AN ABSOLUTE BEAST!!! And we're solving it using Feynman's technique

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  • Опубликовано: 19 ноя 2024

Комментарии • 30

  • @pnintetr
    @pnintetr Год назад +2

    I didn't notice parental advisory explicit content in thumbnail until now 🤣🤣😂😂
    Indeed, that technique is way too beautiful for most children to comprehend! 🤣

  • @skakistisA
    @skakistisA Год назад +36

    For the engineers among us, that's around 0.51 and the integrated function looks somewhat flat in (0,1)

  • @danielc.martin
    @danielc.martin Год назад +14

    Γ(1/4) in terms of lemniscate constant deduction in the channel?

  • @meteor3033
    @meteor3033 Год назад +8

    13:01 "I'm not gonna overthink it right now, I'll overthink it later." Such a mood.

  • @nikko2505
    @nikko2505 Год назад +4

    In other words I = ln(2*G), were G is Gauss constant?

  • @salaheddineog5965
    @salaheddineog5965 Год назад +1

    Hello i am so thankful for you for these videos 🙏 .
    I have a good integral for is from -∞ to +∞ of e^(x^2 + 1) /(x^2 + 1)
    And thank you so much 🙏😊❤️

  • @insouciantFox
    @insouciantFox Год назад +10

    Γ(¼) seems to me just scream duplication formula but it doean't get you very far. Since ¼+½=1-¼,the reflection formula leads you in circles.
    Best I got was I = ln[sqrt(2π)/Γ²(¾)] or I = ln[Γ(¼)/(Γ(¾)Γ(½)]

    • @maths_505
      @maths_505  Год назад +4

      The result is more compact in terms of the lemniscate or gauss constants.

  • @MrWael1970
    @MrWael1970 Год назад

    Very smart solution. Thanks.

  • @jochemvandolder5046
    @jochemvandolder5046 Год назад

    Isn't the reciprocal of ln(x) unbounded at the interval (0,1)? ln(1)=0 thus 1/ln(1) must tend to either infinities depending on the direction we approach it right? Please correct me if i misunderstand

  • @mab9316
    @mab9316 Год назад

    beautiful solution

  • @aleksandervadla9881
    @aleksandervadla9881 Год назад +1

    Does the integral from 1 to inf of cos(logx)/x converge?

    • @maths_505
      @maths_505  Год назад +1

      The integral you're talking about is equivalent to int cos x from 0 to infinity which is divergent. Dirichlet's theorem doesn't work here because you just took a divergent integral and performed a u sub. It'll stay divergent.

  • @kgopotsomasela4627
    @kgopotsomasela4627 Год назад +1

    Can you give recommendation on texts on the differentiating under the integral

    • @maths_505
      @maths_505  Год назад +4

      Well you won't exactly find much on textbooks. Just try solving integrals using the technique. You'll get the hang of it (sorta) eventually.

    • @GGBOYZ583
      @GGBOYZ583 Год назад +1

      Google “Inside Interesting Integrals”, u will find a free online pdf of the whole book. Chapter 3 of this book gives a pretty good rundown of the technique, and some nice questions to solve. It also has answers at the back of the book.
      Pdf: galoisian.files.wordpress.com/2018/11/undergraduate-lecture-notes-in-physics-paul-j-nahin-inside-interesting-integrals-2015-springer-1.pdf

  • @mtl.wraith9981
    @mtl.wraith9981 Год назад +2

    would it be possible to integrate this function from 0 to infinity? the function converges, but i’m not sure how far that would get you during integration

    • @maths_505
      @maths_505  Год назад +2

      That's alot easier in fact.
      After differentiation you get the integral representation for Eular's reflection formula.

  • @trelosyiaellinika
    @trelosyiaellinika 5 месяцев назад

    I think we can simplify the answer further =ln(2ω/π)=ln(2G) [G the Gauss constant]

  • @Rory626
    @Rory626 Год назад

    Can you do this with a contour integral?

    • @maths_505
      @maths_505  Год назад +5

      Mate that's way too outrageous even for me😂

  • @yoav613
    @yoav613 Год назад +1

    Noice! I could solve it with no problems,because i am subscribed to mathematics mi channel ,who also solves nice integrals like this one.

  • @iqtrainer
    @iqtrainer 9 месяцев назад

    Similar to the one solved by PK

  • @軒軒-n9l
    @軒軒-n9l Год назад

    I have a question at 2:14.
    You said that the integral is convergence since it's the product of bounded function and the decreasing function.
    How do you get this result?

    • @maths_505
      @maths_505  Год назад +2

      That's just Dirichlet's convergence theorem

    • @軒軒-n9l
      @軒軒-n9l Год назад

      @@maths_505 Nice! Thanks for helping!

    • @okeizh
      @okeizh Год назад

      Except that to apply Dirichlet, the decreasing function needs to be non-negative and 1/ln x isn't non-negative, so there's a problem here with the proof.

    • @okeizh
      @okeizh Год назад

      The fix is to show that (x^a - 1)/ln x is continuous and therefore bounded on (0,1). The zero of the numerator cancels the pole from one over the denominator in the limit as we approach 1.

    • @okeizh
      @okeizh Год назад

      Just to add, l'Hôpital will give the value of the limit at 1.

  • @giuseppemalaguti435
    @giuseppemalaguti435 Год назад

    S(k=0 to inf)(-1)^k ln(2k+2/2k+1)=ln2-ln4/3+ln6/5-ln8/7+ln10/9...circa. 0,51(is correct)...