Alpha and Omega, Beginning and End, First and Last: Titles for God and for Jesus? - Part 1
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- Опубликовано: 3 июл 2019
- A clip from #GregStafford during his Day Text show for July 4, 2019, in which he discusses texts in Revelation and in Isaiah which pertain to the question of whether #AlphaandOmega and #FirstandLast are titles used for God or for Jesus, or for both?
Link to the entire Day Text show for July 4, 2019 from which this video clip was taken: • Day Texts with Greg St...
Link to Greg Stafford’s video, “The ‘Sons of God’ in Pre-Christian Biblical Texts”: • Day Texts with Greg St...
Link to Greg Stafford’s video, “More on Jesus as "a god" and "a man," the "S/sons of God," and Monotheism”: • More on Jesus as "a go...
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Excellent presentation Greg.
Much appreciated!
Wow! Wonderful explanation showing the difference between isaiah 44:6 and Rev 1:17,18 and 2:8. Thanks Greg
Great explanation Greg, all parts 1-4, I agree with everything. Let me just ask you one very important question for me. I will be grateful for your response.
The issue is about Jesus as a "Father", our Father. The question is tricky and has a lot of implications... I don't know if you already heard about such an idea. We know that Jesus is in some places called our father (Heb 2;13, Isa 9;6, John 14;18) and we - His children.
Is it possible that since only Jesus was brought to life personally by God and everything else (including us) afterwards was made through Jesus (Col 1;16, Heb 1;2,10) then in that sense we are all children of Jesus (he is the closest to us), and He is the only direct child of God. We can notice that in all New Testament Jesus tells about "my Father" and "your Father" always separating one from another and never saying something like "our common Father". So it could give us a hint that he wanted to say that we are his direct children (indirectly, through him also children of God Almighty, similar to that Israel was a child of Abraham only because he was a child of Isaac first). And in that sense when saying "your Father in heavens" he meant that Jesus is/will be again this "father in heavens" when he will be ascended to heaven (to his God and Father). Then we are all in Christ (father) and with Christ all in God, his Father (but only through him, not direct children of God but children of Jesus first).
What do you think about such an approach?
Thank you and God bless you!
Where do you get all these from? Nothing in those verses you mention indicates jesus as our father, unless you don't understand the context of what you are reading. Jesus refers to everyone who does the will of the father in heaven as his brothers and sisters. Mathews 12:46-50
When he was raisen and the mary saw him, he told her to go to his brothers (his disciples) and tell them to meet him in galilee. Matthews 28:9-10 he also told them that he will ascend to his father, and our father, and to his God, and our God. John 20:17
Jesus as the heir of God will inherit the children of God who are righteous and made it to the resurrection. He will be their king and lord. When jesus said to pray to your father in heaven, he was talking about our father in heaven,God almighty. not that you should wait until he gets to heaven and becomes our father to pray to him. That made no sense. Have you not read where jesus said to pray to the father in his name? You pray to the father, but in the name of jesus, cause jesus is our mediator between us and the father.