exception for divorce and remarriage....because the term is not under bondage, or not enslaved....which is different, from not being bound....
well with my first marriage when I was young and we had our children. My husband was on drugs but he took care of the bills and children and me if I was not working. I redicated my life back to Christ while we were married. And there was time was cheating. And after the kids was grown and I didn't know at that he was cheating. God told me to let him go. I didn't know why. I did what God told me and l let him go.I found out later he was cheating again. So I played for the divorce. Now 13 years later I've meet someone else. And he said God told him I was his wife we dated a short time. He was in church with me every time I went. We got married. I found out he have seizure s so he had a couple during I first year of marriage he lost some memory. But at the end of our first year I found out was married all ready 16 years ago. He said he don't remember marrying her. And he never lived with her. So now we are on situation.
Hmm....are you sure God told you to divorce your first husband and marry this second one. Did you pray for the spirit of discernment, cause we must always remember Satan is extremely skillful in the area of marriage.
Right on brother! The only thing that dissolves the marriage bond is death! What I (the LORD) have joined together, let no man put asunder. (only death, Ie. The Lord called one of spouse to him) get to terminate a covenant. Marriages are not contracts, there are blood covenants that last a lifetime
God have mercy! Repent and get out of adulterous relationships. Time is very very short. Jesus is coming very very soon for a church without spot or wrinkle! The bible is the standard! Any other opinion does not count! Friends eternity is too long to be wrong!!!
If Jesus meant ADULTERY when he said FORNICATION, he would not have used both words in one breath; and he did so to differentiate between two different situations. If ADULTERY was a free pass, biblically, to divorce and REMARRY, then people would, and perhaps are, running out and committing adultery to be freed from their covenant marriage. No one is given biblical permission to DIVORCE and REMARRY for the case of adultery.
I have seen too many couple who preached what is preach so often. Remarriage is a sinful life to be in. Then what happens? They get divorced and get remarried. The minute they though it could never enter their lives, it does. That an affair had been underneath everything for years. Just be careful who you listen to online. God's grace is greater than anything our sinful minds could every think of. Remember, the same guy making this video, is sinful and need God's grace just like i do. Christ gives us a personal relationship and we are to go to Him for everything, not a poster on the internet.
The issue is, is the divorce forgiven? If it is held against someone, then it has not been forgiven. How is it when you live with sin, it is forgiven?Do not portend your sin was an accident or unintentional. It was chosen. All sin is chosen. James says so. So how do you answer to that? How do you answer to your choice to sin? Your choice to sin is okay because it was a "one time deal" and mine is not okay because I remarried? And if you say your sins are not chosen, you are a liar.
You can say you have 1,000 sins valued at 1 point. You say I have one sin at 1,000 points. Where is the difference? You have not removed the tree from your eye and are busy telling others to take out the plank from theirs. It seems your point is not to witness to anyone but to give your own opinion. What do you say when God asked you about something you did wrong that you thought was right? How will you defend that? And polkas do;t say there are no errors in your life. I'm sure you are so smart that you will have that answer ready? What? That you did not know? No way. James says that we know when we sin all the time, So what is the excuse for your "little" sin?
Yes He did. He also told a man to sell, everything and give it all to the poor to be perfect and to another to remove the part of your body that causes you to sin. Did you do any of that? Or was it only for that person and not to apply to anyone else? You say my remarriage is continual sin? What is you excuse for your continual sin? Unless you've overcome sin and no linger sin. Sin in one commandment is sin in all. Have you stopped that sin that you chose to do? There is not such thing as unintentional sin, unless you claim to have Tourette's syndrome and cant help yourself. If grace is no excuse to sin (I believe that is true) then live without it and see how far the law will get you. You rely on it to sin also. Why else would you sin? If sin brought death on the spot, would you sin? Of course not. You honestly believe that your sins are not intentional? You cannot say you do not rely on grace to sin as you want, then condemn another that relies on grace to be saved. Why is it your sins are unintentional and forgiven, but others are continual and condemning.? Your telling me that your sins have stopped? if not, then it continual. Come on, be a man and have some accountability. Sin is sin.
Why then is divorce allowed if a person cannot remarry.????? This day and age people cannot afford to stay single. A household needs two people to pay bills.
@@maunder01 BUT GOD DIVORCED ISRAEL & Deut 24 says you can divorce…. NOPE! Jeremiah 3:1. THEYYYYYYYY Say, If a man put away his wife, and she go from him, and become another man's, shall he return unto her again? shall not that land be greatly polluted? but thou hast played the harlot with many lovers; YET YOU RETURN TO AGAIN, SAITH THE LORD. 2Lift up thine eyes unto the high places, and see where thou hast not been lien with. In the ways hast thou sat for them, as the Arabian in the wilderness; and thou hast polluted the land with thy whoredoms and with thy wickedness. 3Therefore the showers have been withholden, and there hath been no latter rain; and thou hadst a whore's forehead, thou refusedst to be ashamed. 4Wilt thou not from this time cry unto me, My father, thou art the guide of my youth? 5Will he reserve his anger for ever? will he keep it to the end? Behold, thou hast spoken and done evil things as thou couldest. Israel's and Judah's Unfaithfulness 6The LORD said also unto me in the days of Josiah the king, Hast thou seen that which backsliding Israel hath done? she is gone up upon every high mountain and under every green tree, and there hath played the harlot. 7And I said after she had done all these things, Turn thou unto me. But she returned not. And her treacherous sister Judah saw it. 8And I saw, when for all the causes whereby backsliding Israel committed adultery I had put her away, and given her a bill of divorce; yet her treacherous sister Judah feared not, but went and played the harlot also. 9And it came to pass through the lightness of her whoredom, that she defiled the land, and committed adultery with stones and with stocks. 10And yet for all this her treacherous sister Judah hath not turned unto me with her whole heart, but feignedly, saith the LORD. Invitation to Repentance 11And the LORD said unto me, The backsliding Israel hath justified herself more than treacherous Judah. 12Go and proclaim these words toward the north, and say, RETURN O BACKSLIDING ISRAEL, SAITH THE LORD; and I will not cause mine anger to fall upon you: for I am merciful, saith the LORD, and I will not keep anger for ever. 13Only acknowledge thine iniquity, that thou hast transgressed against the LORD thy God, and hast scattered thy ways to the strangers under every green tree, and ye have not obeyed my voice, saith the LORD. 14TURN, O BACKSLIDING CHILDREN, SAITH THE LORD, FOR I AM MARRIED UNTO YOU: and I will take you one of a city, and two of a family, and I will bring you to Zion:
@@maunder01 2 Why Divorce and Remarriage Is Adultery & Why We Can Not Remarry To Enter His Kingdom! 1 Corinthians 7:10 10 To the married I give this command (not I, but the LORD): A wife must not separate from her husband. 11 But if she does, she MUST REMAIN UNMARRIED OR else BE RECONCILED to her husband. And a husband must not divorce his wife. 1 Corinthians 7:39 “A wife is bound by law AS LONG AS HER HUSBAND LIVES; but if her husband dies, she is at liberty to be married to whom she wishes, only in the Lord.” Romans 7:2-3 3 So then if, WHILE HER HUSBAND LIVITH, she be MARRIED to another man, SHE SHALL BE CALLED AN ADULTERESS: but if her husband be dead, she is free from that law; so that she is no adulteress, though she be married to another man
Sorry but I really do not understand how the matthew 19:9 realy goes, so to simplify it does that mean if a person re-marries someone after the divorce means either or both parties still commits adultery.
Matthew 19.9 speaks of porneia....so good luck trying to understand this....but if your divorce is for this, then according to the argument you could remarry.....if not the one commits adultery, for a nonBiblical divorce, and the other commits adultery for having married a divorced person...
You actually made it more confusing for me. You are talking about "Marriage & Divorce" And you keep referring to a moral discrepancy or violation within the union as a "Fortification"Sex outside of marriage constitutes 'Fornication"; shouldent you be using the word "Adultery" ? In the versus you are quoting: Jesus called these "Adultery" not fornication. This is the most unclear spin about or on this topic I have ever heard, respectfully. You need to do the entire first 10 minutes over again man. It should be simple' perhaps I should ask: at what time can a person who divorces their spouse become married again without sin being incurred. Can you please answer that.
This is good stuff. Thank you. But what if people have already remarried? And what if your first marriage was to a woman who was divorced? I know that's adultery but can you remarry in that case?
yea if the first spouse was divorce you were in adultery and that was not truly your wife she belonged to another man. And as long as you were never married you are allowed to marry
So i've heard nothing about the guilty party. Can the cheater remarry? We know the innocent party is free to marry but what happens to the guilty, repented party? do they get a second chance? i'm asking for myself and for many couples i know, and never seem to have an answer for this. I just call them adulterers. but I never feel right about calling them that, I'm thinking there is forgiveness from God and He will extend His mercy and grace. I'm looking for an answer. Thank you Kindly.
you have a good presentation, yet you did not finish....what course of action would one have to take if they are divorced, and remarried....and does this adultery, by being remarried compromise their salvation....
the question is....why is looking on a woman, with lust, adultery, and not fornication.....a form of sexual immorality, as in this case the individual would not be married to that person....
This topic is prime example of the need for the authoritative church, the one that he mentioned that existed for 1500 years (which still exists today). That Church is the Catholic Church. Protestants, because of Sola Scriptura and to be non-Catholic, have no teaching on divorce and remarriage. Why? Because that will be Catholic. With Protestants, the authority to interpret the bible is in the individual. Tamara, this guy, is right. He just don't have the authority of a church. The Catholic church allows for annulment of an invalid marriage as if that marriage did not happen in the first place.
It didn't give them permission to change God's commandments. Taking away the Sabbath changing it to SUNday. Nor removing others and splitting the last.
My Ex-wife supposedly came to know the Lord, around the time we got married, but her actions never showed it. We separated 3 times, the 3rd time I refused to come home, so she wanted a divorce and I agreed and signed. Am I guilty? was she a Believer?
+DEROY CREWS Yes, u are guilty. U should not have agreed to divorce. Separation is allowed but not divorce. Try to reconcile with her. About she being a believer well I guess not because a true believer would not ask for divorce.
David321 I made a horrible choice by marrying her, it was not God's will, and now after she has fried her brain from doing Crack, she is suffering from depression, and the stuff that comes out of her mouth is totally demonic. I stay away from her, as much as I can. And I pray for her constantly.
They were among us, and went out from us! You will know a true believer by their fruit!! There is a difference between someone who accepts Jesus only as there savior and someone who truly accepts Jesus as their Lord. In my opinion she was not by her fruit that you described. You were married to her do you not know her heart?
Kayla Sobeck I always knew she wasn't a member of the House, so to speak, But I thought she wanted to grow. But I should have ran away and I didn't. It would have been better for everyone if I had run and got out of there back at the beginning.
+DEROY CREWS Sometimes we do things that we believe are good and well thought out intentions and they turn out to be in the long run not such a good thing. Been there and done that myself plenty! Always remember everything whether it be sinful or not, God uses it for His Glory! We learn and we grow if we allow God to do His great works within us. Always aligning scripture with our thoughts and plans is the crucial step we all must learn to apply if we want to Gods will and walk in righteousness. Love is blind sometimes, we mean well but not always means that it was right. I done this myself. Live and learn, growing in the Lord. We should all learn that trying to marry an unbeliever or even a believer when we are still spiritually babies is not a good idea. We all need to seek to be the godly husband or wife and person we should be first then seek a spouse. I did the opposite too!
Does this also count with 2 unbelievers ? I got separated from my ex husband came to the feet of Christ and remarried later on.. but I believe it doesn’t matter wether it was before Christ. Need some clarity..
@FrenchToast Stealer thank you so much for taking the time to reply! I wanted to just say that I was married to the first husband when I came to the feet of Jesus! I put my divorce in before I got baptized. Finalized it 3 months after I got babtized and later down the road God married to my 2nd husband who I have 2 children with. Thank you
@FrenchToast Stealer I was very specific in my first comment like I said I was an unbeliever for separated from my ex like I said in the first comment and came to feet of Christ. Separation did not meant divorce! I don’t want to give specifics as to why I got married to him in the first place, my daughter was 3 months and I wanted to marry him to fix he’s papers and I did. Divorce reason I wasn’t with him did not know the Lord because if I did I would have never divorced him before I gave my life to Christ!! I could write a long story here and try to explain myself but giving my life to Christ did not mean I knew Christ! I did not ! I wanted to get babtized I put in divorce papers before but a divorce doesn’t end just like that it takes time. I understand now I wasn’t supposed to get in divorced and I was giving the wrong advice.. I was confused did not know what to do. And the reason we where not together we had separated many times and Adultery. I don’t want to sound like I’m giving explanations but with my current husband I have a 3 year old and an 8 month. I’ve asked advise to the leadership again and basically I shouldn’t have divorced in the first place and it I knew Christ I would have known not to! Why would the lord want me to separate from my current husband and for me to take our children away from their Dad?? My ex husband has he’s relationship already. To me it makes no sense whatsoever but I will keep praying about this. Because it’s a subject honestly that has caused much burden but now I’m at peace with the Lord and don’t feel condemnation. Thank you God Bless you
@FrenchToast Stealer I appreciate it your advice, and honestly for taking the time to respond to me. I don’t want to be a stumbling rock for others as well. All I can say prayer and fasting i read the Lord reveals himself to others as far as they are in adultery I have a relationship with the Lord but I don’t remember having a revelation.. but I will leave this here about to get into prayer 🙏🏻 thank so much
If you were baptized [by full immersion in water] after coming to a belief in Christ, you should have remained single until the death of your first husband. "2 For the woman that hath a husband is bound by law to the husband while he liveth; but if the husband die, she is discharged from the law of the husband. 3 So then if, while the husband liveth, she be joined to another man, she shall be called an adulteress: but if the husband die, she is free from the law, so that she is no adulteress, though she be joined to another man". Romans 7:1-3 (ASV)
Matthew's writings were primarily to a Jewish audience. The exception clause is only found in Matthew 19:9. Mark and Luke never mention the exception clause because their audience was primarily to Gentiles. The word Fornication is not talking about Adultery. Galatians 5:19, dealing with the works of the Flesh, list Fornication and Adultery as two different words and meanings. The Bible teaches that while a man is betrothed to a woman, that if any one of them commits fornication you can put them away. Joseph and Mary went through the same thing but the Bible called it Fornication, not Adultery. Married couples don't commit fornication, it's called adultery.
I was married for 20 years and have been divorced for 7 years now because of my ex-wife's infidelity. We went through professional Christian Counseling through a Professional counseling firm. I wanted reconciliation, but she didn't want to do the things to repair the marriage so she asked for a divorce. I had no choice but to give it to her because she wanted out of the Marriage.
I tried dating 3 years after my divorce but no matter how I tried I could never enter into a relationship with a woman. God gave me the revelation in 2016/17 that remarriage was adultery and He was saving my soul from the pit of hell, that's why the relationships didn't work out. My ex-wife has been remarried 4 years now. I've forgiven her and understand that she is in an adulterous relationship. I now walk in the power and the grace of God that the Apostle Paul prayed for, that he himself would be kept from fornication. I'm Single, Saved, Sanctified and filled with the Holy Ghost. I shall remain single as long as my ex-wife is living. I pray she lives long because my prayer is that she repents and comes out of that adulterous marriage, not for me, but for her soul sake.
Ivory Perry III I actually got that revelation in September of 2015 and by November of that year I was separated from my second marriage and you know what's so crazy is that the whole time in the second marriage there was never any peace . Thank you Lord for your word
Oct 2000, Our soul is worth more than any marriage here on earth. If we only knew what Jesus has in store for His people if we would only endure to the end. Read Revelations 21. Thank God for revelation and wisdom. Blessings and Strength in the Holy Ghost!
Ivory Perry III. Extraordinary testimony.
Turbo James, Turbo James, Amen....To God be the Glory. Because without His grace (empowerment) where would I be?
Ralph Borroel, first thank you for your service. I'm a US Army Veteran (82nd Airborne). The answer is yes. When we repent with the right motive in our heart, the blood of Jesus Christ washes away our sins. The Baptism of the Holy Ghost is given to every man or woman that repents and calls upon the Name of the Lord. Divorce isn't the end of life as we know it. It's painful, and it takes time to heal, but with the help of the Lord you will heal. Seek the Lord and find out from Him what He has called you to do and God Speed on your Journey with Christ!
I pray that my wife comes home. I will love her and wait as commanded.
Amen brother! You keep following God's word and you will be just fine.
Me too brother! 😥🙏
May the Lord be with you guys and God bless you
Updatw ghinso1967
Same brother
Love this video! As we discuss this issue, we must deal with the idolatry of marriage. The usual reaction against this view is that one just *has* to remarry because they're just not complete without a spouse. This perceived impossibility of staying single reveals the idol we have made of having a spouse.
interesting, as I have never seen this type of response.....
Mark 10: 11 Jesus answered, “Anyone who divorces his wife and marries another woman commits adultery against her.
12 And if she divorces her husband and marries another man, she commits adultery.”
And if she divorced her husband against his will, can he re-marry?
skeetabomb ; NO!!!! Divorce and remarriage= adultery!!!!
@Hildafunk's World most of these people are insane. 1 cor 7 says if your divorced, remarriage is not sin, and a virgin may marry and it's not sin.
Hildafunk's World do you sin? Are you pure in Heart? Are you in total obedience? If not ya should strive a little harder, you have no idea how many people your condemning. My conscience is clear, people need forgiveness and Grace. What's done is done. Repent and move forward in obedience, but repent and divorce your 2nd marriage? Pure ignorance friend.
Ignore the pronouns. It makes women sound bound and not men. Change the pronouns to “person”
Romans 7: 2 for example, by law a married woman is bound to her husband as long as he is alive, but if her husband dies, she is released from the law that binds her to him.
3 So then, if she has sexual relations with another man while her husband is still alive, she is called an adulteress. But if her husband dies, she is released from that law and is not an adulteress if she marries another man
Thank you for ruining my home of 17 years!!!!
Byron Greene
Why do you say that
@@byrongreene8983 you dont want to be told, before judgement day, that you are living in sin.....what are the consequences, of that....at least now you can repent and be forgiven.....as that will not be the case, once again, on judgement day...
@@byrongreene8983 how are you going now?
The context of Romans 7 is the Mosaic Law, NOT marriage; this is simply a false proof text used by many. The correlation is such: just as the marriage bond is broken/dissolved by the death of one party, the death of Christ frees us from our previous obligation to practice the Mosaic Law (a wife cannot marry another without committing adultery, but if he is dead/legally divorced from, she is free to take on a new spouse; therefore in the same way in order for believers to be Christ bride & have new life, we cannot live by both law & grace, but one must die/be separated, divorced from)
a. He’s not saying death is the only way to dissolve the marriage (1 Cor. 7:10-15, 27-28)
3 yrs ago i had to make the most difficult decision in my life...i left the only man iv ever loved.when i met my x-fiance, i thought it was right in God's eyes to marry a divorced man.but God revealed the truth to me. it was devastating.but i didnt regret a thing.i knew God loved me so much that he saved me. . .
AMEN
This is what Christ said ...and what he told his disciples. If a man divorces his wife for another, the wife is put in a situation that would cause her to remarry again. Thus putting her and the new husband in sin. Christ basically is pointing out that there is no excuse for a man to put his wife away. But in 1 Cor. 7: 10,11 ... Paul is explaining that if the woman leaves, she is to remain unmarried or reconcile. By her remaining unmarried it will allow for a future reconciliation, but if she remarries there is no command for the husband to remain unmarried. What did Christ say in Matthew 19: 5, 6? ... And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh? Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder. Who was not to put asunder? Man. ...because it was man that had that authority, under the law of Moses. Not woman! Men was no longer given authority to put away their wives, as it was in the time of Moses and by his law. No matter if it was due to her displeasing him or because he wanted another woman. This is so very clear in scripture, yet so misunderstood. Remember back to the law of Moses, If a man put away his wife and she remarried and later was put away again or widowed ...was the original husband allowed to remarry her? No ...she was now considered "unclean". When properly translated, Luke 16:18 says ... "Any man who divorces his wife to marry another woman is committing adultery. Any man that marries a woman divorced, while her covenant husband is alive, is also committing adultery.
you are wrong about not being able to return to the first spouse. Churches are falsely teaching that. Look at rejoiceministries.org. Look under questions and answers. She can explain it a whole lot better than I can. That was an old testament teaching that was taken out of context. You are living in an adulteress marriage if you stay with the non-covenant spouse and not return to your first spouse.
@@miriamlister1188 in one can not reconcile, for whatever reason, one can remain single....
Thank you brother. I am a wife standing for 12 years
hi, Anna, can you clarify what you mean?
@@fibo12358 She is standing in the gap for her marriage, praying for the reconcillliation of her covenant marriage. She has forgiven her spouse and loves him and is trusting in God that he will restore. God bless you Anna.
Honor to God on your behalf. 12 years can seem like a long journey standing but you are proof it can be done ✅
@youreconfused 1 Corinthians 7 addresses this issue. A man is not to put away/divorce his wife. A wife is not to depart BUT IF SHE DOES she is to REMAIN UNMARRIED OR BE RECONCILED TO HER HUSBAND. There are times when a reconciliation is not possible (for whatever reason) and believers need to embrace this reality as painful as it might be. Some Christians teach there MUST be a reconciliation. That's not what Scripture teaches. The woman can stay departed.
2 Corinthians 5:17 that verse still calls them husband and wife though she departed and the husband must not put away his wife. No matter if the wife returns He must still always desire her to return and love His wife (Hosea). Ephesians 5:25-33 the mystery is marriage is a symbol of Christ and the church we are to role play Christ and the church to each other as spouse. Jesus will never leave or forsake His bride no matter what she does. The Gospel is the Good News of God. So marriage or any other statement can not be started with Good News... even from bad news then it’s likely not aligning with the Gospel. What words are God news unconditional love, forgiveness as Christ forgave us, mercy, reconciliation and prayer 🙏 Good News God so loved the world he gave His only begotten Son that whosoever shall believe in Him shall not perish but have ever lasting life. Give glory to God and serve Him.
Could not agree more! I believe that divorce and re-marriage is probably the most common false teaching in the church today.
I am one of MANY who fell victim to the heresy of divorce and remarriage being permissible. Eight years ago, I sought the counsel of my pastor about my failing marriage, and he lead me straight into the direction of divorce on account of my remaining in the marriage was not fair to my two young sons. Although my spouse was the one to eventually seek a divorce, I grieve almost every day over not doing more to save the marriage. My children had, for the most part, a happy home. They are a constant reminder of what I allowed; the divorce of our marriage. There is NEVER a shortage of tears, and regrets.
Praise God! I love this good news! I'm praying for my spouse too. I'll pray for you and your spouse also. I know with God all things are possible, and if it be his will, it will be done.
moonlite09 Praise God! Amen, May God bring restoration for you and your wife of Covenant. May God be glorified in Jesus name.
@@moonlite09 how did you become a christian?
There is no Exception clause in Matthew 19;1-12
This passage is Jesus' teaching in Matthew 5:31-32 combined with Mark 10:1-12
Thank you for pointing out the fact that "BOUND" is not the same as "BONDAGE".
But my understanding of Paul using the word "bondage" in 1Corinthians 7:15 is saying that although the unbeliever is sinning by divorcing their believing spouse, the believer is not in "bondage"; in sin, by letting them go, but that God has called us to peace. It is to assure that YES divorce is a SIN, but that the innocent believer is not IN SIN because their spouse is divorcing THEM.
Paul uses the word "bondage" several times in his writings to indicate the state of being in sin.
And therefore can remarry
As in modern times we have no objection to an engaged couple terminating their engagement for whatever reason, so the exception clause was simply identifying that same thing. In their culture they used the terms 'married', 'husband', and 'wife' to apply to their engaged (betrothed) state. Also, they used the word "divorce" or the term "put away" to identify a termination of their engagements.
So the exception is an interjected 'aside', referring to their special premarital divorces.
That is why we see an allowance for the man to 'marry another' after the divorce for fornication (Matt 19:9): because he is still single, just like in modern times when a man terminates an engagement.
That is why the "wife" so divorced can marry after the engagement-divorce (Matt 5:31,32): because she is also still single.
Amen good points
You can not compair our engagement to Jewish bethroal. Our engagement is nothing more than an intention to marry. While at that time when they were bethrothed they were married cause they maid there morally binding commitment. They entered the convant.. They had a moral and legal contract that was as binding as the marriage (it was a marriage). To commit fornication broke the agreement. If you look at today's marriages and weddings they are all performed together, the vows with the ceremony. Where as Jewish biblical times this was two parts....but today's engagement has nothing to do with Jewish bethroal...
thank brother many Christians r trying to twist the word to fulfill their fleshly desire. it's sad because they r trading a life of pleasure for eternity. thanks for posting.
God Changes the heart!!! It is not your spouse it is the spirits working through them Ephesians 6:10-20. If it is not what is of God it is not finished yet. You continue to speak out with your mouth and declare and decree that she is a proverbs 31 wife of noble character ECT... When it is hopeless praise God! When it looks impossible praise God! Because that is situation He wants to use for his Glory! Do NOT listen to people saying she has her free will and has to want to change!!! Did Jonah have his free will? He ran from God and look what happened! Did Saul have His free will? And who did he become? A new man from a murder to Pual the greatest apostle. Did pharo have his free will and God said HE hardened his heart for His glory! Did king Nebenekanezzar have His free will? And God made him like an animal for 7 years and then God gave him back his mind and he submitted to God! “God moved king Saul’s heart” in 1 Samuel 10:9 and the “valiant men whose heart God had touched” in 1 Sam 10:26. Deuteronomy2:30 God made Sinohn king of Heshbon spirit and heart change for his glory-“The Lord your God has made his spirit stubborn and his heart obstinate in order to give him into your hands, as He has now done.”
Jeremiah 24:7
'I will give them a heart to know Me, for I am the LORD; and they will be My people, and I will be their God, for they will return to Me with their whole heart.
Did not God move in in the nation of Israels hearts and put his spirit in them Ezekiel 36 and breath into the dead dry bones in Ezekiel 37? Didn't God move in King Cyrus's heart to let His people go? Ezra 1:5 The the family heads of Judah and Benjamin, and the priests and Levites-everyone whose heart God had moved!!- prepared to go up and build the house of the Lord in Jerusalem. Didn't Jesus come and bring Lazareth out of the grave when they said if you had of come sooner Jesus he would not have died...He is body is stinking now no hope!!! And THEN Jesus spoke life into him and brought the dead back to life! He is just looking for someone to have the faith to believe what is in the Bible. Will you?
Romans 7:1-3
Luke 16:17-18
Mark 10:2-12
Matthew 19:10-12
1 Corinthians 7:39
Malachi 2:16
Genesis 20:3
Hebrews 13:3-5
Matthew 19:4-8
Ephesians 5:22-33
1 Corinthians 7:1-2
Matthew 5:33
Matthew 19:9
Matthew 5:31-32
Brother you deliver a very well spoken and nice message! Prayer and blessings to you and your wife to continue speaking the truth! I am in a three-year plus stand for my marriage (involving our 2 early teenage girls in the unfortunate mess) and I am absolutely taking the eunuch approach to it until she decides to come back for God's glory! Until then and after I am going to sharpen my sword and stand beside you in spreading this truth that comes from Him!
Jesus said Matthew 5:28 But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart.
So, if you have looked at a woman lustfully, you have already committed adultery. You can't cherry pick verses that suit you and ignore others.
Libby Warren married woman
one has to read, and try to figure out what is being taught.....
My understanding of the "exception clause" is: If the bride was NOT A VIRGIN when the husband first took her to bed following the wedding, and he figures this out because she didn't bleed; hence the cloth to show to the family, HE CAN PUT THAT SEXUALLY IMMORAL WOMAN AWAY AND REMARRY. To have a virgin bride was a must.
How can they possibly know if they were a Virgin or not?! They couldn't tell that just on the basis of the girl not bleeding. I didn't bleed my first time and plenty of other girls don't. Your hymen can be broken by riding horses, playing sports or just on its own. That is proven medically.
Kayla Sobeck First of all, TMI....Second, women in those days, in that culture were highly unlikely to have been involved in such activities as you named, and perhaps they had other ways of knowing. Jesus said, "There is nothing covered, that shall not be revealed; and hid, that shall not be known." There may have been deception, unbeknownst to the husband, just as there is today. Let God be the judge.
+Mellomoon Haze
I would assume they would have more of chance of not bleeding and having it not intact by the culture they did live. Hard work, lifting, running at all like a child would do to play....
I would think they would have to have some sort of physical eye proof of not being a virgin like pregnant when they are engaged (betrothed) like Mary.
+Mellomoon Haze If we should "let God be the judge", then why are you passing judgement? Do you not know that you will be judged as you judge? If you judge with mercy, will not God Almighty show mercy to you? If you judge with condemnation, will God not also judge you with condemnation? These three remain: faith, hope, love... In every situation, many of which BTW are NOT clearly covered by scripture (which frustrates me, believe me!), what would be the most loving thing to do? What would bring hope to the hopeless? What would build up one's faith in Christ, instead of crushing hope and destroying faith?
Do you think Paul repented of all of his sin and thereafter never committed it again? "For I do not do the good I want, but the evil I do not want is what I keep on doing." - Rom 7:19 Does this mean Paul was also a habitual sinner, like us?
You must be feeling convicted, though I have not judged any one person; but a matter of fact has been stated.
Why in Matthew 5:31-32 does it only talk about the actually divorce papers once in verse 31? Going on it only uses the words divorce and send away which in Hebrew mean apaluo. What if divorce and send away actually mean sending the spouse away and not legally divorcing them. Therefore making that person commit adultery if they get remarried because they were never actually properly by law divorced? Men where doing this all the time during this time so they they didn’t have to pay the woman there dowry. So maybe just maybe our loving Jesus isn’t condemning people to hell for getting out of terrible marriages but simply saying to do it properly and go get the divorce papers. ( apastatio) in Hebrew which is a separate word than divorce and send away.
someone needs to do a word study to figure out exactly what is being said, here....
Marriage is for life you cant get out no matter what one spouse does to another
jay black yup
If the other spouse commits adultery... OR they leave... you're free to remarry.
Marek Sumguy not true marriage is still for life. Once married always married to a covenant spouse in God's eyes.
@@mareksumguy1887 only if you file, for the divorce...
@@mareksumguy1887 leaving is not a Biblical reason....the term is not under bondage, not....not bound.....and it is porneia....not adultery.....so figure out what that word really means...
At 6:25 he starts talking about the exception clause. His explanation goes to 9:45. He does a good job identifying that the key is found in that there were two kinds of divorces. The premarital and the post marital. A few apparently contradictory Biblical issues are resolved once it is realized there are two things involved. If there were only 1 kind of divorce then 5:31,32 and 19:9 are a complete convoluted contradictory mess as he reveals in the first part of the video. The fact that there existed two kinds of divorces; and that mid-stride the exception clause refers off to that OTHER kind, which does NOT cause the wife to commit adultery; makes perfect sense.
Here is an example of another similar sentence that does the same thing. The sentence starts off talking about tickets that cause insurance rates to go up, but the exception clause jumps off to refer to an entirely different kind of ticket that does NOT cause the rates to go up. The sentence has a reasonable flow of comprehension. In fact, this "non essential" function of the exception clause is the ONLY function the sentence format can accommodate for the exception clause. That by itself destroys the divorce for adultery explanation.
A) You have heard the rumor that getting tickets is of no concern with regard to your auto insurance cost
B) But I say to you
1) That whoever gets tickets,
2) Saving for jaywalking,
3) Causes their rates to go up,
4) And whoever uses your vehicle and gets a ticket causes the rates to go up
In a college town where the campus police are jaywalking hawks as well as very strict on moving violations, this would make perfect sense. Since the audience is familiar with that OTHER, different kind of ticket, which is commonly issued, the exception fits perfectly. As in the above parallel, Jesus' exception clause also jumps off to refer to a different kind of divorce.
Matt 5:31,32 broken down:
A) It hath been said, Whosoever shall put away his wife, let him give her a writing of divorcement:
B) But I say unto you,
1) That whosoever shall put away his wife,
2) saving for the cause of fornication, [that other divorce done premaritally]
3) causeth her to commit adultery:
4) and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.
I pray that my wife comes home.
God Changes the heart!!! It is not your spouse it is the spirits working through them Ephesians 6:10-20. If it is not what is of God it is not finished yet. You continue to speak out with your mouth and declare and decree that she is a proverbs 31 wife of noble character ECT... When it is hopeless praise God! When it looks impossible praise God! Because that is situation He wants to use for his Glory! Do NOT listen to people saying she has her free will and has to want to change!!! Did Jonah have his free will? He ran from God and look what happened! Did Saul have His free will? And who did he become? A new man from a murder to Pual the greatest apostle. Did pharo have his free will and God said HE hardened his heart for His glory! Did king Nebenekanezzar have His free will? And God made him like an animal for 7 years and then God gave him back his mind and he submitted to God! “God moved king Saul’s heart” in 1 Samuel 10:9 and the “valiant men whose heart God had touched” in 1 Sam 10:26. Deuteronomy2:30 God made Sinohn king of Heshbon spirit and heart change for his glory-“The Lord your God has made his spirit stubborn and his heart obstinate in order to give him into your hands, as He has now done.”
Jeremiah 24:7
'I will give them a heart to know Me, for I am the LORD; and they will be My people, and I will be their God, for they will return to Me with their whole heart.
Did not God move in in the nation of Israels hearts and put his spirit in them Ezekiel 36 and breath into the dead dry bones in Ezekiel 37? Didn't God move in King Cyrus's heart to let His people go? Ezra 1:5 The the family heads of Judah and Benjamin, and the priests and Levites-everyone whose heart God had moved!!- prepared to go up and build the house of the Lord in Jerusalem. Didn't Jesus come and bring Lazareth out of the grave when they said if you had of come sooner Jesus he would not have died...He is body is stinking now no hope!!! And THEN Jesus spoke life into him and brought the dead back to life! He is just looking for someone to have the faith to believe what is in the Bible. Will you?
Do we just ignore these scriptures???
1 Corinthians 7:27. Kjv...
Art thou bound unto a wife? seek not to be loosed. Art thou loosed from a wife? seek not a wife.7:28 But and if thou marry, thou hast not sinned; and if a virgin marry, she hath not sinned. Nevertheless such shall have trouble in the flesh: but I spare you.
Bound means Married
Loosed means Divorced..
Simple Truth...
Carol Richardson loose meaning not married not divorced the context is for single people. And I was shocked to see that basically almost all commentaries explain that as well
@@DENZ85081
The Word loosed in that particular scripture in the Greek is as follows..
Greek: λύω
Transliteration: luō
Pronunciation: loo'-o
Definition: A primary verb; to loosen (literally or figuratively): - break (up) destroy dissolve (un-) loose melt put off. Compare G4486 .
KJV Usage: loose (27x), break (5x), unloose (3x), destroy (2x), dissolve (2x), put off (1x), melt (1x), break up (1x), break down (1x).
Occurs: 46
In verses: 40.
This scripture is talking about married, divorced and virgins..
To those here that believe the Matthew divorce exception clause means adultery during a marriage: then if a divorce happened because of adultery (D is initiated by the adulterer), and adulterer "remarries" another person, then since this "remarriage" is adultery (right?), then for the adulterer to divorce from a "remarriage", this is biblical, right? -- since "remarriage" is also adultery (as long as original first-marriage spouses were both alive at the time of the "remarriage"). I don't see what the big deal is about divorcing from an *adulterous* "remarriage". It's following scripture, especially if you believe in the exception clause to mean/include adultery. Also in your exception clause passage, please remember that Jesus said "Moses allowed" (not God allows), and also don't forget what He said about hard hearts. Go back and read everywhere the Bible talks about hard hearts and hearts of stone. Not a good thing, i.e. something we would be wise to avoid and flee from (the initial divorce in the first place, that is). By this view (exception = adultery), you are promoting and widening the door for no-fault divorce because people (even pastors) will now extend this to other "exceptions", citing Bible verses. Dangerous territory.
Deut 24:1-4 - to those who love this passage, keep in mind it's about a very specific situation. How can you make a blanket generalization and make this passage apply every situation here in modern times? Sounds dangerous to me. Do you actually go back and read that passage for yourself, or do you just rely on what some preacher, teacher or Internet comment tells you? Have you researched what scholars think the Hebrew words for "something unclean" means? Do they know - beyond any doubt - exactly what that ancient Hebrew phase actually means?
I am glad that God reconciled us back to Him through Jesus, the bride, no matter how many layers of spiritual "adultery remarriage" (turning away, divorcing ourselves God, "remarrying" to sin, etc) that we commit in our lives. By the grace of God and only through Him, I follow that example of Jesus.
+Roxport Amen.. bless you dear one.
I got married in 1990. My wife had left her husband prior to that. She had been forced to marry him since she lived in a military dictatorship. And he was an officer.
We are still married but we do not live in an intimate relationship.
I know that God blessed our wedding and has blessed our marriage.
how do you know what did Jesus tell you about your marriage or are you just going on feelings
@@joeryan1481 the Bible is what we have to evaluate our actions......
@ Linkowski, Excellent teaching on this. I am in agreement with you. This teaching or preaching will cause many to hate you.
Pawson and Zac Pooen and many other teachers that do not believe in divorce and remarriage, dance around the truth when it comes to a someone already in an adulteress remarriage. At least all the teachings I have seen when that question comes up. They for whatever reason they are afraid whether it is to not lose members or speaking engagements, money whatever.
Thanks for the note...We have already been hated by some that we have shared this with. It is a subject that needs to be handled delicately, no doubt!
You are right....I have yet to hear a preacher say "It is not lawful for thee to have her" as John the Baptist said to Herod (who was already remarried).
pawson teaches you cannot remarry after divorce though doesnt he?
If you are divorced from a covenant marriage, then no, so long as your previous spouse is alive there is no remarriage. I believe this is his teaching. However, if you married, but not in a covenant marriage, such a marrying a divorced person who was in a previous covenant marriage, then I believe this is where Jer3 applies. You are doing nothing but turning from sin when you divorce from a noncovenant marriage, and I believe because of Jer3, you are free to remarry. I think this is what he teaches, but not exactly sure.
While in the beginning God's pattern for marriage was that it would be permanent but then sin entered the world and as we go into the old testament and even Jesus quoted that in the beginning it was God's design that it would be permanent but because of man's heart hardening people did get divorced. I am familiar with all the NT passages myself being a pastor of a church for many years and a Christian of 50 years this teacher does misquote some things e.g 1 Corinthians 7 where Paul has been asked a simple question which was asked by new Christians. They asked Paul if it was still ok to be married to an unbeliever or would God now want them to separate. Paul said no stay with it for the reasons that he explained. Sadly many preachers use this passage as an answer for all types of marriage and divorce situations but it can not be used in such a way. Here is not the time for a big teaching but nearly every video I watch on this teaching many even go on to say that if you got married again then you are an adulterer and the marriage should cease. Jesus was asked if a man can put away his wife for "any" reason, any being an important word here where Jesus goes on to refer to God's original intention before sin. Jesus said that adultery would allow a man or woman to divorce. We see King David commit adultery and God forgives him and we see many Christians divorce because sometimes people just don't get on with each other and the marriage fails. When two Christians separate it is a sinful deed just like any sin being no more or less than any sinful deed. When we are saved our sinful nature is changed and we have a new nature but we are still going to do at times a sinful deed and miss the mark because we are still in the flesh. God knows this and the bible says that when we miss the mark that God is faithful and just to forgive our sin and cleanse us from all unrighteousness. This is the one truth that ALL these preachers fail to comfort the saints with that God forgives and when he does we are free to move on and marry again. Many preachers just make these laws and many now live confused about what God thinks and many left violent marriages or marriages that were so horrific that they could not stay. Does God then punish you for the rest of your life and make you live alone when he knows that he meets every human need through your husband or wife. No, no ,no, God is a God who forgives and allows us to move on but many say no he doesn't forgive divorce. Well then God doesn't forgive any sinful deed then. No God forgives and if you are reading this looking for answers because you are remarried or divorced know that God didn't want you to fail but if you confess to God that you missed the mark ( sinned) he is faithful to forgive and don't let anyone tell you otherwise because God's word is the authority and God forgives. Take a quick look at Deuteronomy 24 : 1-4 and you will see that this video is false teaching and contradicts Gods word. Here you see that a person can not remarry someone once they have been married to someone else which shows how false this teacher is.
YES! if the first spouse is still living.
Hear Ye! Hear Ye!
Divorce is not permitted for dedicated and conscientious followers of the Lord Christ.
As he both forbids divorce...."What God has joined together let not man put asunder".
Along with remarriages.
"9 Therefore what God has joined together, let man not separate."
10 When they were in the house again, the disciples asked Jesus about this.
11 He answered, "Anyone who divorces his wife and marries another woman commits adultery against her. 12 And if she divorces her husband and marries another man, she commits adultery."
Mark 10:8-12 (ANIV)
Period!
"32 But the man" [or woman] "who commits adultery is an utter fool,
for he destroys himself.
33 He will be wounded and disgraced.
His shame will never be erased."
Prov 6:32-33 (NLT)
Greeting to you in the name of our Lord and Savior Jesus the Christ. I appreciate what you have to say. I believe in the permanency of marriage, as do you and your wife. I do have a question that has confused me for quite some time, and any input that you can give me would be greatly appreciated, so here goes my one and only brief question:
Matthew 5:28 King James Version (KJV)
28" But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart."
Why would this not be considered fornication instead of adultery? If you are not Biblically married (I realize that the Bible does not specify in this particular passage), how can just the lustful thought be considered adultery? I understand that the perpetrator, in a since, is taking mental possession (coveting), of that person just by lusting after them, however, for me the confusion lies in the fact that perhaps the person lusting, or the person lusted after, has never been married. I thought that adultery could only be attributed to a Biblically defined marriage? But it seems that just lusting, whether married or not, would be adultery. Why then, would not two people never married be considered committing adultery? Thank you. Your brother in Jesus. ~Shawn
The equivalent, if you are not married, would be "you have committed fornication." From the context it could have been Jesus was talking to married people at that instance.
Thank you for responding. I took into account your comment, but Matthew 5:28 does not say fornication. It is specific in using the word adultery. Also, there is no mention in this passage that Jesus was applying the word adultery (in this case), to the married. Somehow, coveting someone via a lustful manner, brings about an adulterous heart. I am trying not to read into this passage what is not there, which is why I may be having trouble understanding this.
+Shawn Statzer I am not God or Jesus. This is only what I think. This passage I think is primarily for men. The young man who lusts after a woman or a bunch of women will keep that lust in his heart. Even after he gets married. This is kind of a way of seeing the future. Look at Matt 5:32. It says that "causeth her to commit adultery". I do not think that if she does not remarry, she will commit adultery. But normally, when women are divorced, they look to remarry and when they do, they will have been forced to commit adultery. That is my thinking, I am not God.
+Darryck Forrest Sr I think that I was wrong about my answer above. In Matthew 5:27, it is understood that Jesus is talking about people who are married. So if you stay with this context, he is still talking about married people in 5:28. Therefore he is talking about committing adultery . Not fornication. This answer does not give the man who is not married an excuse for lusting after women(I can't say, I am not married, this doesn't apply to me, I can lust after women that are not married.). Because 2 Timothy 2:22 tells us to flee youthful lusts. There are other passages prohibiting lusting. I do not know if you understand, agree or disagree. This is what I think the Spirit has led me to understand this verse. I could be in error.
+Darryck Forrest Sr I said that Matt 5:27 was understood to mean married people, because I believe that there were people back then and today who were married and lusting after women and unmarried lusting after married women. Adultery = Married man having sex with a woman not his wife, and an unmarried man having sex with a married woman. Do I have to say that this also applies to women?
Joey P, Deut. 17:17 says that God did not intend for men to be storing up many wives, and wealth, but it seems the culture still took that convenience, and it sure caused alot of jealousy, lies, and heartache
*Excellent 100% correct in all points*
*Juleen Eyers “Remarriage while your original spouse is alive (if you were their original spouse) is adultery. Repentance requires STOPPING THE SIN and SINNING NO MORE - thus getting out of the adulterous remarriage. We would not say a homosexual marriage is okay if they continue to stay married, neither is an adulterous remarriage okay by staying in it.”
This is how God feels about divorce:
'And this is the second thing you do: You cover the altar of the Lord with tears, With weeping and crying; So He does not regard the offering anymore, Nor receive it with goodwill from your hands. Yet you say, “For what reason?” Because the Lord has been witness Between you and the wife of your youth, With whom you have dealt treacherously; Yet she is your companion And your wife by covenant. But did He not make them one, Having a remnant of the Spirit? And why one? He seeks godly offspring. Therefore take heed to your spirit, And let none deal treacherously with the wife of his youth. “For the Lord God of Israel says That He hates divorce, For it covers one’s garment with violence,” Says the Lord of hosts. “Therefore take heed to your spirit, That you do not deal treacherously.” You have wearied the Lord with your words; Yet you say, “In what way have we wearied Him? ” In that you say, “Everyone who does evil Is good in the sight of the Lord , And He delights in them,” Or, “Where is the God of justice?” '
Malachi 2:13-17 NKJV
Only the book of Matthew contains the "except for fornication" permission to divorce, as only the book of Matthew was specifically written for the Jews and the Jewish culture understood that this "fornication" meant sexual unfaithfulness in the betrothal/engagement period (not after the marriage was consummated by sexual union between the husband and wife). An example of this is shown where Joseph wanted to DIVORCE the mother of Jesus, Mary, before they had consummated their marriage as it appeared that she had been unfaithful as she was pregnant prior to having sex with Joseph.
"Now the birth of Jesus Christ was on this wise: When as his mother Mary was espoused to Joseph, before they came together (sexually), she was found with child of the Holy Ghost. Then Joseph her husband, being a just man, and not willing to make her a publick example, was minded to put her away privily. But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost. And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins. Now all this was done, that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the prophet, saying, Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us. Then Joseph being raised from sleep did as the angel of the Lord had bidden him, and took unto him his wife: And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS." - Matthew 1:18-25 KJV
(Jesus speaking) "It hath been said, Whosoever shall put away his wife, let him give her a writing of divorcement: But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication (the Greek word "porneia"), causeth her to commit adultery (the Greek word "moicheia") and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery." - Matthew 5:31-32 KJV
(Jesus speaking) "I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery." - Matthew 19:9 KJV
Note no fornication clause in the rest of the gospels, because it was specifically written to the gentiles which did not have the strict betrothal customs like the Jews:
(Jesus speaking) "Whosoever putteth away his wife, and marrieth another, committeth adultery: and whosoever marrieth her that is put away from her husband committeth adultery." - Luke 16:18 KJV
(Jesus speaking) "And he saith unto them, Whosoever shall put away his wife, and marry another, committeth adultery against her. And if a woman shall put away her husband, and be married to another, she committeth adultery." - Mark 10:11-12 KJV
The ONLY permission for remarriage is the death of the original spouse:
(Paul speaking) "For the woman which hath an husband is bound by the law to her husband so long as he liveth; but if the husband be dead, she is loosed from the law of her husband. So then if, while her husband liveth, she be married to another man, she shall be called an adulteress: but if her husband be dead, she is free from that law; so that she is no adulteress, though she be married to another man." - Romans 7:2-3 KJV
Lastly, abandonment by a spouse does not allow remarriage to another. You must either reconcile or stay unmarried.
(Paul speaking) "And unto the married I command, yet not I, but the Lord, Let not the wife depart from her husband: But and if she depart, let her remain unmarried, or be reconciled to her husband: and let not the husband put away his wife. But to the rest speak I, not the Lord: If any brother hath a wife that believeth not, and she be pleased to dwell with him, let him not put her away. And the woman which hath an husband that believeth not, and if he be pleased to dwell with her, let her not leave him. For the unbelieving husband is sanctified by the wife, and the unbelieving wife is sanctified by the husband: else were your children unclean; but now are they holy. But if the unbelieving depart, let him depart. A brother or a sister is not under bondage (to perform the marital duties - this does not allow remarriage) in such cases: but God hath called us to peace. For what knowest thou, O wife, whether thou shalt save thy husband? or how knowest thou, O man, whether thou shalt save thy wife?" - 1 Corinthians 7:10-16 KJV
John the Baptist took the divorce and remarriage adultery so serious, that he lost his head over it via decapitation by Herod:
But when Herod heard, he said, “This is John, whom I beheaded; he has been raised from the dead!” For Herod himself had sent and laid hold of John, and bound him in prison for the sake of Herodias, his brother Philip’s wife; for he had married her. Because John had said to Herod, “It is not lawful for you to have your brother’s wife.” - Mark 6:16-18 NKJV
Of all the laws in the Old Testament, Paul emphasized only four - and abstaining from sexual immorality (which is what remarriage is while your original spouse is alive) is one of them:
(Paul speaking) "For it seemed good to the Holy Spirit, and to us, to lay upon you no greater burden than these necessary things: that you abstain from things offered to idols, from blood, from things strangled, and from sexual immorality. If you keep yourselves from these, you will do well. Farewell." - Acts 15:28-29 NKJV
Having children in an adulterous remarriage does not make it any less important to exit that adulterous remarriage as shown in Ezra 10 where they the people had to repent (stop being a part of) unlawful marriages, some of which resulted in offspring ("All these had taken pagan wives, and some of them had wives by whom they had children."
Ezra 10:44 NKJV).
Staying in an adulterous remarriage can take you to hell:
(Paul speaking) Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor ADULTERERS, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind, Nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners, shall inherit the kingdom of God. And such WERE (note, they did not stay in their sinful acts as repentance requires STOPPING THE SIN) some of you: but ye are washed, but ye are sanctified, but ye are justified in the name of the Lord Jesus, and by the Spirit of our God. - 1 Corinthians 6:9-11 KJV
I don't care to get married my husband left because he choose porn and I had a father so I look at God as my husband his all I need.
J. B. . i know that a husband is a provider of a family but God is our Father and our provider and we are his children.
My husband belongs to the devil he gave up everything we had to get involved with porn and street woman.
Our Divorce is finale this month we have not spoken since he left to be with prostitudes
Very sad 😥 Continue to pray for his repentance. In the meantime, Jesus makes a much better companion that anyone on the face of the earth. I am happily remaining unmarried, praying for my x to come to repentance. God's peace and blessings to you.
In my view to presume porneia in the NT refers to betrothal sexual infidelity is a much too restrictive application of the word. If the Greek porneia (unchastity, immorality, fornication) in the NT is equivalent to the Hebrew zanah (harlotry, whoredom) in the OT as the Septuagint translation indicates; it implies more than just a minor or even major sexual indiscretion, but a 'spirit of harlotry', whoredom, unrepentant promiscuousness, a continuos way of life and character that makes continuation of a marriage impossible, however loving, Christlike, and forgiving a partner may be. Also, of all 25 times in the NASB that porneia is translated, only in a handful of the contexts could it be implied that betrothal sexual infidelity was a possible intended meaning of the author.
Do you believe remarriage is biblical?
@@maunder01 The three explicit and conclusive truths that are consistently revealed throughout the New Testament are: (1) To marry another after divorce is adultery (2) To divorce a spouse for a reason other than fornication is adultery (3) To marry another after a husband or wife has died is not adultery.
THANK YOU, THANK YOU,THANK YOU....
You are helping so many escape He'll in the Future if they repent. I am in the midst of repenting from an adulterous remarriage. Thank you for helping tell the truth, many Pastors refuse to do the right thing and will be judged.
Karen McFeron
that's tough but you're doing the right thing
Wow God bless you!! You will be rewarded in heaven for loving God's truth more than this life!!!
"But in the beginning it was not so"...
"Except it be for fornication" means the woman has already been deflowered, and it was discovered on the wedding night, and this is the only grounds for "putting away your wife".... which begs the question: How many of us are truly married in the sight of Yahweh?... Most of us define marriage with a gentile, pagan bias ; two people, agreeing to love each other exclusively ; man gives women a ring, woman gives man a ring... "Awwwww... However, Yahweh is blasphemed by this "sun god " symbolistic, circle on the finger exchange... Yes, our societies' values are pagan-gentile, we do not know, and are not known by the TRICE HOLY GOD... ( Amos, 3:2 ) To Isreal… "You only have I known of all the families of the earth...." So the exchanging of vows by just any two individuals, in any pagan society, guarantees no union before Yahweh's eyes, unless His ways are exemplified, and Glorified.... In fact, no covenant by man is justified before the TRICE HOLY YAHWEH, without there being the clear display of His wrath against sin.... "Justice and judgement are the habitation of thy throne." Psalms 89 :14 … His presence before sinful man demands either man's death, or a substitute, to symbolize man's "deserved" death, if there is to be reconciliation ... Again, THE SHEDDING OF JUST OR INNOCENT BLOOD MUST SYMBOLIZE, THROUGH DEATH SUBTITUTION, THAT THE SINFUL MAN DESERVES DEATH, BEFORE THERE IS JUSTIFICATION OF HOLY UNION ; This is the messianic type... And the first and second Adam both bore out this symbolism, PRIOR TO THEM BEING GIVEN A WIFE …
The woman came from the man, his rib (innocent blood being released prior), produced his wife, Eve... She was made to cleave (sexually unite as one flesh) to the man, who was made in the image of Yahweh.... Yahweh therefore, subsequently designed every woman from birth, with the mechanism to effectuate the intent to glorify Himself in judgement and justice ( messianic symbolism ; Yeshuah to produce his wife)..... Therefore it is said, "what Yahweh hath put together, let no man put asunder "...... The rupturing of the woman's innocent, untouched hymen, by the man ( the shedding of it's blood ), symbolizes the act of Yahweh pouring out His wrath, personifying Himself, and His demand for Holiness : He is demonstrating, through this consummation, the messianic type, the first and second Adam both bore out PRIOR TO THEM BEING GIVEN A WIFE..... And also illustrating that the both parties, deserve, since the fall, death ; by the presence of this innocent blood.... This is the creating of true covenant, with the messianic message on display.... ( A WIFE, from INNOCENT blood )…. Yahweh's Holy union in demonstration.. ( messianic symbolism, justice and judgement ).... So too, in the case of a widow or widower ; the death of the spouse, justified in Holy union, demonstrates the flow of the wrath of Yahweh against the innocent, again, to justify reunion by either.... Therefore the widow is justified to "remarry".. and vice versa...… For fallen man, there must be an awareness, through shedding of blood , death of the innocent substitute symbolism, of the judgement of his wickedness, before there is justification ..... Yahweh is always glorified in justice and judgement before Holy union or reunion... "Justice and judgement are the habitation ( BASE ) of thy throne." Psalms 89 :14..... This is Yahweh's signature, demonstrating His Holiness as Alpha and Omega. ( first and last Adam symbolism ).... So the shedding of innocent blood clearly is covenantal... A wife ( the church ) is produced.... ( all messianic, even down to the heart of messiah ; that the man be instructed to love his wife like messiah loves His wife, the church ) Make no mistake, even down to the deep sleep that Yahweh placed upon the first Adam, is a type of Yeshuah ( the second Adam ), dying... So wise and prophetic is our God, Yahweh.... to glorify Himself, in the image of Himself, Adam....
Therefore the fist woman you deflower is your wife for ever, by Holy ritual, because the Holy covenant established at the point of this sexual union, provides the only just basis for continual sexual union (repeated sex), in the same chasm.... If the woman is deflowered by object, the first male to enter the garnished chasm, is justified by default .... and if you marry a deflowered woman, her deflowerer or husband, better be dead ( making her eligible for new covenant ), or you are committing adultery... Only in this context, do Yeshuah's words make sense.. Matthew 19 : 3-12. "except it be for fornication".... meaning, she was already deflowered, and hence, in holy union with another, and he discovered it.. No blood ( messianic typing established prior to him ).. Therefore she just committed adultery, being already in Holy union, having FORNICATED PREVIOUSLY, lustfully... She's someone else's husband."... Therefore the man can put her away to be stoned. ( for committing adultery) ( Deut. 22:13-19 )…... Interesting to note, that Joseph was willing to put Mary away privately, when he discovered she had already been touched, and pregnant... He knew, her perceived fornication was grounds for her dismissal...
Those with reverence for Yahweh are instructed to deem anything other than the scriptural, spiritual, innocent blood based concept of marriage, just described, as pagan ritualism ; corrupt ceremony sanctioned by pagan society....... So this includes a man marrying a deflowered woman, once her deflowerer is alive (No messianic symbolism)... It includes a woman marrying a woman (No messianic symbolism) ...… It includes a man marrying a man (No messianic symbolism)...... It includes a woman marrying a horse (No messianic symbolism)..... It includes a man marrying a dog (also, No messianic symbolism)....... None of these forms of fornication, except the " MAN - WOMAN - BLEEDING HYMEN PARADIGM " magnify or represent the purpose, or the prophetic messianic type, of the Alpha and Omega - Yahweh Yeshua Elohim, the exhalted sovereign, who inhabits eternity in the high and Holy place, between the cherubim........ He alone, who made Adam in His own image, and is Trice Holy, is separate from other gods.... He alone is glorified in justice and judgement, in heaven and earth...... And He alone, and this his standard, are hated today, only because we all love, and are guided by our pagan - gentile conditioning, to embrace fleshly "lusts"......…...Peace.
And this contradicts the adultery that Israel committed and was divorced for...
Also not every woman bleeds either at "deflowering".
I don't know how God can initiate a marriage that he calls adultery Larz
evidently he does not....if one is not qualified to be married, that is why it is called adultery...
This is what the Holy spirit has shown me in the past few months he did a very clear case for what the bible teaches, Its amazing everything i came to believe this guy confirmed I believe my wife cheated and i want to leave and someday remarry but iam stuck but if its Gods will then i stay THANK YOU PASTOR
You’re not stuck you have an opportunity to show the same love and forgiveness you have been given by Jesus Christ. I sympathize there is no greater pain than betrayal but with God all things are possible. Prayers
Amen MMAGUY
I do not think that remarriage is always adultery, but I can respect your religious beliefs.
the reference point is the Bible....or at least what one thinks the Bible is teaching...
What do you believe?
Remarriage is always adultery if your covenant spouse is living 1 Corinthians 7:39.
The exception clause was Jewish specific for a time when the Jews were still under the their Jewish/Mosaic law.
Matthew was writing to a Jewish audience. It was this very audience who received the prophesy of the coming Messiah’s birth. It was this very audience who would understand the Jewish betrothal system of the Mosaic law as mentioned in Matthew 1:19, which describes the same situation Jesus excuses in 19:9 and 5:32.
But Christ “abolished” the Old Law, making it “obsolete.” (Eph. 2:15; Heb. 8:13). Therefore, the exception clause, like the Old Law, with all its obligations, are done away with. The exception clause simply does not apply to Christians.
So when Abraham, Isaac, David and Jacob took more than one wife for themselves, they were committing adultery? If so,are they in hell today?
Good question.
Joey Pate good question!
PLEASE DO A VIDEO ON THIS!
No, because they weren't putting away wives to take more wives. Polygamy was sin, but it wasn't adultery if the men did not put away their wives.
@@playzfahdayz so where do polygamists go when they die?
Acts 17.30 30And the times of this ignorance God winked at; but now commandeth all men every where to repent.....
Why I disagree with Craig and Tamara Linkowski about those who are remarried revolves around the fact that both Jesus and Paul can be and should be understood in a congruous manner with Moses and the Old Testament. In other words nothing Jesus or Paul said should be understood as a contradiction with Old Testament precedents. Craig and Tamara have accepted false suppositions as truth. They have taken these suppositions to there logical conclusions but they don’t realize the difference in what Jesus actually said verses the Teachers that helped them form their beliefs. The following is for the purpose of differentiation.
What does it mean to take Jesus literally when He speaks to the issue of divorce and remarriage?
* Did Jesus mean divorce when He said divorce.
* How about remarriage? Should we understand Jesus as not being literal when He said “marry another?”
* Did Jesus conclude that adultery follows divorce and remarriage but he didn’t literally mean divorce and remarriage?
* Should we understand the ensuing adultery literally but the divorce and remarriage that preceded it non-literally?
Is this line of thinking confusing and might the confusion be because an interpreter has chosen to interpret some of what Jesus said literally and some non-literally?
Throughout Church history Jesus’ teaching about divorce and remarriage was hard to understand for most individuals because they were associating ADULTERY with an intact marriage. In other words adultery was understood as being unfaithful to whom one is married. This definition creates a box from which most have not thought outside of. Therefore (for them) Jesus could not have meant that adultery occurs in the manner He described. But the truth is, it can.
* Could Jesus have literally meant everything He said? Can adultery occur exactly how He described it?
* Must we believe there is only one way to commit adultery?
The most prevalent problem for bible expositors (past and present) on this issue has been the paradox of explaining the adultery. That’s because most interpreters can’t understand how adultery can be literal if the divorce was literal. Explaining the adultery has produced a variety of hotly contentious views. Some of these views seek to explain away the adultery, while others seek to explain away the divorce and second marriage. There are those who interpret divorce and remarriage non-literally and there are those who interpret the adultery as non-literal.
For instance, David Servant takes the same (or similar) view as Dr. Craig Keener in their RUclips videos. Craig believes Jesus was being hyperbolic when He spoke of the adultery that followed divorce and remarriage. In other words the adultery is not to be understood literally, while the divorce and remarriage should. David Servant in like manner says that divorce and remarriage “is like adultery” but falls short of describing it as adultery. Both take a non-literal approach for the adultery while seeing divorce and remarriage as literal. This interpretation is not as detrimental to marriage and families as those who interpret the divorce and second marriage non-literally.
Conversely individuals such as Stephen Wilcox and Dr. Joseph Webb interpret the adultery as literal but the divorce and second marriage non-literally. This way of interpreting Jesus for these guys means that divorce does not actually mean divorce nor does remarriage mean marriage. Here are a couple of propositional statements that both men affirm,
* “Marriage survives remarriage and precludes it”
* “A marriage is for life. No matter what a spouse turns out to be, or how they may act, what they do or don’t do, or the sins they commit, the covenant remains fully in effect. A remarriage while a former spouse lives is not marriage at all, but sinful adultery. God does not divide the one flesh relationship except by physical death”
For context sake remember both statements are in reference to the issue of divorce and remarriage. Preclude means to prevent so they believe that the first marriage actually prevents a second marriage and that the first marriage doesn’t end at divorce. Therefore divorce and remarriage is not being interpreted literally. This interpretation mentally dismisses the very events that causes one to commit adultery this way. Mentally dismissing part of what Jesus said isn’t going to get you to truth. You can clearly see that the idea of “indissoluble marriage” creates self-contradicting statements. These statements actually invert words in which Jesus spoke to this issue. It creates an argument in the mind that was never set forth by Jesus. This way of interpreting Jesus does not mean that adultery is committed by two preceding factors, it actually eliminates those factors. They end up describing the adultery as if there was no divorce or second marriage. There is ample evidence from these men’s teachings that they purposely convey that this adultery is caused by not being divorced (from the original spouse). Therefore “indissoluble marriage” is forged into Jesus’ teaching by not taking divorce and remarriage literally. Consequently adultery does not ensue from divorce and remarriage (as described by Jesus), it occurs within the first marriage (as interpreted by Stephen and Joseph). See the difference?
What is taken as literal and non-literal by David and Craig is reversed by Stephen and Joseph. They all have a issue with understanding all the factors as literal. For instance, Mensajes para el Remanente (Pastor Carlos), one who addressed me and said,
“I, and the entire History of 2000 years of Christianity, take the words of Jesus literally and at face value. Your (False) premise, in my estimation, is that you believe Jesus did not literally mean what He said but the opposite in : "whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery." (Matt. 5:32)”
Carlos who supports Stephen and Joseph interpretation makes a fundamental mistake about my “premise” in regard to Matthew 5:32. I take everything Jesus said there literally and at face value. This is why I disagree with all five men. Understanding all the factors given by Jesus literally and at face value means for me that the divorce was effective, the remarriage was effective and that adultery resulted as a consequence. Taking everything literally and at face value means that the adultery that ensued occurs because the first marriage ended and another one was constituted. This is a different way of committing adultery than those who believe the first marriage is still intact (indissoluble marriage).
Continued in the comment thread.
Carlos makes the following observation by believing “indissoluble marriage.” Notice how he attributes to Jesus what he believes personally. Notice also that a non-literal interpretation of “divorce” and “marry” creates self-contradicting statements in what he is saying. Carlos writes,
“What is significant about adultery in remarriage? When Jesus said, "whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery" (Matt. 5:32; Matt. 19:9) He said something significant that I did not see for a long time. When Jesus made that statement, He was stating that divorce does not end the first marriage. People have always assumed that divorce ends the first marriage, but Jesus said that it is not true. The sin of adultery can only occur if one or both of the persons involved is married. If neither of the persons are married the term adultery cannot be used. When Jesus said that "whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery", He was stating that when a man marries a divorced woman he is living with another man's wife and therefore is guilty of adultery. Divorce does not make a man or a woman single again. Divorce does not end a person's first marriage. That is why a person commits adultery when they marry and live with a divorced person. Do you get the significance of Jesus' use of the word adultery? Adultery could not occur in remarriage if divorce ended the first marriage. Adultery can only occur in remarriage because the divorced spouse is still married to their first marriage partner in Jesus' judgment. (Jesus is the Judge we will stand before, for our hearing on Judgment Day and it is important that we understand our Judge's reasoning and logic if we want to enter Heaven.) The significance of the sin of adultery in remarriage is that divorce does not end a person's first marriage!”
Does this argumentation sound familiar to what I have pointed out?
Notice what Carlos said,
* “Divorce does not make a man or a woman single again.”
* “Divorce does not end a person's first marriage.”
Having stated this conclusion as a basis of reasoning for the ensuing adultery, he then makes “indissoluble marriage” the reason why a divorced person commits adultery. He writes,
* “That is why a person commits adultery when they marry and live with a divorced person.”
* “Adultery can only occur in remarriage because the divorced spouse is still married to their first marriage partner in Jesus' judgment.”
Is Carlos representing Jesus’ judgment as he claims? Is he interpreting everything Jesus said literally and at face value? Is he not making the same fundamental mistake that Stephen and Joseph make when they dismiss divorce and remarriage as literal? Do you see the literal conflict Carlos makes with words he is using non-literally and inversely? He is actually using words he has to mentally discard in order to convince himself of what he is saying. Anytime you hear someone say “the divorce spouse is still married“ you have heard a self-contradicting statement that is made worse by attributing it to Jesus.
What would happen to one’s interpretation if everything Jesus said is taken literally?
It would eliminate the false supposition of “indissoluble marriage.” It would eliminate the supposed conflict between Jesus and Moses. It would simply mean that Jesus revealed to His covenant people that they had for hundreds of years been committing adultery by supplanting one spouse for another. It would mean that Jesus gave them a reason to stay married. It would mean there is no difference in the outcome of divorce from one Testament to the other.
It would mean that “divorce” means divorce. It would mean that divorce terminated the marriage. It would mean the divorce was real. It would mean that the theory of “indissoluble marriage” is false. It would mean that a divorced woman WAS NOT “still married to her first husband.” It would mean that all the suppositions based on “indissoluble marriage” are false. Particularly the “divorce to repent” supposition.
It would mean that “marry another” (Matthew 19) means marry another. It would mean remarriage is a marriage. It would mean remarriage was real. It would mean there is no difference in the outcome of remarriage from Old Testament to New.
It would mean that all those who advocates “divorce to repent” are guilty of causing the dissolution of families. It would mean that all who divorced their second spouse out of fear transgressed another marriage. It would mean transgression were multiplied. It would mean wives and husbands abdicated their role in their home. It would mean that families were destroyed from false teaching.
Continued in the comment thread.
This manner of adultery happens because the first marriage ended and another marriage was formed. Jesus was making a counter argument against the Pharisees from God’s design for marriage (Matthew 19:4-6, 8b). Jesus did not answer their question (v.3) by appealing to the law, but rather by appealing to God’s creative design for marriage. While Jesus acknowledged God’s creative design for marriage, He never denied the reality of divorce. This way of committing adultery happens exactly how Jesus described it and everything He said was relevant to whom He spoke. Jesus was explaining to the Pharisees that ending a marriage causes one to commit adultery when they remarry because the obligation of lifelong fidelity is violated.
Women throughout the Old Testament were allowed to remarry if their husbands divorced them (Deut. 24:2). Consequently the ensuing adultery did not occur in the first marriage as “indissoluble marriage” advocates teach. There is a difference in the adultery that Jesus described from those who teach that the adultery is occurring in the first marriage. In the back and forth argument between Jesus and the Pharisees Jesus reveal to them that they were violating God’s creative design for marriage by prematurely ending it. Jesus never made an argument about the indissolubility of marriage. He never said that the woman divorced was not really divorced. He never made the argument that the husband in the second marriage was sleeping with another man’s wife. These are false suppositions forced into Jesus’ teaching by “indissoluble marriage” advocates, those who do not interpret all that Jesus said literally.
While Jesus acknowledged God’s creative design for marriage (Matthew 19:4-6, 8b), He never denied the reality of divorce. I find no where in scripture where marriage is said to survive divorce. The claim itself is a self contradiction. When Jesus speaks to this issue He is specifically speaking to the premature termination of marriage and the consequence that causes for remarriage. Isn’t it better to interpret the biblical writers who speak to this issue congruously? Should we interpret Paul as contradicting Jesus? Should we interpret Jesus as contradicting Moses? The following is a congruous understanding of biblical history on this issue.
When Moses conceded divorce to hardhearted men he did so for peace sake, just like Paul in 1 Cor.7:15. When Jesus made a reference to this fact (Matthew 19:8) He was not criticizing Moses (as claimed by some), He was actually being critical of hardheartedness that insisted on the right to put away their wives. Jesus’ following remark “but from the beginning it was not so” (8b) revealed to the Pharisees that divorce was foreign to God’s creative design for marriage (v.4-6). This masterfully exposed the calloused hearts of the Pharisees for wanting to divorce their wives for all kinds of subjective reasons and it revealed to them that they were transgressing God’s will for marriage by prematurely ending it. Divorce was therefore causing an inadvertent consequence for Israel not previously understood.
In the sermon on the mount Jesus revealed to His covenant people that by divorcing their wives which were allowed to remarry (see Deut. 24:2), they were causing them to commit adultery (Matthew 5:32). Because marriage sets forth the responsibility of lifetime fidelity, divorce and remarriage inadvertently transgresses that obligation. In the Patriarchal society of Israel men were causing their former wives to commit adultery in this manner. Jesus revealed to them the consequences of prematurely ending a marriage.
In the Patriarchal society of Israel, men who initiated divorce were the ones culpable of this adultery, “causeth her to commit adultery” (Matthew 5:32). Jesus never made an argument that divorce was not real. He always spoke of divorce and remarriage in it’s literal sense, never in a non-literal sense. This is a proper and contextual interpretation of Jesus’ teachings on divorce and remarriage. When Jesus is properly understood there is no difference in the outcome of divorce and remarriage in either Testament.
The simple truth Jesus revealed to Israel was that obligations inherent in marriage are violated by divorce and remarriage. The catch 22 is that divorce and remarriage formed another husband wife relationship which transgressed in principle the exclusivity set forth by the first marriage, thereby causing the adultery in the manner Jesus described. Divorce and remarriage produced both a transgression and a transference of marital obligation. This is the dilemma it caused Israel then and the Church today. It is the very dilemma Jesus described. But the dilemma turns into an enigma when biblical precedents are dismissed. Or to put it another way, by believing this adultery occurs because the first marriage was not terminated.
@@nealdoster8556 why would one remain in a relationship, that the Bible calls adultery.....this has been ask, again, and again....
@@nealdoster8556 then why is remarriage called adultery....
@@philipbuckley759 Grace to you Philip
The "relationship" you refer to is a marriage according to Jesus (Matthew 19:9 - shall marry another). Remarriage is NEVER called adultery in God's Word. You are following an interpreter, not the Bible. Jesus made the point to Israel that divorce causes remarriage to cause one to commit adultery. In context Jesus was referring to the Old Testament divorce concession they were allowed because of their hard hearts (Matthew 19:8). The Apostle Paul (in the New Testament) understood this when he instructed believers to yield to divorce for peace sake (1 Cor.7:15). So divorce is allowed in both the Old and New Testaments for peace sake. The view you follow claims Jesus abolished divorce but that is proven false when divorce exist in the New Testament. Once you accept the fact that your position depends heavily on false suppositions, maybe you can start understanding the historic context for Jesus' teaching.
When Jesus spoke to this issue He was directly speaking to His covenant people Israel. He revealed to them what divorce caused for remarriage. His criticism focused on accommodating their hard hearts (Matthew 19:8). After remarriage a man was not allowed to remarry his ex-wife because he caused her to be defiled by releasing her (with the right of remarriage) to another (Deut.24:2,4).
The defilement/adultery was the inadvertent consequence of allowing a marriage to end. Why? Because as Jesus revealed God had created marriage for life in the origin (the beginning / Matt. 19:8b).
By accommodating their hard hearts hundreds of years later and allowing divorce (over against God's creative design for marriage) we can see that the second marriage transgresses the intrinsic obligation of exclusive faithfulness as design by God in the beginning. By creative design sexual intimacy is to be exclusive to husband and wife for life. Allowing a marriage to end (divorce) causes the second marriage to violate that exclusivity. Thus the adultery Jesus described and the defilement Moses revealed in verse 4 of Deuteronomy 24.
Remarriage itself was not sinful and did not require repentance for being married. The point Jesus was making to those who ask Him about divorce for every cause (Matt. 19:3) was to help them understand that divorce was NOT inconsequential. There is a consequence for ending a marriage before death. It causes the intimacy God design solely for two to be transgressed when remarried.
Jesus did not actually criticize remarriage, He criticized hard hearts who insisted on the right to put away their wives. The question the Pharisees ask Jesus trivialized marriage and thought of divorce as inconsequential. Thus Jesus reveal the consequence it caused them by not remaining married. If they had stayed married this manner of adultery would not have transpired. When you read Moses and Jesus congruous you will understand that this manner of adultery ensues because God graciously allowed remarriage (Deut. 24:2) after conceding divorce for peace sake. The actual focal point of Christ criticism centered around what hard hearts caused. Hope this helps. Blessings
May I ask, since you or your husband entered puberty, where hormones run wild, have never looked upon another with a bit of lust in your heart, even as a teenager? If you say no, that is a lie. Which means you, too, have committed adultery. Everyone in the human race, then, has committed adultery, according to those standards that Jesus gave us. So, then, why don't you get divorced in that case? I not trying to be snarky, but, to make you see or understand that Christ died to set us all free. Where is grace in this whole picture? We are still in the age of grace, correct? Being repentant and receiving forgiveness is not enough? Do you then advocate that millions of families with children divorce and break up? If you could, please respond. Remember, all have sinned and fallen short . I think this teaching is worthwhile in counseling a couple who is considering divorce. But to tell millions and millions to divorce is ludicrous. I am one of those. I have been remarried to a wonderful Christian man for 31 years. We were young in the Lord and truly did not understand. When a few years went by, we repented before God. How could divorce be an option now? That advocates being in sin again, doesnt it?
ruclips.net/video/ogbV07OBMBE/видео.html
ruclips.net/video/ogbV07OBMBE/видео.html
Please understand....no where in the bible does God tell two people living in what He calls 'adultery' to ever stay in their sin. Herod married Herodias and John the Baptist got his head chopped off for calling them out on their sin. John never said, "Herod, Herodias, just say you're sorry and stay in the very sin you are supposedly sorry for." Is there any sin that has a label change with time? Does lying stop being lying because we've lied for 50 years? Does stealing stop being stealing after 20 years? In the same way, what God calls 'adultery' is just that (Please read Ro7). And even if you've been married for 100 years, its still adultery. This is what I believe is pretty clear biblically, but because of so many people involved in this sin, it never gets preached today.
You are only using your emotions as you are not interested in doing what God has for you to do. Or course you are emotionally entangled with this man but you are living in adultery. Anyone who marries someone that has divorced commits adultery no matter how "nice" the new spouse may seem.
+fredrockt47
I always thought grace was undeserved forgiveness. That grace would cover sin. Apparently, there're sin too great for His grace.
First, the Scriptures were not in english, everything is a translation. RUclips experts love to play semantics with periods, commas,.
No ne can prove anything. RUclips just gives them an audience.
legalism right here. People God knows the hearts of everyone, he knows we are not perfect. Is divorce without consequence NO. Now I have talked to my Greek Priest's regarding this matter to great lengths... They always say the same thing "The heart of the law is MERCY" They know things we don't Placing bondage on someone isn't loving. It isn't merciful and its just wrong. This man bless him doesn't have love in mind when someone who has been cheated on repeatedly, beaten or abandoned Jesus said "you have had 5 Husbands" did they all die? I don't think so... Did our Lord tell her to go back to her first husband? NO he said Go and sin NO more!.. Let the word be written on your heart, The old testament permitted divorce and remarriage and the New testament explains that the un cleanness Moses talked about is immorality that's the reason to divorce. NOWHERE in the bible does it say you CANNOT remarry!!!. Our Lord said this is the consequence for divorcing without cause it is Adultery please love your neighbor God Bless
how about holiness....
I repent Jesus is life
but do you give up your sin....
I had been in an adulterous union(marriage) to a man who was once married before me. He divorced her because she wasn't living up to his expectations. I met him years later, we had 2 children and married. His first wife Jenny is alive as far as I know. I got saved..he hated me and abused and cheated. I asked for a divorce, he filed for divorce. We are divorced and I have been single for years. I have held the position that I ought not to marry unless he dies, however, there are some who say because he was married before me that he was not my husband and that since I have repented of the adulterous union that I am free to marry. Repeatedly I have heard from multiple people that I am free to marry in this case. Please tell me what you see.
Jaime Harrington that’s my view of Gods word. Your marriage was not a marriage. It was adultery so you havr technically never been married before.
Jaime Harrington: HE WAS NEVER YOUR HUSBAND IN THE FIRST PLACE...HE WAS SOMEONE ELSE’S. YOU CAN MARRY BECAUSE YOU NEVER HAD A HUSBAND...YOU HAD THE HUSBAND OF SOMEONE ELSE.
@@Linkowski11 this is so true......it is worth considering the changes this can make, in your life....
yes amen that is why remarriage does not work
Betty Elrod yea they seem to never do
Michael Chriswell.. Look him up... The departing first says no to Jesus.. They are dead!! That is why believer is not bound!!. You tie up heavy burden that you don't carry..
isnt he divorced, and remarried...
one has to be dead, and buried.....not spiritually....
Wrong
With respect, I have to strongly disagree with the case you make here. Christ knew billions of persons would read His words throughout the ages. To assume He would offer the exception clause under such an extremely narrow definition as you have offered makes little sense.
When Christ says the only valid reason for divorce is fornication, adultery must be included in the broader term of fornication as it is immoral. Therefore, Christ is saying fornication (which adultery also is) is a valid reason to dissolve the covenant God requires between married persons.
You're putting much into this that simply isn't there, nor would Christ expect persons to look where you have. He is simply stating that if your spouse takes up sexually with another (whenever that is!) that THEY broke the covenant and He allows you to move on.
I'm believe you are a lover of truth. I am afraid your convoluted view is missing that mark here. You are not seeing the forest for the trees.
There are many things in scripture that need to be understood as it relates to the culture in which they lived. This view was held by a majority for quite some time so I am standing with that company along with many others who hold this view even today. The church continues, today, to allow culture to shape it. Many are even falling to homosexuality as being acceptable and the number of churches doing this is increasing. At a later time, this sort of exchange may just take place as it relates this issue of homosexuality. I hope not. We can agree to disagree in love, my friend. Blessings!
*****
God's Word is clear that both divorce is allowed in the case of infidelity, and homosexuality is undesirable in His view. How you see the two directly connected is a mystery to me.
The customs of the times can be enlightening to help understand God's Word, but cherry picking them to try and change the clear meaning of that Word is sadly, a fool's errand. I suspect you are happily married for many years. That is usually the lot of those with this viewpoint :).
I appreciate your taking time to elaborate on your view of this, friend. I pray you always see God's will clearly. Blessings to you as well.
+caelachyt You are not agreeing with scripture. To be truthful, you nor I do not know why Jesus said fornication instead of adultery. You want it to mean adultery. But it does not say adultery. It says fornication. When you look at Luke 16:18 and Mark 10:11,12, there is no fornication. But it is clear what it is saying. But because you do not accept this clear meaning, you are going to interpret it to mean what you want it to mean. Do you agree that if there was no adultery in the marriage and a woman remarried and her 1st husband was still alive, she has the right to stay married to her 2nd husband?
+Darryck Forrest Sr I do not want it to mean adultery, nor did I say that. I said adultery is one kind of fornication so it must be included. That is irrefutable fact. I am agreeing with Scripture perfectly.
Once a second marriage is entered into it must be adhered to until one or the other either dies or is unfaithful. It's a marriage.
Really, there is no reason for Christ to mention the exception unless it is actually an exception.
Let's say a 20 yo woman marries. Her husband leaves her for another at age 24. Do you really think God expects her to stay alone for another 60-70 years without the comfort and companionship of a man? That's absurd! Use your common sense. God does.
As Paul noted: "But since sexual immorality is occurring, each man should have sexual relations with his
own wife, and each woman with her own husband."
If Paul declared that a spouse was needed to avoid immorality, why would God expect this woman whose husband left to somehow manage going 70 years without being immoral?
The husband FORCED her into adultery according to our Lord.
The meaning couldn't be any plainer. Stop trying to complicate something that was so simply put.
You have good logic about whether the immorality happens before or after the divorce. It points out a big contradiction in the usual Protestant position.
But you go onto enspouse the "bethrothal view" on the exception clause in Mathhew 5 and 19. Unfortunately thats view has been thoroughly demolished in its narrow view of the greek word "porneia" . Many a scholar have researched its ancient use and have concluded its a broad term on various sexual practises.. not limited to premartial sex. The easiest way to establish that is to look at how the Greek speaking Church Father Ireneaus uses the word "porneia" (translated fornication in our english translations) about the Samaritan woman at the well being married 5 times. He says by her many marriages she committed porneia. In our time the Scholar Richard Hays totally shows how porneia in Matthew is a general term. in other words it can refer to sex during bethrol with someone else and it can refer to extra marital sex or any kind. You argument has been demolished and its present in some older books and held by some preachers who learnt stuff prior. What i think you need to come to what your saying is to highlight that the "porneia" of the exception clause must be committed by the WOMAN. Nowhere does Jesus or others even remotely imply it applies to an exception if a MAN commits "porneia" . such a reading has NO scriptural authority. SO there is something strange being said there... different from our cultural post feminist way of looking at things.
Using that in reference to premarital sex during the bethrothal period makes sense as the girl needed to have proof of her virginity and no proof was require or possible in the man. So the brethrol view already has the "double standard/sexist" happening.
my own suggestion is that Jesus permitted a MAN to divorce a woman given to porneia both in bethrothal period and during marriage but if during the marriage period he should not remarry and neither should any guy remarry her. the man could live as a eunuch of the kingdom or his wife could repent and return to him.
But i also think that since a remarried woman commits porneia in marrying and the man who marries a divorced woman commits adultery THEN a divorce can be made to break the adultery of the remarriage. AND the man can remarry (if he was only once married to the divorced woman) so that is also covered implicitly in the exception clauses in Mathew.
all these situations the general use of the word PORNEIA covers
according to Pawson.....the porneia has to happen, before the separation.....thinking that if one separates, first then the reason, for the separation was not porneia....ergo, not valid....
@@philipbuckley759 David Pawson held to the " bethroval" view...arguing that the use of ""porneia" was limited to premarital sex with another man by the betrothed woman.
wow many are going to hell over this
+joe ryan Sadly, that is true..
joe ryan yes it is amazing really... makes sense when Jesus says DEPART FROM ME YOU WHO PRACTICE LAWLESSNESS in the book of Matthew.
Yup it's sad but true, it says in the bible that some will accept this and some won't. We can't force people to believe this only the holy Spirit can convict people about this situation.
joe ryan..this is so hard to understanding. Unless we pray to God, in Jesus name to be blessed with a rewife...than we should not remarry unless our prayer in fully answered.
More than half of Christian's
You have to understand binds/bonds/rings, and their rebinding capability to fully understand if remarriage is adultery. Marriage or Vow is believed to be singular, meaning only one is given to be used for the purposes of YOUR ONE AND ONLY LOVE.
In order to re-marry, you would of had to have remained faithful during your 1st marriage, and only left your 1st marriage for the cause of betrayal, fornication (touching or tasting of another while married that beneath full sexual fulfillment being Adultery).
Betrayal breaks the ring/bond enabling you to keep it for continued rebinding, and strengthening for added consecration. However, you would have to find another heart capable of rebinding, meaning one who has never been married, or those that have been betrayed within all their marriages as well, even those that have proved through their spouse dieing from their marriage(s) would as well have capability.
So in essence as long as you kept/proved your 1st Vow being singular through them being unfaithful either through them touching or tasting upon another, or adultery, you would have proved, and kept your singular binding capability enabling you to rebind but only to those that have capability.
If you attempt to Marry one that does not have singular capability it will not bind, and you will not be in a solid bond. This is why Jesus states so too will the one that marries her, for she was put away by the hard beliefs of divorce that it's over, when in fact she is still in a solid bond that only breaks through declaration or betrayal. The ring only breaks through betrayal, meaning if you put your wife/husband away (divorce) you will cause the belief it's broken, and over, when in fact the ring only breaks through betrayal, fornication. Once you believe it's over by the hardness of divorce, and the beliefs it has upon you making you think the ring has broken, or the marriage is over it will do nothing more than keep you still sealed in the ring, and at some point you will encounter another heart which will touch/taste upon you/commit adultery. You always need to make sure you are sealing your singular trust to a capable heart, if not you will not BIND or form into a solid ring/bond/nest of the lovers/doves. If your attempting to seal with one that has not proved/kept their singular vow you will not enter into a solid marriage, hence so too will the one that marries her, for she lost her trust incapable of binding now.
Totally unbiblical teaching. If you can put them away during betrothed stage you can put them after. So a man is supposed to just be alone and lonely after knowing the fruits of marriage? Thats utterly rediculous. My ex was a cheating wife. She married her cheating lover. And now has two more kids with him. So im suppose to be alone and suffer for her SIN? HOGWASH!!! That isnt the word of God and that isnt the God I serve. He wouldnt wish for his children to be alone.
You are using your emotions. This teaching is Biblical. You are not serving the God of the Bible...
God would never allow such rediculousness doesn't even makes sense
Dont matter thats your cheating covenant wife
Then you dont know the God of the old and new testament
Um Joe u don't know Jesus sir
I am a believer and my wife and mother of my two children had two children before we met. Now when we got married, she had never been married before mind you, we had two children together. After 7 years of marriage, she decided that she no longer wanted to worship the same God that I served and she left me in the middle of the night. I tried for 2 years to resolve my marriage and she filed for divorce. After not getting to see my kids for 1 and 1/2 years, I finally pursued a legal solution and the only solution offered to me was a divorce. Now that I am divorced I have received custody of my children. I am dating a woman now and I do wish to get married to her. We are both believers and my now ex-wife has remarried. What do you propose that I do in my situation? I mean what say you to Corinthians 7:13-16. I mean there is a pretty clear message here and I do disagree with your stance here, but I am interested in hearing your take on this particular scripture. Especially the part that says, "the believer is no longer under bondage".
Sorry, I wrote this before the end of the video. I apologize. I now understand your stance on this. I don't necessarily agree with you, but I do understand where you are coming from and I appreciate what you are doing!
if she divorced you, then it seems that you have no Biblical basis, for a remarriage.....
under bondage, is not akin to not bound.....it is a different word, with a different meaning, leading to a different teaching....
there is only one excuse for remarriage, a MAN NOT A WOMAN can remarry , only if the wife commits formication. all other leads to adultery, this is the feminism that has crept into the church, if you are abandoned, by a unbeliever does not mean your free to remarry...
Kurt Goldston amen
Wrong. The Hebrew and Greek do not say "she was free to marry another man" -- It says *IF* she marries another. God isn't condoning adultery. The Greek Septuagint was written 1700+ years before the KJV, check it out yourself:
ebible.org/eng-Brenton/DEU24.htm
The assumed "exception" is completely turned on its head by the carnal reasoning of the false church; thinking that the language is a means of dissolving a covenant marriage. The "fornication" that allows for a civil divorcement is a so called "marriage" that by it's nature is immoral, or a type of fornication. So then, if a woman civilly parts from her husband, then civilly "marries another", she has joined herself in a union that is 'fornication' by it's nature, and Jesus wants this woman to divorce herself from it. Why? because she already has a husband that is living, even though she "married another". To civilly marry a person, does not guarantee that you are not sinning, but rather, you must have the decree of God that you are "no longer two but one flesh" to be under the biblical definition of marriage. All 'marriages' that are not thus joined by God, are inherently 'fornication' and should be dissolved both through repentance, and by civil divorce as a means of publically renouncing the sin. All covenant spouse are both jointly and individually obligated to fulfill the commandment of God to live according to the 'law of love' toward all mankind, even an enemy. If a spouse has sinned, or is sinning, the law of love still applies which obligates us to pray for reconciliation and forgiveness with a heart full of mercy toward the offender. This does not mean to palliate the sin, or to treat it with indifference. On the contrary, bear a testimony against it without compromise, but see that the motive is love toward the one on the broad road. No reasonable parent would abandon a prodigal child, much less a spouse. Children are intended to be the fruits of a one flesh marriage, but the spouse is actually the 'one flesh' of the spouse. Children will leave their parents to marry, but death alone will part the husband and his one flesh spouse. Adultery is excluded as a means to obtain another spouse, since adultery is incidental to an existing covenant marriage. If one insists on sinning, they will lose their soul in the bargain, but the other spouse can remain in love and receive the reward of the inheritance for overcoming by faith. Take heed friends.
+jb091661 Amen. Very true, dear one.
I totally disagree with your teachings. In Matthew 5:32 Jesus talked about a man who divorced his wife buy DIDN'T MARRY ANOTHER WOMAN. This is why the innocent party can't REMARRY. Both are still married to each other, there was not adultery. But in Matthew 19: 9 the man divorced his wife to marry another woman. Can the innocent part REMARRY? Jesus didn't say. To interpret this and say that you have to take back your wife/ husband when they finished having fun with their lover it is unfair and nowhere seeing in the scriptures. Yes you can REMARRY IF your other half is having extramarital relationships.
+miguel pedroso *NO YOU CAN NOT REMARRY IF YOUR OTHER HALF IS HAVING AN EXTRAMARITAL RELATIONSHIP, THAT IS CALLED ADULTERY IF YOU REMARRY.*
+cooljc26 if your other half is having an affair and when confronted doesn't give a sh1t you can divorce him/ her and remarry.
+cooljc26 yes you can. the divorce clause cited by Jesus. yes you can.
miguel pedroso *No you can't there is no clause cited by Jesus at all*
+miguel pedroso Did you watch this video??
Good news bible
1st Chronthians 7:15.
15However, if the one who is not a believer wishes to leave the Christian partner, let it be so. In such cases the Christian partner, whether husband or wife, is free to act. God has called you to live in peace.
What does this mean? Does believer Spouse after getting Devorce from a non believer spouse can Re-merry to a believer according to this verse 1st Chronthians 7:15. Could a believer spouse free to Act for Re-merry.
no it means one does not have to sacrifice beliefs to keep a spouse....yet one is still bound....which means no divorce and remarriage...
The fact that you address these issues on RUclips is simply righteous in Christ. My wife has remarried only 2 months after she divorced me. We have a 2 year old. My question... What does the Bible teaching about our child becoming 'unclean'? I take comfort in scripture. Any suggestion? My Christ continue to bless you and your family. Thank You.
dj2ndhand The "unclean" in 1Corinthians 7:14 is referring to familial sancitifcation not personal/spiritual...it just means that they are set apart for temporal blessing because one or both of the parents belongs to God. But, of course, this blessing also can lead to the salvation of the child and become personal/spiritual. You will always be their father - they remain set apart/holy because of you. I hope that helps. :-)
Look up the website www.rejoiceministries.org. This is the most encouraging and possibly accurate website I have found for those bravely standing for marriages!
Questions: Are desertion, adultery, and fornication the unpardonable sins now? Did Jesus then agree with one faction or the other of the Pharisees (one side said divorce only for fornication, the other side said divorce for any reason), thus creating a loophole to divorce and ok remarriage? Does forgive 70 times 7 not apply to married people who want to get out of their marriages? I need answers to these questions.
from what vantage point are you speaking.....is this saying that a spouse should forgive the wayward one.....
I am happy that you speak the truth. Don't worry about what people are saying. You can't argue about the truth and God word. We have to conform our lives to the word as belivers not the other way around. Thank you and God bless!
amen....
This topic is nothing but an Abbott and Costello's 'Who's On First' routine.
Seriously. Now I understand why God gave us His grace. We are too busy being the new Pharisees. Whereas they worried about clean hands and healing ion the Sabbath, we are arguing over adultery and remarriage that is being entered into with repentance for the first sin. We are starting to make an algorithm of the bible. Peter was the same. He was never going to make a mistake and those that did were in a bad state. He knew all the answers and was one to point them out. Then, he sinned. He made the mistake.
But no one is saying it is not adultery. It is. So is lusting with your eyes. The issue is, does God forgive the divorce. If divorce is allowed, and not remarriage, then divorce should not be allowed. God would order us not to divorce period.
@@gaylechristensen6285 how many times does one have to address the same issue.....it is an argument from silence....because no reason is given for her situation.....
@@pigjubby1 These religious Pharisees can't seem to rectify the fact that God hates divorce.
@@philipbuckley759 Read Deuteronomy 24 very carefully.
Great vid. great message. I am constantly finding confirmations in your guys' videos. :D this makes me very excited.
God bless you friend! May we seek Him together, and may we encourage each other as iron sharpening iron!
The issue of adultery is very gender-specific. Adultery is sexual relations with another man's WIFE. It is the woman who is commanded to remain single or be reconciled. It is the woman who is bound to her husband as long as he lives.
While the man is commanded not to divorce his wife, nowhere does it state that a man cannot marry a never married lady. The only repercussion for a man who marries a never married lady is that he cannot be in a leadership position in church. If a woman leaves, a man can remarry. And if he lives in a country where he can marry more wives, he need not "remarry", he can just marry more. If a man leaves, a woman cannot remarry, but remain single or be reconciled.
God himself stated that he gave David Saul's wives (because Saul was dead), when David took another man's wife (while the man was alive) all hell was let loose in heaven.
So the rule about remaining unmarried or reconciled is for the female gender only.
Note: I am female. I do not like the scripture's stand on gender-specific remarriage rules but we are called to be holy and not happy.
What do you do with these verses. The topic is so hard to understand.
Jeremiah 3:8 KJVS
[8] And I saw, when for all the causes whereby backsliding Israel committed adultery I had put her away, and given her a bill of divorce; yet her treacherous sister Judah feared not, but went and played the harlot also.
Abuse in Marriage people say there are gray areas what about abuse well the bible DOES talk about it! Why have we never seen this or our pastors talked about it?
1 Peter 2:18 Slaves, in reverent fear of God SUBMIT yourselves to your masters, not only to those who are good and considerate, but also to those who are HARSH. 19 For it is commendable if someone bears up under the PAIN OF UNJUST SUFFERING because they are conscious of God. 20 But how is it to your credit if you receive a beating for doing wrong and endure it? But if you suffer for doing good and you endure it, this is commendable before God. 21 TO THIS YOU WERE CALLED, BECAUSE CHIST SUFFERED FOR YOU, leaving you an example, that you should follow in his steps.
22
“He committed no sin,
and no deceit was found in his mouth.”[e]
23 When they hurled their insults at him, he did not retaliate; when he suffered, he made no threats. Instead, he entrusted himself to him who judges justly. 24 “He himself bore our sins” in his body on the cross, so that we might die to sins and live for righteousness; “by his wounds you have been healed.” 25 For “you were like sheep going astray,”[f] but now you have returned to the Shepherd and Overseer of your souls.
1 Peter 3 New International Version (NIV)
3 WIVES, IN THE SAME WAY submit yourselves to your own husbands so that, if any of them do not believe the word, they may be won over without words by the behavior of their wives, 2 when they see the purity and reverence of your lives. 3 Your beauty should not come from outward adornment, such as elaborate hairstyles and the wearing of gold jewelry or fine clothes. 4 Rather, it should be that of your inner self, the unfading beauty of a gentle and quiet spirit, which is of great worth in God’s sight. 5 For this is the way the holy women of the past who put their hope in God used to adorn themselves. They submitted themselves to their own husbands, 6 like Sarah, who obeyed Abraham and called him her lord. You are her daughters if you do what is right and do not give way to fear.
7 Husbands, in the same way be considerate as you live with your wives, and treat them with respect as the weaker partner and as heirs with you of the gracious gift of life, so that nothing will hinder your prayers.
1 Peter 4:Living for God
4 Therefore, since Christ suffered in his body, arm yourselves also with the same attitude, because whoever suffers in the body is done with sin.
God said you can separate but MUST REMAIN SINGLE OF BE RECONCILED!!
2 As a result, they do not live the rest of their earthly lives for evil human desires, but rather for the will of God.
interesting.....thanx, for the input...
I married a women that has been married before. But now we are divorced. So since I'm no longer living with her in adultery, can I remarry since according to this teaching she was not really my wife to begin with? And would she have to go back to her first husband?
Thank you.....
Friend, in short, yes you are free to remarry, and yes she is commanded in 1Co7:11 to either remain unmarried or be reconciled to her first husband. Praise God that you have been delivered from adultery...both of you. God bless you!
***** Hey...what is going on here? remarry your former spouse?
Deuteronomy 24:1-4 ESV / 64 helpful votes
“When a man takes a wife and marries her, if then she finds no favor in his eyes because he has found some indecency in her, and he writes her a certificate of divorce and puts it in her hand and sends her out of his house, and she departs out of his house, and if she goes and becomes another man's wife, and the latter man hates her and writes her a certificate of divorce and puts it in her hand and sends her out of his house, or if the latter man dies, who took her to be his wife, then her former husband, who sent her away, may not take her again to be his wife, after she has been defiled, for that is an abomination before the Lord. And you shall not bring sin upon the land that the Lord your God is giving you for an inheritance.
Is this not the same book (Deuteronomy) that is quoted from in this video to begin with? If you cant even reconcile with your former spouse after remarriage upon their death.....How is it you can do it while they are still alive?.
If you cant give rock solid scriptural advice...DONT. Or at least qualify it by saying its your personal opinion, not a biblical opinion. The bible doesnt need to be dragged through the mud any more than it already is.
If you can't speak the truth in love, please DONT.....watch this video which addresses the issue before you make a judgment. Have no preconceived notions...but allow the Holy Spirit to teach you. MDR Question #3. Does Deut 24:1-4 Forbid The Return of a Former Spouse?
and here's a short important message you will never hear preached in churches today. DIVORCE REMARRIAGE: Must We Repent of a Remarriage God Calls 'Adultery'?
YES you can marry you were never married to begin with
***** While I agree with the teaching in your video I think you were far too hasty to claim that David Depesh was not speaking in love (basically you are claiming he was speaking in hate).
You can remarry but she has to either work it out with her first husband or be celibate for life
+joe ryan
Just lust in the heart. Do not worry. Nobody will know about those emotions
+pigjubby1 Except Jesus/God!!!!!!
He does good up to 9:45 concerning the exception clause. That is the main and very important thing. He gets it concerning the exception clause being "non essential"; jumping off to a side point.
What he says about original intention starting at about 14:00 is not completely correct. Yes, it is true that Jesus contradicts Dt 24:1 in Matt 5 and 19 by going back to original intention from Gen 2. That is different than what he says about not committing adultery in the heart. God's original intention by the ten commandments was that men were to not commit adultery in their hearts? No. They were not regenerated. God was touching on the main things., literal physical sexual adultery being one of them. The higher standard of not even committing it the heart is a NT thing accompanying regeneration.
He should qualify that though the ECF were correct to forbid remarriage, they erred exceedingly by allowing "divorce/separation" for adultery in their misunderstanding of the exception clause. He spoke highly of the ECF without warning about their deception.
Other than the few relatively minor points, he did a good job. The main thing being; he forbids all post marital divorces no matter why and the exception clause did not pertain to the post marital situation, which is why both the man and woman in that type of divorce are BOTH free to marry afterward as 5:31,32 and 19:9 reveal. Unless there is something hidden that we are not aware of, the video in and of itself is pretty good. I understand he at one time was allowing some remarried couples to stay in that condition and his wife was correct in disagreeing with him. Is that the same situation now or is there now unity between him and his wife? Or am I mistaken? Please someone straighten me out if necessary.
why both the man and woman in that type of divorce are BOTH free to marry afterward sorry, I dont understand the meaning, of this statement....
Matt 19:9 broken down into 5 parts:
1) And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife,
2) except it be for fornication,
3) and shall marry another,
4) committeth adultery:
5) and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.
In Matt 19:9 we have two actions, 1) divorce, and then 3) marrying another. The second action, marrying another, naturally follows as a result of the first.
An exception clause, 2), is placed between the two actions of 1 and 3. We then have the result, which is adultery 4), of a man doing the two actions, 1 and 3.
Think of any two functional actions for 1 and 3 that will work in similar fashion, the second action being a natural and willful follow-up action after the first action; then include a negative result for 4. When an exception clause, 2) is inserted between the two actions, 1and 3, what you will see is that in EVERY case; what the exception clause allows means the final negative result, 4, does NOT occur. In Matt 19:9 above, if the man marries after the allowable divorce, that marriage is NOT adultery. The correct no-sex betrothal-divorce, exemplified in the Joseph-Mary scenario of Matt 1 fits perfectly. The man can indeed marry afterward and that is NOT adultery because the allowable exception-clause divorce only ends the equivalent of engagement.
In Matt 5:31,32, the exception clause functions similarly; indicating that in the case of divorcing after the manner allowed by the exception clause, the woman is then NOT caused to commit adultery. Again, it fits perfectly with the correct no-sex betrothal-divorce, since the "husband" and "wife" in that kind of "divorce" are both eligible for marriage not ever having left and cleaved in marriage. They are both still single.
The fact is we have made a couple verses exception clause. There is no exception clauses. Putting away is not the same as a writing of divorcement.
sounds like someone needs to make another translation of the text.....if we cant get a good translation, how are we to know what to do....?
@@philipbuckley759 try he American Standard Version. Not the New American Standard Version. Also try Young’s Literal Translation.
@@pjfrog10 thanx....for the information...
we need to instill in our kids that even if they marry the anti Christ, it is covenant if it is a first time marriage and can never be sin to be repented of #remarriageisadultery
amen...
Can you remarry your 1st husband if he becomes saved and never remarried
Reconciliation is a wonderful thing, especially if both are determined to honor Christ.
Yes, even if he has remarried. He's still your husband you're still his wife.
You may learn more about The LORD & Remarriage Here ---> tinyurl.com/y5zqwxvp
Let us not forget Jesus nor the Bible gives there explicit blessing or permission to remarry except the spouse be dead!!! It is just that simple. You think 🤔 it’s going to matter how you feel about your new spouse or children on that day of judgment.Who do you love more Your new spouse or the one who has the power to cast you in to hell!!!
Are you related to Adam Neely
Most of the time when people lose a spouse they never get married again. I think most people today have lost the meaning of true love getting love mixed up with lust please and unto the eyes.
@@kevindavis4709 believe me, lust is a universal issue.....
@@philipbuckley759 exactly and I honestly believe most people get lust and love mixed up.
I have a question for you. How do you approach a situation were a couple of divorced people have met and married and are now Christians. Lets say they have 4 kids between them. Do you feel that they should split up in order to be true to scripture?
I always wondered that but I never got a answer form anyone about that
+David Depish Yes, they are still living in adultery, no matter if they have 15 children!... If they were having an affair and that affair produced 4 children , would they be found guilty of adultery, or not? They should split up, and yet still provide for those innocent children, if they want to be obedient to God/Jesus.
Mandy Groff no you should not separate for once saved always saved covers your sin .you should look into once saved always saved. Once you receive your free gift from god yoh can never lose it .neverrr no matter what you do Repenting of your so s is not the true gospel.
Ha, what a joke response. Jesus says *repent.* That means forsake. If you don't forsake an adulterous marriage by simply divorcing and stop having sex with one another, than you're not repenting from adultery. It's not complicated.
@@basecardcollector1698 try reading Pawsons book...OSAS? to see if he cant change your mind..
At 13:36, 48 minutes, is it natural death only or natural and spiritual death?
Natural death
dead, and buried....
Note that the early church issue of no remarriage ever was based on Catholic teaching of permanence till death but even they brought in "annulment" in lieu of allowing Biblical divorce, which is a back door dishonest way of dealing with the issue. In Matthew 19 we see Jewish men divorcing their wives for no real reason, and Jesus brings us back to God's original plan for marriage but with a proviso in accordance with Deuteronomy 24.
Yup the Church of England was founded because Henry wanted a divorce and the Pope would not let him have one. So he set up his own religion that it coincided with Luther and the reformation is a bit weird. Many kings and queens of England and in europe were betrothed as sort of power marriages of convenience and many of them "put away" their spouses before the marriage and wars ensued.
If there is adultery your are free to remarry you are not stay bound ...Context people ..if there is no adultery you are not permitted to remarry
so if an interpretation, brings confusion, it probably is not true.....
what do you do if your wife left you? cuz she does not want to be married anymore? are you still under bondage or do you treat her like an unbeliever? (both being believers)
GabakUSA Free computer training remain single
this treating people, as unbelievers....seems strange, because if that were the case, everyone would be an unbeliever....and even if that person were....it would not be an exception for divorce and remarriage....because the term is not under bondage, or not enslaved....which is different, from not being bound....
well with my first marriage when I was young and we had our children. My husband was on drugs but he took care of the bills and children and me if I was not working. I redicated my life back to Christ while we were married. And there was time was cheating. And after the kids was grown and I didn't know at that he was cheating. God told me to let him go. I didn't know why. I did what God told me and l let him go.I found out later he was cheating again. So I played for the divorce. Now 13 years later I've meet someone else. And he said God told him I was his wife we dated a short time. He was in church with me every time I went. We got married. I found out he have seizure s so he had a couple during I first year of marriage he lost some memory. But at the end of our first year I found out was married all ready 16 years ago. He said he don't remember marrying her. And he never lived with her. So now we are on situation.
Hmm....are you sure God told you to divorce your first husband and marry this second one. Did you pray for the spirit of discernment, cause we must always remember Satan is extremely skillful in the area of marriage.
Sharon Butler get put their trust God
it is interesting that God told you to go, when the idea of the whole of Scripture is forgiveness.....so....oops....does not sound like God, to me...
Spot on brother this is confirmation from the Lord to what Hes shown me
Right on brother! The only thing that dissolves the marriage bond is death! What I (the LORD) have joined together, let no man put asunder. (only death, Ie. The Lord called one of spouse to him) get to terminate a covenant. Marriages are not contracts, there are blood covenants that last a lifetime
God have mercy! Repent and get out of adulterous relationships. Time is very very short. Jesus is coming very very soon for a church without spot or wrinkle! The bible is the standard! Any other opinion does not count! Friends eternity is too long to be wrong!!!
people like to think that repentance makes everything ok and as such remain in a state, of adultery....
If Jesus meant ADULTERY when he said FORNICATION, he would not have used both words in one breath; and he did so to differentiate between two different situations.
If ADULTERY was a free pass, biblically, to divorce and REMARRY, then people would, and perhaps are, running out and committing adultery to be freed from their covenant marriage. No one is given biblical permission to DIVORCE and REMARRY for the case of adultery.
I have seen too many couple who preached what is preach so often. Remarriage is a sinful life to be in. Then what happens? They get divorced and get remarried. The minute they though it could never enter their lives, it does. That an affair had been underneath everything for years. Just be careful who you listen to online.
God's grace is greater than anything our sinful minds could every think of.
Remember, the same guy making this video, is sinful and need God's grace just like i do.
Christ gives us a personal relationship and we are to go to Him for everything, not a poster on the internet.
+pigjubby1 You make NO sense.. smh
***** That is so true.. Thank you. Jesus bless you!
The issue is, is the divorce forgiven? If it is held against someone, then it has not been forgiven.
How is it when you live with sin, it is forgiven?Do not portend your sin was an accident or unintentional. It was chosen. All sin is chosen. James says so. So how do you answer to that? How do you answer to your choice to sin? Your choice to sin is okay because it was a "one time deal" and mine is not okay because I remarried?
And if you say your sins are not chosen, you are a liar.
You can say you have 1,000 sins valued at 1 point. You say I have one sin at 1,000 points. Where is the difference? You have not removed the tree from your eye and are busy telling others to take out the plank from theirs.
It seems your point is not to witness to anyone but to give your own opinion.
What do you say when God asked you about something you did wrong that you thought was right? How will you defend that? And polkas do;t say there are no errors in your life. I'm sure you are so smart that you will have that answer ready? What? That you did not know? No way. James says that we know when we sin all the time, So what is the excuse for your "little" sin?
Yes He did. He also told a man to sell, everything and give it all to the poor to be perfect and to another to remove the part of your body that causes you to sin. Did you do any of that? Or was it only for that person and not to apply to anyone else?
You say my remarriage is continual sin? What is you excuse for your continual sin? Unless you've overcome sin and no linger sin.
Sin in one commandment is sin in all. Have you stopped that sin that you chose to do? There is not such thing as unintentional sin, unless you claim to have Tourette's syndrome and cant help yourself.
If grace is no excuse to sin (I believe that is true) then live without it and see how far the law will get you. You rely on it to sin also. Why else would you sin? If sin brought death on the spot, would you sin? Of course not. You honestly believe that your sins are not intentional? You cannot say you do not rely on grace to sin as you want, then condemn another that relies on grace to be saved. Why is it your sins are unintentional and forgiven, but others are continual and condemning.? Your telling me that your sins have stopped? if not, then it continual. Come on, be a man and have some accountability. Sin is sin.
Why then is divorce allowed if a person cannot remarry.????? This day and age people cannot afford to stay single. A household needs two people to pay bills.
Divorce is not allowed at all.
@@christopherjordan6237 ugh??? God divorced Israel. Please see Matthew 19:9 also?...
@@maunder01 Brother it just shows you don’t know the Holy Scriptures only what preachers say in the pulpit. Please read Jeremiah 3.
@@maunder01 BUT GOD DIVORCED ISRAEL & Deut 24 says you can divorce…. NOPE!
Jeremiah 3:1.
THEYYYYYYYY Say, If a man put away his wife, and she go from him, and become another man's, shall he return unto her again? shall not that land be greatly polluted? but thou hast played the harlot with many lovers; YET YOU RETURN TO AGAIN, SAITH THE LORD.
2Lift up thine eyes unto the high places, and see where thou hast not been lien with. In the ways hast thou sat for them, as the Arabian in the wilderness; and thou hast polluted the land with thy whoredoms and with thy wickedness.
3Therefore the showers have been withholden, and there hath been no latter rain; and thou hadst a whore's forehead, thou refusedst to be ashamed.
4Wilt thou not from this time cry unto me, My father, thou art the guide of my youth?
5Will he reserve his anger for ever? will he keep it to the end? Behold, thou hast spoken and done evil things as thou couldest.
Israel's and Judah's Unfaithfulness
6The LORD said also unto me in the days of Josiah the king, Hast thou seen that which backsliding Israel hath done? she is gone up upon every high mountain and under every green tree, and there hath played the harlot. 7And I said after she had done all these things, Turn thou unto me. But she returned not. And her treacherous sister Judah saw it. 8And I saw, when for all the causes whereby backsliding Israel committed adultery I had put her away, and given her a bill of divorce; yet her treacherous sister Judah feared not, but went and played the harlot also. 9And it came to pass through the lightness of her whoredom, that she defiled the land, and committed adultery with stones and with stocks. 10And yet for all this her treacherous sister Judah hath not turned unto me with her whole heart, but feignedly, saith the LORD.
Invitation to Repentance
11And the LORD said unto me, The backsliding Israel hath justified herself more than treacherous Judah.
12Go and proclaim these words toward the north, and say, RETURN O BACKSLIDING ISRAEL, SAITH THE LORD; and I will not cause mine anger to fall upon you: for I am merciful, saith the LORD, and I will not keep anger for ever.
13Only acknowledge thine iniquity, that thou hast transgressed against the LORD thy God, and hast scattered thy ways to the strangers under every green tree, and ye have not obeyed my voice, saith the LORD.
14TURN, O BACKSLIDING CHILDREN, SAITH THE LORD, FOR I AM MARRIED UNTO YOU: and I will take you one of a city, and two of a family, and I will bring you to Zion:
@@maunder01 2 Why Divorce and Remarriage Is Adultery & Why We Can Not Remarry To Enter His Kingdom!
1 Corinthians 7:10
10 To the married I give this command (not I, but the LORD): A wife must not separate from her husband. 11 But if she does, she MUST REMAIN UNMARRIED OR else BE RECONCILED to her husband. And a husband must not divorce his wife.
1 Corinthians 7:39
“A wife is bound by law AS LONG AS HER HUSBAND LIVES; but if her husband dies, she is at liberty to be married to whom she wishes, only in the Lord.”
Romans 7:2-3
3 So then if, WHILE HER HUSBAND LIVITH, she be MARRIED to another man, SHE SHALL BE CALLED AN ADULTERESS: but if her husband be dead, she is free from that law; so that she is no adulteress, though she be married to another man
Sorry but I really do not understand how the matthew 19:9 realy goes, so to simplify it does that mean if a person re-marries someone after the divorce means either or both parties still commits adultery.
Matthew 19.9 speaks of porneia....so good luck trying to understand this....but if your divorce is for this, then according to the argument you could remarry.....if not the one commits adultery, for a nonBiblical divorce, and the other commits adultery for having married a divorced person...
how do you convince someone, of this position....that it was in the engagement, or betrothal period...
You actually made it more confusing for me. You are talking about "Marriage & Divorce" And you keep referring to a moral discrepancy or violation within the union as a "Fortification"Sex outside of marriage constitutes 'Fornication"; shouldent you be using the word "Adultery" ? In the versus you are quoting: Jesus called these "Adultery" not fornication. This is the most unclear spin about or on this topic I have ever heard, respectfully. You need to do the entire first 10 minutes over again man. It should be simple' perhaps I should ask: at what time can a person who divorces their spouse become married again without sin being incurred. Can you please answer that.
When their spouse dies.
This is good stuff. Thank you. But what if people have already remarried? And what if your first marriage was to a woman who was divorced? I know that's adultery but can you remarry in that case?
yea if the first spouse was divorce you were in adultery and that was not truly your wife she belonged to another man. And as long as you were never married you are allowed to marry
@@DENZ85081Correct
So i've heard nothing about the guilty party. Can the cheater remarry? We know the innocent party is free to marry but what happens to the guilty, repented party? do they get a second chance? i'm asking for myself and for many couples i know, and never seem to have an answer for this. I just call them adulterers. but I never feel right about calling them that, I'm thinking there is forgiveness from God and He will extend His mercy and grace. I'm looking for an answer. Thank you Kindly.
Johanna Rodriguez neither can
it seems that the one that puts away a spouse, for fornication, as if someone actually knew the true meaning.....of porneia....can remarry....
What did you conclude?
THANK YOU SO MUCH. God bless you both.
you have a good presentation, yet you did not finish....what course of action would one have to take if they are divorced, and remarried....and does this adultery, by being remarried compromise their salvation....
the question is....why is looking on a woman, with lust, adultery, and not fornication.....a form of sexual immorality, as in this case the individual would not be married to that person....
This topic is prime example of the need for the authoritative church, the one that he mentioned that existed for 1500 years (which still exists today). That Church is the Catholic Church. Protestants, because of Sola Scriptura and to be non-Catholic, have no teaching on divorce and remarriage. Why? Because that will be Catholic. With Protestants, the authority to interpret the bible is in the individual. Tamara, this guy, is right. He just don't have the authority of a church. The Catholic church allows for annulment of an invalid marriage as if that marriage did not happen in the first place.
Just because the catholics got one thing right doesnt make the whore of babylon worth following.
it is supposed to be the work, of the Holy Spirit to guide, in all truth....
It didn't give them permission to change God's commandments. Taking away the Sabbath changing it to SUNday. Nor removing others and splitting the last.
The exception clause was about finding out while betrothed that the wife had had sex while still single. Betrothed people were not single.
Engaged
@@ihhakojnj7761 incorrect. Otherwise why aren’t engagements taken as seriously today? We are sinning not to
how come this site looses alll control of these response lists and literally goes off to another site.....
My Ex-wife supposedly came to know the Lord, around the time we got married, but her actions never showed it.
We separated 3 times, the 3rd time I refused to come home, so she wanted a divorce and I agreed and signed.
Am I guilty? was she a Believer?
+DEROY CREWS Yes, u are guilty. U should not have agreed to divorce. Separation is allowed but not divorce. Try to reconcile with her. About she being a believer well I guess not because a true believer would not ask for divorce.
David321 I made a horrible choice by marrying her, it was not God's will, and now after she has fried her brain from doing Crack, she is suffering from depression, and the stuff that comes out of her mouth is totally demonic.
I stay away from her, as much as I can. And I pray for her constantly.
They were among us, and went out from us! You will know a true believer by their fruit!! There is a difference between someone who accepts Jesus only as there savior and someone who truly accepts Jesus as their Lord. In my opinion she was not by her fruit that you described. You were married to her do you not know her heart?
Kayla Sobeck I always knew she wasn't a member of the House, so to speak, But I thought she wanted to grow.
But I should have ran away and I didn't. It would have been better for everyone if I had run and got out of there back at the beginning.
+DEROY CREWS
Sometimes we do things that we believe are good and well thought out intentions and they turn out to be in the long run not such a good thing. Been there and done that myself plenty! Always remember everything whether it be sinful or not, God uses it for His Glory! We learn and we grow if we allow God to do His great works within us. Always aligning scripture with our thoughts and plans is the crucial step we all must learn to apply if we want to Gods will and walk in righteousness. Love is blind sometimes, we mean well but not always means that it was right. I done this myself. Live and learn, growing in the Lord. We should all learn that trying to marry an unbeliever or even a believer when we are still spiritually babies is not a good idea. We all need to seek to be the godly husband or wife and person we should be first then seek a spouse. I did the opposite too!
Does this also count with 2 unbelievers ?
I got separated from my ex husband came to the feet of Christ and remarried later on.. but I believe it doesn’t matter wether it was before Christ. Need some clarity..
@FrenchToast Stealer thank you so much for taking the time to reply!
I wanted to just say that I was married to the first husband when I came to the feet of Jesus! I put my divorce in before I got baptized. Finalized it 3 months after I got babtized and later down the road God married to my 2nd husband who I have 2 children with.
Thank you
@FrenchToast Stealer I was very specific in my first comment like I said I was an unbeliever for separated from my ex like I said in the first comment and came to feet of Christ.
Separation did not meant divorce! I don’t want to give specifics as to why I got married to him in the first place, my daughter was 3 months and I wanted to marry him to fix he’s papers and I did. Divorce reason I wasn’t with him did not know the Lord because if I did I would have never divorced him before I gave my life to Christ!!
I could write a long story here and try to explain myself but giving my life to Christ did not mean I knew Christ! I did not ! I wanted to get babtized I put in divorce papers before but a divorce doesn’t end just like that it takes time.
I understand now I wasn’t supposed to get in divorced and I was giving the wrong advice.. I was confused did not know what to do.
And the reason we where not together we had separated many times and Adultery.
I don’t want to sound like I’m giving explanations but with my current husband I have a 3 year old and an 8 month.
I’ve asked advise to the leadership again and basically I shouldn’t have divorced in the first place and it I knew Christ I would have known not to!
Why would the lord want me to separate from my current husband and for me to take our children away from their Dad??
My ex husband has he’s relationship already.
To me it makes no sense whatsoever but I will keep praying about this.
Because it’s a subject honestly that has caused much burden but now I’m at peace with the Lord and don’t feel condemnation.
Thank you God Bless you
@FrenchToast Stealer I appreciate it your advice, and honestly for taking the time to respond to me. I don’t want to be a stumbling rock for others as well.
All I can say prayer and fasting i read the Lord reveals himself to others as far as they are in adultery I have a relationship with the Lord but I don’t remember having a revelation..
but I will leave this here about to get into prayer 🙏🏻 thank so much
What conclusion have you come to?
If you were baptized [by full immersion in water] after coming to a belief in Christ, you should have remained single until the death of your first husband.
"2 For the woman that hath a husband is bound by law to the husband while he liveth; but if the husband die, she is discharged from the law of the husband.
3 So then if, while the husband liveth, she be joined to another man, she shall be called an adulteress: but if the husband die, she is free from the law, so that she is no adulteress, though she be joined to another man".
Romans 7:1-3 (ASV)
Is putting away the same as divorce?
you did not address the question...the question of adultery a continuous state, or a one time act......