How is it rigorously proved that for odd functions the definite integral from -a to a is 0? It obviously makes sense because every positive area will by nature have a negative area but how is it proved beyond that intuition?
If we want to calculate indefinite integral we should use complex exponentials and complex partial fraction decomposition of x^4/(1+x^8) but for this integral it is not needed
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How is it rigorously proved that for odd functions the definite integral from -a to a is 0? It obviously makes sense because every positive area will by nature have a negative area but how is it proved beyond that intuition?
The only thing left out hereare just the details from the proof of the FTC. Otherwise, this fact is just a basic observation.
These videos are for calculus students and not for advanced calculus or real analysis. Stop asking for rigorous proof.
Genial
If we want to calculate indefinite integral we should use complex exponentials and complex partial fraction decomposition of x^4/(1+x^8)
but for this integral it is not needed
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3:15 This is not correct way showing that 2:27 is true
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