This test is looking at the means. You can see that the bp_before mean= 156.45 and the bp_after mean = 151.36, showing that the treatment did work in reducing blood pressure on average. This average change is unlikely to be caused by chance, or there is a 0.001% (p=0.011) chance that the change in the means is by chance.
I understand that the difference is statistically significant, but does the fact that the p value is .0006 in the alternative: Ha: mean(diff) >0 mean that the difference in blood pressure was greater than zero AFTER treatment?
This test is looking at the means. You can see that the bp_before mean= 156.45 and the bp_after mean = 151.36, showing that the treatment did work in reducing blood pressure on average. This average change is unlikely to be caused by chance, or there is a 0.001% (p=0.011) chance that the change in the means is by chance.
I understand that the difference is statistically significant, but does the fact that the p value is .0006 in the alternative: Ha: mean(diff) >0 mean that the difference in blood pressure was greater than zero AFTER treatment?
So did the BP increase or decrease after treatment? And what shows
What is the conclusion please?
why is it used a t test for a sample size > 60 ?
What command should I use if I have to evaluate a t-test between more than 2 groups?
anova
This is bullshit. The only thing you did was to read the variables and the outcomes. Go more in depth