Physics in Action: Magnet Falling Through a Conductive Pipe

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  • Опубликовано: 22 янв 2025

Комментарии • 24

  • @HilbertXVI
    @HilbertXVI 6 лет назад +15

    Fantastic, this was exactly what I was looking for

    • @JohnVKaravitis
      @JohnVKaravitis 3 года назад

      I agree, absolute gold. But this is the only video? Where is part 2, as promised at the end of this video???

  • @innovativegopal
    @innovativegopal 2 года назад

    Please bless us with such practical physics I have been eagerly looking forward to.

  • @jarmokanerva8977
    @jarmokanerva8977 2 года назад

    Looking forward to see your experiments on the video - as you promised, to see how good this approximation is!

  • @maximussu7609
    @maximussu7609 3 года назад +3

    Well done sir, could you do for different shape dropping down the tube and not just solid cylinder? What if i have a hollow cylinder, sphere or even cube dropping down the tube? Which shape has the lowest terminal velocity dropping down?

  • @nithinkondababathini6001
    @nithinkondababathini6001 Год назад

    Can dA point towards the negative side of z-axis

  • @hallowed6710
    @hallowed6710 Год назад

    When I do dimensional analysis to find the units of K, I don't get Kgs^-1. Is there a mistake somewhere?

  • @gameglitcher
    @gameglitcher 3 года назад +2

    Following 6:50 me and my phone had a very interesting conversation.

  • @SiliconSoup
    @SiliconSoup 2 года назад

    At 12:55, vXB.dl is for a ring moving at velocity v in a stationary B-field, but you use it for a B field moving at velocity in a stationary ring (Pipe). I think (and correct me if I am wrong), rigorously speaking, equation 2 is valid when you drop the pipe while the magnet is held stationary. Equation 1 calculates emf from the electric force, equation 2 calculate emf from the magnetic force, these are different mechanism that produce emf, depending which one is moving. They will give the same result, but they are not the same thing. I hope someone here would agree with me.

  • @hemantthakur9681
    @hemantthakur9681 2 года назад

    hello, can I know the references that you took to make this video or any other places you have given a detailed description
    in form of documents thank you !!

  • @scienceontology
    @scienceontology 2 года назад +4

    The falling magnet induces vortical eddy currents in the aluminum that probably have a more complicated geometry than the approximation of independent rings; the current is not confined to flow along such rings. Also, to satisfy boundary conditions between the aluminum pipe surface and air the magnetic and electric fields must match both inside and outside the conductor. This implies that anti-vortexes will form outside the conductor to match the eddy current vortexes inside the conductor. Maxwell's equation cannot handle this particular scenario because it is ignoring the magnetic monopole term. Fortunately Konstantin Meyl meyl.eu has developed the equation of objectivity which can model the potential vortexes formed outside the conductor and their decay. The energy lost by the falling magnet is dissipated as heat inside the conductor due to the decay of eddy current vortexes and as heat generated in the air by the decay of potential vortexes formed outside the conductor. When calculating the energy loss one must also include transverse electromagnetic waves and longitudinal scalar waves generated by the varying electric and magnetic fields.

  • @sanjoykumarpal5409
    @sanjoykumarpal5409 Год назад

    Is this video have any copyright ?

  • @nithinkondababathini6001
    @nithinkondababathini6001 Год назад

    why is the magnetic moment is defined as m * unit vector of z axis

  • @Sevolin
    @Sevolin 5 лет назад

    How did you get dR/R^4 instead of dR/R^7 at the end of the Force portion of the video

    • @Sevolin
      @Sevolin 5 лет назад

      Never mind, be careful when labeling variables though:)

  • @ROBOTKO555
    @ROBOTKO555 3 года назад

    Really good video, just with the integration would be cool to explain why is the integration constant C equal 0 because in certain situation it can have value other than 0 which is important for ressults.

  • @Fit_india21
    @Fit_india21 5 лет назад +2

    Excellent 👍👍👍👍 ,sir from india

  • @josej.castroarellano8693
    @josej.castroarellano8693 2 года назад

    If the units of are:
    μ_0/(4 π)=10^(-7) Weber/(ampere meter)=10^(-7) (Tesla meter)/Ampere
    and for copper
    Г electrical conductivity = 5.91716 10^7 1/(Ohm m)
    The dimensional analysis should provide
    the force in newtons.
    I do not get the correct result, from the dimensional analysis, with your calculation is there any other consideration?
    The k must be Kg/s ?

  • @mehmetteke87
    @mehmetteke87 9 месяцев назад

    amazing bro

  • @muhammadnisarqasim636
    @muhammadnisarqasim636 2 года назад

    good work , upload but in proper series , also make thier series.

  • @adamfattal6382
    @adamfattal6382 5 лет назад +1

    Hi, Pedro

  • @harveyspc1118
    @harveyspc1118 11 месяцев назад

    Lengendary

  • @h7opolo
    @h7opolo Год назад

    9:05 haha "beefy hat". nah, dude, Phi is pronounced "fahy". omfg!