IBP failed me

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  • Опубликовано: 19 сен 2024
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Комментарии • 23

  • @doronezri1043
    @doronezri1043 7 дней назад +2

    Beautiful! Loved the geometric series and the Laplace Transform🍻

    • @owl3math
      @owl3math  7 дней назад

      Hi Doron. Thank you! 🙏

  • @waarschijn
    @waarschijn 7 дней назад +4

    The ζ is just a Z with a little curl between the first two strokes, and a little hook at the end.

    • @owl3math
      @owl3math  7 дней назад +3

      I know but I still can't draw it! 🤣🤣🤣 Honestly what has worked for me in the past was copying someone else's version of the symbol. Yeah math is hard. I wonder if people would be mad if i just draw a 'Z'

    • @maxvangulik1988
      @maxvangulik1988 7 дней назад +1

      @@owl3mathi do a loop at the top like maths 505

  • @codingmadeeasy3126
    @codingmadeeasy3126 6 дней назад +2

    I tried a different approach which seemed to work. First multiplied both the numerator and denominator by e^-x then chose 1-e^-x as u and then found that x^2 as (-ln(u+1))^2 which then I used IBP wherein I was going in circles thus I made use of the solution I and equated it with that like in the e^xsinx function integral. I don’t know if my approach is correct but that’s what I did. Also one thing to note is that I did it for the indefinite case since I don’t care for potentially transforming limits

  • @edcoad4930
    @edcoad4930 7 дней назад +2

    I had fun with this. Started with e^-x/e^-x and then made a sub u = 1-e^-x to get ln^2(1-u)/u. I then went down the feynmann rabbit hole and it got messy fast. However, I'm going to keep playing. Currently at I'(a) = integral of -2 ln(1-au)/u(1-au) which I can partially decompose and get some Li(x) function.

  • @joshpradhan3292
    @joshpradhan3292 6 дней назад +2

    funny enough i asked chatgpt for an integral a few days ago due to boredom and it gave me this same problem but with an x^3 in the numerator instead. Equally shocking is that it got the correct solution. We also encounter ζ(4) which has a known value of π^4 / 90 which is pretty nice in that integral.

    • @owl3math
      @owl3math  6 дней назад +1

      Hi Josh. Nice! The general formula is zeta(n+1). Well not exactly but something similar 😀

  • @alexkaralekas4060
    @alexkaralekas4060 6 дней назад +1

    My first thought was the gamma and zeta connection and the integral is ζ(3)Γ(3)

    • @owl3math
      @owl3math  6 дней назад

      Yep exactly! And that’s a nice way to express it

  • @adandap
    @adandap 7 дней назад +1

    I don't think that zeta(3) is any more or less unsatisfying than ln(3), sin(3), sqrt(3) or e^3. In every case it's a number that has to be approximated by some value if we want to use it to calculate a real world answer.

    • @owl3math
      @owl3math  7 дней назад

      Hey adandap. Yep agree. No issues with zeta(3) 👍

    • @owl3math
      @owl3math  7 дней назад +2

      When I stay up late I see that people really do comment at this time. I think because y’all are on UNSW time

    • @slavinojunepri7648
      @slavinojunepri7648 6 дней назад

      ​@@owl3math Are you in the US?

  • @Nangefootball
    @Nangefootball 5 дней назад +1

    bruh just remember zeta(s)=1/gamma(s)(integral 0 to+ ♾️ u^(s-1)/(e^u-1)

  • @harrydiv321
    @harrydiv321 6 дней назад +1

    LETS GOOOO

  • @dkravitz78
    @dkravitz78 7 дней назад +1

    Could have done all the same tricks with x on the top instead of x squared and had an actual solution

    • @owl3math
      @owl3math  7 дней назад +1

      Yep pi^2/6 time. I think I did that one before. I suppose that is more satisfying then a decimal solution.

  • @maxvangulik1988
    @maxvangulik1988 7 дней назад +1

    I=int[0,♾️](x^2•e^-x/(1-e^-x))dx
    1/(1-e^-x)=sum[k=0,♾️](e^-kx)
    I=int[0,♾️](x^2•sum[k=1,♾️](e^-kx))dx
    I=sum[k=1,♾️](int[0,♾️](x^2•e^-kx)dx)
    t=kx
    dt=kdx
    I=sum[k=1,♾️](k^-3•int[0,♾️](t^2•e^-t)dt)
    I=sum[k=1,♾️](2!/k^3)
    I=2•zeta(3)