this passage has baffled me for ever and yes I think this now different because if it baffled you than i don't feel so bad so having said that I want to thank you very much pastor John for this unique explanation
Just a thought here. I analized these verses and what I could understand a bit is that by the statement “ He went and proclaimed to the spirits in prison” might refer to preaching to all people during Jesus’s time on earth who were living in the prison of their sin. By adding the part where it is said about the spirits in the days of Noah who didn’t obey I think it kind of generalises it in the sense that we as humans disobeyed God therefore we live in our own prison (sin). Now as in the days of Noah that a few were saved through water, now through Christ in baptism we have a chance of being saved again. I don’t know if I elaborated this well because English is not my first language, let me know if that can be the case or I might be wrong.
We Can Eliminate the Preaching of the Gospel to the Spirits Peter uses a Greek word for preaching the gospel three times in 1 Peter. Every time it is very clear that the gospel is the deceleration that is happening with the Greek word. 1Pe 1:12, 1Pe 1:25, 1Pe 4:6 Euaggelizō: to announce good news, preach the gospel However Peter uses a different Greek word here 1Pe 3:20 that is translated proclamation. Kērussō: to proclaim, announce and sometimes translated preach. What is significantly absent in this passage with this word is anything to do with the preaching of the gospel that Peter was so careful to associate preaching with in the three other passages and using a completely different Greek word to do so. While this passage does not directly tell us what the proclamation is Jesus made, I think we can get an idea from 3:18 in that "he was made alive in the spirit". The way I understand this is Jesus went to proclaim to some spirits in prison that he is alive. He was not defeated. Possibly he announced that he now has the keys of death, hell and the grave or something along those lines. Paul did say Christ made a public spectacle of them, public to the unseen realm that is. That is what possibly happened here. The Spirits So we need to determine who those spirits are to see if my understanding fits. Are they sinners destroyed before the flood or are they fallen angels that copulated with the daughters of men in Genesis chapter six? I believe Peter clears this up in his second letter: 2Pe 2:4 For if God did not spare the angels when they sinned, but cast them deep into hell, placing them in chains of darkness to be held for judgment; Jude also makes mention of this: Jude 1:6 And the angels who did not stay within their own position of authority, but left their proper dwelling, he has kept in eternal chains under gloomy darkness until the judgment of the great day- It is clear from these passages Jesus did not go preach the gospel to spirits in prison. Furthermore, Peter and Jude both define who those spirits are. Fallen angels. There is no hope for them and never will be any hope for them. That is what I see concerning these passages.
Hello Pastor John thank you for your faithfulness and Heart of Love towards our Heavenly Father and Jesus Christ his beloved Son, my comment is that, like Paul said in Romans 5 verses 12 through 17, death reigned and sin was in the world but that sin was not counted towards them because there was no law yet, could it be, being that there are other verses that you have already mentioned, that seem to strongly indicate that He actually did go down and preach to those Souls who had sinned but did not have the law to realize that it was sin?
My understanding is that Jesus descended into hell & proclaimed victory against Satan & his fallen angels. Jesus bound the strong man & plundered his house.
Jesus Christ went to the cross and now lives to set sinful you free from death and hell. Repent and turn your heart to Him before it’s too late. If He calls your heart, say yes!
Jude 1 verse 6 says that those angels that left their proper Abode and intermingled with women in Genesis 6 he has reserved them for the day of judgement so I think that rules out that those are the spirits he is referring to.
If a person dies, where does the spirits go? Body? And our soul? My question is, does the text translated in hebrew or greek? Then who really are this spirits in prison? Base on luke 16 the rich man and lazarus, what was in the hades? Is it human soul or human spirit?
So Christ came did His work, was curucified for our sins; He was put to death in the flesh, He then resurrected by the power of the Holy Spirit, He then went back in time to the times of Noah and preach through Noah to those who did not obeyed and listened to Noah, that were locked up?? This doesn't add up. Or, God manifested in the flesh in Christ and did His work, was curucified for our sins; as the last Lamb, He was put to death in the flesh, and with the power of the Holy Spirit in the glorified body, He went to make an official announcement to those spirits that were being guarded and that once were disobedient in the times where God patiently waited 120 years while Noah built the ark and then at the end of the 120 year mark, eight souls were saved through water, So Jesus is our ark that Gods precesnse dwells within and those who believe in Him will be filled with His presence and this represents us immersing ourselves in Christ and being saved?
We are the spirits in prison. Our earth is under the firmament. We are the unclean that never left “tevah” (all of nature not made by man)… some will translate to ark
Interesting comment. I'm looking into 1 Peter 3:18-20 I am trying to find different interpretations of what it could mean. Do you have a different opinion than the commonly held interpretation? I am trying to find out if Jesus actually went to Hell when he died. I am leaning towards the belief that He went to the grave, not hell...
Do you realize that the Jews knew of two ages this age in the age to come. This age was the covenant of Moses and it needs to come was a new covenant with the people. The Mosaic covenant what's physical the New covenant is spiritual. If 70 AD was not Jesus second return did he has lied to everybody in the Bible. Jesus has stated many times that the kingdom is not physical but spiritual Paul has claimed that the kingdom is not physical but spiritual but yet you people are looking for a physical Kingdom where Jesus and Paul never says there's a physical Kingdom.
@@idaliareyes4456 in Luke 17:20,21 JESUS says the kingdom is not physical. in john 18:35,36 JESUS says the kingdom is not physical. in 1 Corinthians 15:50 Paul says flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom not physical. so, we see here JESUS and Paul both believe the kingdom is spiritual. how do we get a future physical coming? nowhere is there any proof of a physical kingdom so when JESUS says the kingdom is spiritual then i believe JESUS not man.
This is a very interesting topic to me and I’ve been reading some and studying on it. A question I still have though is what do you do with 1 Thessalonians 4:16,17? Wouldn’t that be a physical return?
@@beckyouellette4686 in the book of Thessalonians who was Paul talking to. He was talkin to the Thessalonians of two thousand years ago. He is not talking to you and me and the issues that the Thessalonians had Paul was answering. The Thessalonians believe that the people who have died will not go to heaven because Jesus had not returned. So we see in verse 15 of chapter 4 Paul says we which are alive and remain until the coming of the Lord. Then we see the same phrase in verse 17. Paul preaches and really thinks that some of the Thessalonians and himself will be alive at Jesus second return. Why does Paul believe he will be alive at the second return of Jesus. Because Jesus has stated many times Matthew 16:27 28, Matthew chapter 23:36 And in Matthew 24:34. Now as for verse 16 we see language here that appears to be physical. Let's look at Isaiah as a example Isaiah 34: 3-14 we see language here that is very physical but did not come true it is known as destructive or judgment language. And and verse 3 we see that the mountains will melt with their blood. In verse 4 we see the all the hosts of heaven will be dissolved and the heavens shall be rolled together as a scroll. God says in verse 6 that the sword of the Lord will be filled with blood. We see and verse 9 that the streams thereof shall be turned into pitch. In verse 10 we see the smoke thereof shall go up forever from generation to generation. So the question is did this really happen? In verse five we see that is idumea that is being destroyed. Did God really come down with his sword? is this place burning forever and ever with fire and smoke. The answer is no it is a language use to describe the judgment on a certain group of people. We see the same language against Babylon against the Jews the Old testament is filled with this kind of language. So in the New testament we see the same language in revelation. So why is this language physical but it was not physical in the Old testament. At what point did this language become physical. Don't forget it is a Jew writing to a Jew about Jewish. John 5:19 Jesus says truly truly I say onto you. The son can do nothing of himself. But what he sees the father do. But what he sees the father do for what things soever he does this also does the son likewise. So as we can see Jesus will not come down physically because God never came down physically.
There's something else that the church does not teach us. We see and Matthew 24:14 when the gospel is preached throughout the whole world and to every Nation then the end will come. There are several forms of the word world. Here and this verse this form is 3625 and it's used only 15 times in 15 different verses. It's used three times in the book of revelation. This particular word means the Roman empire. The other form is 2889 it is use 187 times in 157 versus. This word means the planet. So the question is has the gospel being preached throughout the whole? The church says no and most of the Christians say no but Paul says it has before 70 AD. Romans chapter 10 verse 18 Paul says that the gospels been preached throughout the whole world that is 3625 the Roman empire. In Colossians 1:5 and 6 we see Paul Stats here. The gospel has being preached throughout the whole this is 2889 means the planet. And in Colossians 1:23 we seePaul says the gospel has been preached to every creature under heaven. There's been a lot of controversy over this phrase that Paul didn't really mean every creature. But if we go to Mark chapter 16 verse 15 we see Jesus given his disciples a commandment to preach to every creature. So did Jesus really mean to preach it to every creature? Did Paul mean it was preached to every creature. I say was preached to everybody and so therefore the gospel was preached before 70 AD. So that was one of the signs for Matthew24:34 and no other generation past present or future will see the gospel preached because it already has to the first century. There's something else for you to Luke chapter 17 verse 20 to 22. In verse 20 we see the Pharisees asking Jesus when the kingdom of God is coming. Jesus says the kingdom cannot be observed with eyes. That means the kingdom is not physical. We go to the book of John chapter 18 verse 35 and 36 we see Jesus here saying that the kingdom is not from here. Jesus is saying that the kingdom is spiritual. Go to first Corinthians chapter 15 verse 50 Paul says that flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God. So Paul is saying that the kingdom is spiritual. If Jesus was setting up a physical Kingdom why cannot flesh-and-blood inherit a physical Kingdom.
this passage has baffled me for ever and yes I think this now different
because if it baffled you than i don't feel so bad so having said that
I want to thank you very much pastor John for this unique explanation
Just a thought here. I analized these verses and what I could understand a bit is that by the statement “ He went and proclaimed to the spirits in prison” might refer to preaching to all people during Jesus’s time on earth who were living in the prison of their sin. By adding the part where it is said about the spirits in the days of Noah who didn’t obey I think it kind of generalises it in the sense that we as humans disobeyed God therefore we live in our own prison (sin). Now as in the days of Noah that a few were saved through water, now through Christ in baptism we have a chance of being saved again. I don’t know if I elaborated this well because English is not my first language, let me know if that can be the case or I might be wrong.
We Can Eliminate the Preaching of the Gospel to the Spirits
Peter uses a Greek word for preaching the gospel three times in 1 Peter. Every time it is very clear that the gospel is the deceleration that is happening with the Greek word. 1Pe 1:12, 1Pe 1:25, 1Pe 4:6
Euaggelizō: to announce good news, preach the gospel
However Peter uses a different Greek word here 1Pe 3:20 that is translated proclamation.
Kērussō: to proclaim, announce and sometimes translated preach.
What is significantly absent in this passage with this word is anything to do with the preaching of the gospel that Peter was so careful to associate preaching with in the three other passages and using a completely different Greek word to do so.
While this passage does not directly tell us what the proclamation is Jesus made, I think we can get an idea from 3:18 in that "he was made alive in the spirit". The way I understand this is Jesus went to proclaim to some spirits in prison that he is alive. He was not defeated. Possibly he announced that he now has the keys of death, hell and the grave or something along those lines. Paul did say Christ made a public spectacle of them, public to the unseen realm that is. That is what possibly happened here.
The Spirits
So we need to determine who those spirits are to see if my understanding fits. Are they sinners destroyed before the flood or are they fallen angels that copulated with the daughters of men in Genesis chapter six? I believe Peter clears this up in his second letter:
2Pe 2:4 For if God did not spare the angels when they sinned, but cast them deep into hell, placing them in chains of darkness to be held for judgment;
Jude also makes mention of this:
Jude 1:6 And the angels who did not stay within their own position of authority, but left their proper dwelling, he has kept in eternal chains under gloomy darkness until the judgment of the great day-
It is clear from these passages Jesus did not go preach the gospel to spirits in prison. Furthermore, Peter and Jude both define who those spirits are. Fallen angels. There is no hope for them and never will be any hope for them.
That is what I see concerning these passages.
1 Peter 3:18-20 is certainly tricky.
Halleluyah 🇮🇳🌏🔥🔥🔥
Hello Pastor John thank you for your faithfulness and Heart of Love towards our Heavenly Father and Jesus Christ his beloved Son, my comment is that, like Paul said in Romans 5 verses 12 through 17, death reigned and sin was in the world but that sin was not counted towards them because there was no law yet, could it be, being that there are other verses that you have already mentioned, that seem to strongly indicate that He actually did go down and preach to those Souls who had sinned but did not have the law to realize that it was sin?
My understanding is that Jesus descended into hell & proclaimed victory against Satan & his fallen angels. Jesus bound the strong man & plundered his house.
Jesus Christ went to the cross and now lives to set sinful you free from death and hell. Repent and turn your heart to Him before it’s too late. If He calls your heart, say yes!
Jude 1 verse 6 says that those angels that left their proper Abode and intermingled with women in Genesis 6 he has reserved them for the day of judgement so I think that rules out that those are the spirits he is referring to.
Read what does God says in Gen.6:6
Do you think judgement day is the same as the day that Jesus went to that prison ???
If a person dies, where does the spirits go? Body? And our soul? My question is, does the text translated in hebrew or greek? Then who really are this spirits in prison? Base on luke 16 the rich man and lazarus, what was in the hades? Is it human soul or human spirit?
So Christ came did His work, was curucified for our sins; He was put to death in the flesh, He then resurrected by the power of the Holy Spirit, He then went back in time to the times of Noah and preach through Noah to those who did not obeyed and listened to Noah, that were locked up?? This doesn't add up.
Or,
God manifested in the flesh in Christ and did His work, was curucified for our sins; as the last Lamb, He was put to death in the flesh, and with the power of the Holy Spirit in the glorified body, He went to make an official announcement to those spirits that were being guarded and that once were disobedient in the times where God patiently waited 120 years while Noah built the ark and then at the end of the 120 year mark, eight souls were saved through water, So Jesus is our ark that Gods precesnse dwells within and those who believe in Him will be filled with His presence and this represents us immersing ourselves in Christ and being saved?
We are the spirits in prison. Our earth is under the firmament. We are the unclean that never left “tevah” (all of nature not made by man)… some will translate to ark
Interesting comment.
I'm looking into 1 Peter 3:18-20
I am trying to find different interpretations of what it could mean.
Do you have a different opinion than the commonly held interpretation?
I am trying to find out if Jesus actually went to Hell when he died. I am leaning towards the belief that He went to the grave, not hell...
Mark 14 24
Spirits in prison a.k.a. purgatory
I I'm the holy spirit
O.T.M Means Only The Massah
Do you realize that the Jews knew of two ages this age in the age to come. This age was the covenant of Moses and it needs to come was a new covenant with the people. The Mosaic covenant what's physical the New covenant is spiritual. If 70 AD was not Jesus second return did he has lied to everybody in the Bible. Jesus has stated many times that the kingdom is not physical but spiritual Paul has claimed that the kingdom is not physical but spiritual but yet you people are looking for a physical Kingdom where Jesus and Paul never says there's a physical Kingdom.
Can you please break down your thought process on this for me ? I’m really trying to get a better understanding of this physical stuff.
@@idaliareyes4456 in Luke 17:20,21 JESUS says the kingdom is not physical. in john 18:35,36 JESUS says the kingdom is not physical. in 1 Corinthians 15:50 Paul says flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom not physical. so, we see here JESUS and Paul both believe the kingdom is spiritual. how do we get a future physical coming? nowhere is there any proof of a physical kingdom so when JESUS says the kingdom is spiritual then i believe JESUS not man.
This is a very interesting topic to me and I’ve been reading some and studying on it. A question I still have though is what do you do with 1 Thessalonians 4:16,17? Wouldn’t that be a physical return?
@@beckyouellette4686 in the book of Thessalonians who was Paul talking to. He was talkin to the Thessalonians of two thousand years ago. He is not talking to you and me and the issues that the Thessalonians had Paul was answering. The Thessalonians believe that the people who have died will not go to heaven because Jesus had not returned. So we see in verse 15 of chapter 4 Paul says we which are alive and remain until the coming of the Lord. Then we see the same phrase in verse 17. Paul preaches and really thinks that some of the Thessalonians and himself will be alive at Jesus second return. Why does Paul believe he will be alive at the second return of Jesus. Because Jesus has stated many times Matthew 16:27 28, Matthew chapter 23:36 And in Matthew 24:34. Now as for verse 16 we see language here that appears to be physical. Let's look at Isaiah as a example Isaiah 34: 3-14 we see language here that is very physical but did not come true it is known as destructive or judgment language. And and verse 3 we see that the mountains will melt with their blood. In verse 4 we see the all the hosts of heaven will be dissolved and the heavens shall be rolled together as a scroll. God says in verse 6 that the sword of the Lord will be filled with blood. We see and verse 9 that the streams thereof shall be turned into pitch. In verse 10 we see the smoke thereof shall go up forever from generation to generation. So the question is did this really happen? In verse five we see that is idumea that is being destroyed. Did God really come down with his sword? is this place burning forever and ever with fire and smoke. The answer is no it is a language use to describe the judgment on a certain group of people. We see the same language against Babylon against the Jews the Old testament is filled with this kind of language. So in the New testament we see the same language in revelation. So why is this language physical but it was not physical in the Old testament. At what point did this language become physical. Don't forget it is a Jew writing to a Jew about Jewish. John 5:19 Jesus says truly truly I say onto you. The son can do nothing of himself. But what he sees the father do. But what he sees the father do for what things soever he does this also does the son likewise. So as we can see Jesus will not come down physically because God never came down physically.
There's something else that the church does not teach us. We see and Matthew 24:14 when the gospel is preached throughout the whole world and to every Nation then the end will come. There are several forms of the word world. Here and this verse this form is 3625 and it's used only 15 times in 15 different verses. It's used three times in the book of revelation. This particular word means the Roman empire. The other form is 2889 it is use 187 times in 157 versus. This word means the planet. So the question is has the gospel being preached throughout the whole? The church says no and most of the Christians say no but Paul says it has before 70 AD. Romans chapter 10 verse 18 Paul says that the gospels been preached throughout the whole world that is 3625 the Roman empire. In Colossians 1:5 and 6 we see Paul Stats here. The gospel has being preached throughout the whole this is 2889 means the planet. And in Colossians 1:23 we seePaul says the gospel has been preached to every creature under heaven. There's been a lot of controversy over this phrase that Paul didn't really mean every creature. But if we go to Mark chapter 16 verse 15 we see Jesus given his disciples a commandment to preach to every creature. So did Jesus really mean to preach it to every creature? Did Paul mean it was preached to every creature. I say was preached to everybody and so therefore the gospel was preached before 70 AD. So that was one of the signs for Matthew24:34 and no other generation past present or future will see the gospel preached because it already has to the first century. There's something else for you to Luke chapter 17 verse 20 to 22. In verse 20 we see the Pharisees asking Jesus when the kingdom of God is coming. Jesus says the kingdom cannot be observed with eyes. That means the kingdom is not physical. We go to the book of John chapter 18 verse 35 and 36 we see Jesus here saying that the kingdom is not from here. Jesus is saying that the kingdom is spiritual. Go to first Corinthians chapter 15 verse 50 Paul says that flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God. So Paul is saying that the kingdom is spiritual. If Jesus was setting up a physical Kingdom why cannot flesh-and-blood inherit a physical Kingdom.
you are all confused because you dont believe in purgatory. im proud to be a catholic