This was a very clear way of explaining it! I pay thousands of dollars for professors to ignore my requests for help and could not care less if their students pass or not. You're a great teacher, unlike everyone at Krannert Management School of Purdue U. Thank you!!!!
This video is so helpful and clearly explained. Thank you so much! But Please does anyone know why alpha hat a^ (which is not indexed by i) is in the summation but beta hat B^ gets taken out ?
@@hassanbolagligsmanSince the regression line y=a^ + b^x has two unknowns (the y-intercept a^ and the slope b^), to minimize the residual square function requires taking two partial derivatives: first with respect to a^ (where b^ is considered a constant), and then with respect to b^(where a^ is considered a constant).
I was beginning to think there is something wrong with my brain I understand this but in class I absolutely don't understand what those prof are doing and have to figure it out outside class.
Sir, great video. I need a little help, I have a question which I'm not understanding properly. Can you make a video of it to explain it to us. I can share the question to you, if you provide me your email address. It will be really helpful. Thanks in advance
This was a very clear way of explaining it! I pay thousands of dollars for professors to ignore my requests for help and could not care less if their students pass or not. You're a great teacher, unlike everyone at Krannert Management School of Purdue U. Thank you!!!!
U mean thousands of dollars for getting a degree? duh imagine if u start investing
I spent whole day trying to understand this but I finally did thanks to your video. Thank you so much
I never thought that I would come to understand derivation of estimates easier like this
Probably the best video of this topic, thanks for this!
Thank you! This video helped me understand with ease. Great explanation
Thanks a lot. It was easy to understand and explained really well. I appreciate it.
great work keep it up
Your are a friend my friend!! Thank you!
Nice and wonderful content. I would be very happy if you can calculate the coefficient in case of TLS or total least square method too
absolutely amazing
Can you please show one more thing of this calculation. Like how we can obtain intercept and slope of B0 and B1 after shifting line l to l'?
This video is so helpful and clearly explained. Thank you so much!
But Please does anyone know why alpha hat a^ (which is not indexed by i) is in the summation but beta hat B^ gets taken out ?
I would also like to know this @techinsightsjournal
Since it's a partial derivative with respect to â, b hat is held constant and can therefore be pulled out of the sigma.
@@louie30003000 do you know why we put a focus with the partial derivative on alpha?
@@hassanbolagligsmanSince the regression line y=a^ + b^x has two unknowns (the y-intercept a^ and the slope b^), to minimize the residual square function requires taking two partial derivatives: first with respect to a^ (where b^ is considered a constant), and then with respect to b^(where a^ is considered a constant).
Thank you man, but why are we minimizing with respect to a and not x?
It was adorable 😍😍 from Tigray
Man, thanks are not enough. But, thanks from the bottom of my harth.
very helpful
Why did you multiply by 1/n?
It is good but indeed there are some areas that need to be further clearly explained just like what others have oberseved
thank you so much
best videos teacing thankss
Gr8 bro ❤❤❤
Thank you
Nice job
Why after 1/n multiplication that alpha and beta becomes their respective hats
I was beginning to think there is something wrong with my brain I understand this but in class I absolutely don't understand what those prof are doing and have to figure it out outside class.
THANK YOU
but why is alpha an inner function hmm
Sir, great video. I need a little help, I have a question which I'm not understanding properly. Can you make a video of it to explain it to us. I can share the question to you, if you provide me your email address. It will be really helpful. Thanks in advance
if you divide the first derivative by 2, should the answer be (yi-a^-b^xi)/2 = 0
You just casually got rid of the 2 and the minus sign??
🤔
helpful but your volume is low