Dear Mr Johnson, your tutorials are my staple and I religiously listen to you during lunchtime. While listening to your videos, I certainly am as happy as those who share the plunder! Thank you very much. Since I am certainly among those grammar geeks you address at times, I would like to bring to you this observation; Participle indeed do the act of describing nouns and thus, as you rightly say, they are adjectival. However, in examples such as 'Hunting tigers is a crime' hunting is not adjectival but phrasal in relation to the noun it stands next to. In another example, in I love swimming,' swimming is substatival and not adjectival. Similarly, in 'Having planted the saplings, the gardener was happy,' the participle is a full-blown phrase not an adjective, though it describes the gardener. So it appears, the participles can be either adjectival, phrasal and substantival and when restricted only to be adjectival, there seems to be a 'forced' meaning attached to a noun.
Thank you! What you're pointing out with "hunting tigers is a crime" actually is a part of speech different from participles called a gerund, even though it still ends in -ing, and it is indeed a noun. In Latin, the gerund is related to the gerundive (the future passive participle), so even in a different language there is an obvious connection between these parts of speech, but they are different. I don't have a video on gerunds (yet!), but you can learn about them on my old channel at this video (apologies for the intro music, that was a long time ago): ruclips.net/video/guLvSgdYtyY/видео.html Also, we can get around your second point by calling "having planted the saplings" a participial phrase. The participle itself is the "having planted" (in Latin this would be one word), which would take the accusative noun "the saplings". But you're right in thinking that a phrase can be substituted for a single participle "singing, the gardener was happy". Great questions, and keep up the hard work!
Oh, and also note that Latin prefers the use of the infinitive instead of gerunds when the -ing is the subject or object of a phrase. So "hunting tigers is a crime" would use the infinitive, agitare tigres est scelus, as would "I love swimming", amo natare. But the gerund is used in the genitive, dative, and ablative cases. "I have a love of swimming", habeo amorem natandi, and "we escaped the tigers by swimming", effugimus tigres natando.
Welcome to another ending confusion, brought to you by the English language. In your example, "hunting" is not a participle. It is a noun in the nominative case. You can rephrase this as "To hunt tigers is a crime". or "It is a crime to hunt tigers." In both instances, "to hunt tigers" is an infinitive, a verbal noun. The infinitive is neuter, hence "it". The infinitive is the nominative case of the gerund, which is the verbal noun used in all other cases.
I just recently found this channel and it's a life-saver! Would you mind if I put your channel in my school's JCL Torch (JCL publication) for one of our articles?
Shiva, is this along the lines of what you're asking about? dux mīlitem vulnerātum vīdit, the leader saw the wounded soldier, where vulnerātum is a perfect passive participle in the accusative case.
Just want to say thank you so much for these videos! Very well put together (quality), with logical explanations in logical order. Helped me get over the hurdle of understanding PPPs
Is there an easy way to tell an adjective from a noun in Latin. Since some endings could be either, is there a rule for adjectives that would clarify? Short of working it out and making sense of a sentence, I haven't found a "clue" to unlock that seeming mystery. :)
Pretty much (there are no real hard and fast rules with any languages). There might be a situation where there’s another word before the ablative, like a genitive or adverb (e.g., ā puellae villā, from the girl’s house, where the ablative is villā).
So can I say "Roma, a hostibus oppugnata, eos oppugnavit" (Rome, having been attacked by the enemies, attacked them)? I know this is very clunky, but for illustration and clarifcation purposes I used a very redundant seeming example.
+shiva Dogohary You couldn't directly translate it because English isn't an inflected language and we don't use endings to show information as Latin does. With a language such as Russian you could. In English you might say: 'The boy helped the horse, having been wounded' but you wouldn't know clearly whether the boy was wounded or the horse and would have to use the text or make an assumption. In latin: 'Puer equitum auxilium adiuvit, vulneratum'. (Provided I have not made any mistakes) equitum is the accusative (object) which vulneratum agrees with and is in the accusitive masculine singular form. The boy, 'Puer' is performing the action upon the horse who is wounded.
This is possible in English: The boy helped the wounded horse. "wounded" is a perfect passive participle describing horse. "Having been" isn't always necessary in a translation. In fact, it's rarely needed. We might use this phrase in class to help students see how the perfect passive participle is working, but it's rarely needed in an English sentence. Here's another example: Aeneas looked for the scattered ships. (the ships that were scattered). Aeneas naves dispersas quaesivit. naves dispersas = the scattered ships To add an ablative of means (explained near the end of the video): Aeneas looked for the ships scattered by the storm. Aeneas naves tempestate dispersas quaesivit.
@@latintutorial But what is an intransitive verb? And why wouldn't it have a passive form (are deponant verbs intransitive?) Can you give any latin or english examples? Thanks so much for your help!
@@leosimon8021 An intransitive verb is one that cannot or does not take an object, such as verbs that describe motion, position, or state of being. Examples in English would be "come," "go," "sit," and "be." Since only verbs that can take an object can be expressed in the passive voice, intransitive verbs cannot have passive forms, so they cannot have passive participles as their fourth form. Deponent verbs are an exception. Since they are passive in form but active in meaning, they can take objects (usually expressed by the Genitive rather than the Accusative) and are therefore technically transitive. HOWEVER, because deponents are always active in meaning despite being passive in form, they do not have perfect PASSIVE participles as their fourth form. Instead, they have what regular transitive verbs CANNOT have -- a perfect ACTIVE participle.
The accusative case shows the recipient of the action, but with a passive participle the noun described is receiving the action, no matter what case it is in. The ablative of agent or means is used to show the doer of the action (e.g., having been wounded by the soldier, the act wounding comes "from the soldier").
That was helpful, thank you very much! Bdw I told my latin teacher about your hexameter platform and I think he will advice us to register on your webside soon :)
it's because the perfect participle is passive in nature, so it can't take a direct object. That precludes the use of the accusative, which is the case of direct object. The ablative of agent and the ablative of means are not used to designate the direct object of the verb but the person or thing responsible for causing the state resulting from the action expressed by the verb.
Not in standard classical pronunciation. It represents the rough breathing of the Greeks, so isn't silent. Victorinus: h non esse litteram, sed notam adspirationis tradidit.
@Fernando Vinny, there are two types of Latin pronunciation (spelled with a c, not a t btw ), classical and ecclesiastical. You might be familiar with one while @latintutorial is familiar with another
participles= Verbjectives
Dear Mr Johnson, your tutorials are my staple and I religiously listen to you during lunchtime. While listening to your videos, I certainly am as happy as those who share the plunder! Thank you very much. Since I am certainly among those grammar geeks you address at times, I would like to bring to you this observation; Participle indeed do the act of describing nouns and thus, as you rightly say, they are adjectival. However, in examples such as 'Hunting tigers is a crime' hunting is not adjectival but phrasal in relation to the noun it stands next to. In another example, in I love swimming,' swimming is substatival and not adjectival. Similarly, in 'Having planted the saplings, the gardener was happy,' the participle is a full-blown phrase not an adjective, though it describes the gardener. So it appears, the participles can be either adjectival, phrasal and substantival and when restricted only to be adjectival, there seems to be a 'forced' meaning attached to a noun.
Thank you! What you're pointing out with "hunting tigers is a crime" actually is a part of speech different from participles called a gerund, even though it still ends in -ing, and it is indeed a noun. In Latin, the gerund is related to the gerundive (the future passive participle), so even in a different language there is an obvious connection between these parts of speech, but they are different. I don't have a video on gerunds (yet!), but you can learn about them on my old channel at this video (apologies for the intro music, that was a long time ago): ruclips.net/video/guLvSgdYtyY/видео.html
Also, we can get around your second point by calling "having planted the saplings" a participial phrase. The participle itself is the "having planted" (in Latin this would be one word), which would take the accusative noun "the saplings". But you're right in thinking that a phrase can be substituted for a single participle "singing, the gardener was happy".
Great questions, and keep up the hard work!
Oh, and also note that Latin prefers the use of the infinitive instead of gerunds when the -ing is the subject or object of a phrase. So "hunting tigers is a crime" would use the infinitive, agitare tigres est scelus, as would "I love swimming", amo natare. But the gerund is used in the genitive, dative, and ablative cases. "I have a love of swimming", habeo amorem natandi, and "we escaped the tigers by swimming", effugimus tigres natando.
Welcome to another ending confusion, brought to you by the English language. In your example, "hunting" is not a participle. It is a noun in the nominative case. You can rephrase this as "To hunt tigers is a crime". or "It is a crime to hunt tigers." In both instances, "to hunt tigers" is an infinitive, a verbal noun. The infinitive is neuter, hence "it". The infinitive is the nominative case of the gerund, which is the verbal noun used in all other cases.
i love that i need this video as i always play games during lockdown latin lessons
kids dont do what i did
It’s 11:43 pm, latin test tomorrow, Haven’t started studying until now
Thanks, my latin teacher made us do last 3 lesions by ourselves and didn't explain them for test.
happens a lot
that’s rough
rip@@sokisoko_
@latintutorial thanks so much I had a quiz next class and this really helped
Thanks for these videos! They are great!
You are a godsend mr. Latin tutorial.
Thanks I have a test tomorrow:)
I just recently found this channel and it's a life-saver! Would you mind if I put your channel in my school's JCL Torch (JCL publication) for one of our articles?
That would be fantastic. Thanks for the free press, and good luck with Latin and JCL this year!
Thanks, that was a good explanation.
Thisman has saved my life like yk parental pressure and depression idk how hes so smart but iwould fail latin with out thus
Shiva, is this along the lines of what you're asking about? dux mīlitem vulnerātum vīdit, the leader saw the wounded soldier, where vulnerātum is a perfect passive participle in the accusative case.
Just want to say thank you so much for these videos! Very well put together (quality), with logical explanations in logical order. Helped me get over the hurdle of understanding PPPs
Thanks!
that really helps thanks bro . I really appreciate it .
Thanks Ben👍
ty so much have test tmrw this is gonna help so much
I finally got it, Thanks!
no problem my dude
no worries
thank you 🦶🙏🙏🙏
This is really helpful and clear: I would like to share it with my Latin class. Is that OK?
GCSE Latin verbs will be the death of me
Is there an easy way to tell an adjective from a noun in Latin. Since some endings could be either, is there a rule for adjectives that would clarify? Short of working it out and making sense of a sentence, I haven't found a "clue" to unlock that seeming mystery. :)
Context matters.
So does this mean any words that follows a or ab is an ablative?
Pretty much (there are no real hard and fast rules with any languages). There might be a situation where there’s another word before the ablative, like a genitive or adverb (e.g., ā puellae villā, from the girl’s house, where the ablative is villā).
what do you do if there's no fourth principle part?
Then that verb doesn’t have a perfect passive participle!
So can I say "Roma, a hostibus oppugnata, eos oppugnavit" (Rome, having been attacked by the enemies, attacked them)? I know this is very clunky, but for illustration and clarifcation purposes I used a very redundant seeming example.
What would be an example of the accusative case perfect participle passive in English?
+shiva Dogohary You couldn't directly translate it because English isn't an inflected language and we don't use endings to show information as Latin does. With a language such as Russian you could. In English you might say: 'The boy helped the horse, having been wounded' but you wouldn't know clearly whether the boy was wounded or the horse and would have to use the text or make an assumption. In latin: 'Puer equitum auxilium adiuvit, vulneratum'. (Provided I have not made any mistakes) equitum is the accusative (object) which vulneratum agrees with and is in the accusitive masculine singular form. The boy, 'Puer' is performing the action upon the horse who is wounded.
This is possible in English:
The boy helped the wounded horse. "wounded" is a perfect passive participle describing horse. "Having been" isn't always necessary in a translation. In fact, it's rarely needed. We might use this phrase in class to help students see how the perfect passive participle is working, but it's rarely needed in an English sentence.
Here's another example:
Aeneas looked for the scattered ships. (the ships that were scattered).
Aeneas naves dispersas quaesivit.
naves dispersas = the scattered ships
To add an ablative of means (explained near the end of the video):
Aeneas looked for the ships scattered by the storm.
Aeneas naves tempestate dispersas quaesivit.
I want to play Elden Ring
But Why do Some Verbs not have a 4th principal part?
Please Help!!
Those would likely be verbs that don't have passive forms (so, intransitive verbs).
@@latintutorial But what is an intransitive verb? And why wouldn't it have a passive form (are deponant verbs intransitive?) Can you give any latin or english examples?
Thanks so much for your help!
@@leosimon8021 An intransitive verb is one that cannot or does not take an object, such as verbs that describe motion, position, or state of being. Examples in English would be "come," "go," "sit," and "be." Since only verbs that can take an object can be expressed in the passive voice, intransitive verbs cannot have passive forms, so they cannot have passive participles as their fourth form.
Deponent verbs are an exception. Since they are passive in form but active in meaning, they can take objects (usually expressed by the Genitive rather than the Accusative) and are therefore technically transitive. HOWEVER, because deponents are always active in meaning despite being passive in form, they do not have perfect PASSIVE participles as their fourth form. Instead, they have what regular transitive verbs CANNOT have -- a perfect ACTIVE participle.
@@legaleagle46 Thanks!
Why is the ablative and not the accusative used? Is it just another latin grammar rule because most languages don't have an ablative case?
The accusative case shows the recipient of the action, but with a passive participle the noun described is receiving the action, no matter what case it is in. The ablative of agent or means is used to show the doer of the action (e.g., having been wounded by the soldier, the act wounding comes "from the soldier").
That was helpful, thank you very much! Bdw I told my latin teacher about your hexameter platform and I think he will advice us to register on your webside soon :)
it's because the perfect participle is passive in nature, so it can't take a direct object. That precludes the use of the accusative, which is the case of direct object. The ablative of agent and the ablative of means are not used to designate the direct object of the verb but the person or thing responsible for causing the state resulting from the action expressed by the verb.
Who in mr halls set 3rd form
W video W life
what happens if you add esse? does that change the translation?
so do you just use the fourth principal part as an adjective, or do you have to add a form of sum with it also? please help!
Why is there no Present Passive participle or Perfect Active participle for all non-deponents? I am really confused by this.
That's just the way Latin works.
perfect active participle is literally just past tense
@@vergilfan6818 bro i haven't taken Latin in years now. This was a throwback
Hi
I thought you had to have the participle and a form of the verb sum?
At 2:02 what is Nom, Gen, Dat, Acc, and Abl next the the words?
Those are abbreviations for the cases in Latin.
if u dont know these u probs shouldnt be watching this video lmfao
Who in Mr Monahan Class🤔🤔🤔🤔
Can the perfect passive participle also be used in this case: "Hic liber non habet nullam latinam scriptam"?
And just for clarification, the sentence is supposed to say "this book doesn't have any written Latin".
👍
hi
"H" from "hostis" or "homus" is silent.
Not in standard classical pronunciation. It represents the rough breathing of the Greeks, so isn't silent. Victorinus: h non esse litteram, sed notam adspirationis tradidit.
h is always pronounced in latin
its not french
Your pronuntiation is full of terrible anglicisms. The "u" is not like the "u" in "us",
@Fernando Vinny, there are two types of Latin pronunciation (spelled with a c, not a t btw ), classical and ecclesiastical. You might be familiar with one while @latintutorial is familiar with another
@@evaboutros2470 neither uses the u of "us"