Condition for Existence of Z-Transform

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  • Опубликовано: 4 фев 2025

Комментарии • 43

  • @phoenix-dt2uj
    @phoenix-dt2uj 2 года назад +20

    Neso , sometimes I just think, about how many students have been saved by this man!. 🔥
    U r really the saviour of students especially ece students

  • @reficeismail6520
    @reficeismail6520 4 года назад +22

    the first channel on youtube which starts from the basics honestly , You are very genius.
    Sir, pls upload all the lectures in signals and systems
    10. Discrete Fourier transform and Fast Fourier transform
    11. Digital filters
    12. Discrete cosine transform
    Please accept my sincere appreciation and respect

  • @mamandroid
    @mamandroid 5 лет назад +23

    Guys in the comment section who keep asking for more and quicker please stop. You've got to respect Neso for it's time he is giving away for us. We've got to appreciate what we're provided with!
    Thank you Neso Academy for all your videos ❤

  • @rajatchoudhary9106
    @rajatchoudhary9106 6 лет назад +18

    I'm not attending my the gate academy coaching classes and totally relying on your videos .
    please keep them coming.
    Complete signals and systems as soon as possible.
    And upload all the remaining videos before 1st july.
    God bless you Mr.Neso.

  • @mrumargaming000
    @mrumargaming000 8 месяцев назад

    I passed my mids from this man , now tomorrow will be my final and I have learnt many from this man's videos of Signals and Systems. Thank You Neso.

  • @anmolsoni2204
    @anmolsoni2204 4 года назад +3

    The great channel for engineers....thnku so much sir 🙏🙏😊😊😊😊😊

  • @tanaygupta632
    @tanaygupta632 5 лет назад +13

    Watch at 2X speed. Will be better for you.

  • @chaitanya6413
    @chaitanya6413 2 года назад +4

    6:53 why does [2(r^-1)] have to be less than 1 and greater than -1?

    • @hari-sn5jj
      @hari-sn5jj 11 месяцев назад +1

      I think it says that only when [2(r^-1)] is greater than -1 and less than 1 then the z transform exists

    • @noha284
      @noha284 6 месяцев назад +1

      But how do you know it’s -1 and 1, where did these numbers come from

    • @amaanjamal7744
      @amaanjamal7744 2 месяца назад

      @@noha284 its a property of geometric series.. when you add up to infinite terms and apply formula, then the mod of common ratio is less than 1.. watch previous lecture to understand.

  • @apostolosmavropoulos177
    @apostolosmavropoulos177 6 лет назад +4

    keep them coming!! thnk you!

  • @neniscarlet3880
    @neniscarlet3880 6 лет назад

    Thank you so much!!!!! Helped me a lot for my semester exam tomorrow!
    Keep up the good work!!! Wishing you with loads of luck!

  • @btechit4thyear396
    @btechit4thyear396 6 лет назад +8

    how |e power -j(omega)n|=1??

    • @ad_cool4435
      @ad_cool4435 6 лет назад +29

      euler form e^(-jwn)=cos(wn)-jsin(wn)
      So |e^(-jwn)|=sqrt(Cos^2 wn+Sin^2 wn )=1
      i think this is the ANS

  • @saivamshimarri6733
    @saivamshimarri6733 6 лет назад +1

    Sir in how many videos will you complete this chapter

  • @manishadas7434
    @manishadas7434 5 лет назад +2

    sir,e to the power minus jwn ka value 1 kyu ho jata hai????? please explain.

    • @manishadas7434
      @manishadas7434 5 лет назад +6

      oo sir mil gaya ans...
      euler form e^(-jwn)=cos(wn)-jsin(wn)
      So |e^(-jwn)|=sqrt(Cos^2 wn+Sin^2 wn )=1
      ye hoga na sir???

    • @sowjanyadevi6132
      @sowjanyadevi6132 5 лет назад +1

      Well said manisha das

    • @yaswanthvasu877
      @yaswanthvasu877 5 лет назад +1

      Tq

  • @ahnafhabib6693
    @ahnafhabib6693 5 лет назад

    What will be for x(n) = (1/3)^n.u(-n)?

  • @viveksingh7388
    @viveksingh7388 6 лет назад +8

    But why you take r=1 for dtft??

  • @khushmeetsingh1520
    @khushmeetsingh1520 5 лет назад +2

    How e-jwn is 1??

    • @josecarlosferreira4942
      @josecarlosferreira4942 2 года назад +5

      The absolut value is equal to 1.
      e^j(-wn) = cos(wn) - jsin(wn) [Euler's formula]
      |e ^j(-wn) | = |cos(wn) - j sin(wn)| = |cos(wn)^2 + sin(wn)^2 | = | 1 | = 1.

    • @dev-santhush
      @dev-santhush Год назад

      @@josecarlosferreira4942 THANK YOU BRO

  • @RickJankowski92
    @RickJankowski92 6 лет назад +1

    Why is e ^(-jwn) =1 ? 2:52

    • @eldhojohnmenachery7107
      @eldhojohnmenachery7107 6 лет назад +4

      modulus of e^(-jwn) is always 1 as e^(-jwn)=cos(jwn) - i*sin(jwn
      modulus of that complex number is always 1

  • @tulyagosetti6827
    @tulyagosetti6827 6 лет назад

    How the expanded term is less than infinite? At n = infinite there is a chance of getting infinite value, no?

    • @vavilapallisatyavenkatasan6563
      @vavilapallisatyavenkatasan6563 5 лет назад +3

      1+ x + x^2 + x^3 + ... till infinity, is finite if -1 (2), like an exponentially increasing curve.

    • @ReallyRandomMe
      @ReallyRandomMe 3 года назад +1

      As you can see the terms are fractions hence when they are summated they will always converge to some finite number since the condition for the z transform to exist is less than infinity which is a finite number.

  • @rationalthinker9612
    @rationalthinker9612 2 года назад

    Why are we letting r = 1 arbitrarily in the beginning?

  • @faisalnaveed-p2o
    @faisalnaveed-p2o 9 месяцев назад

    Residue theorem

  • @AP-hq8zd
    @AP-hq8zd 6 лет назад

    show that an=(1/6)5^n is a solution of nonhomogeneous recurrence relation an+2 -5an+1-6an=2^n....plz sir solved this problem. ....

  • @ishanbhardwaj9696
    @ishanbhardwaj9696 6 лет назад

    Srrrrrr opamp ko complete kya jayega kya analog mai ya sirf utna hi hai.... Pls help srr

    • @saranshgupta9119
      @saranshgupta9119 4 года назад

      Watch op amp vdos by t Natarajan sir on nptel

  • @rajatchoudhary9106
    @rajatchoudhary9106 6 лет назад +1

    Voice in the video is very low.
    Upload videos with louder voice.

  • @arunkantimandal3413
    @arunkantimandal3413 6 лет назад

    Existence

  • @LegumeFinder
    @LegumeFinder 6 лет назад

    how exp(-jwn)=1 ?

    • @eldhojohnmenachery7107
      @eldhojohnmenachery7107 6 лет назад +1

      modulus of e^(-jwn) is always 1 as e^(-jwn)=cos(jwn) - i*sin(jwn
      modulus of that complex number is always 1

    • @ajavindu
      @ajavindu Год назад

      Because mod is sq root a^2+b^2 for a complex number a+ib. Here it will be cos^2jwn +sin^2n which is 1

  • @adrenochromeaddict4232
    @adrenochromeaddict4232 9 месяцев назад

    it's transform not trans form ffs