Do INTERVALS Have Root Notes?
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- Опубликовано: 29 сен 2024
- Should one of the notes in an interval be considered the root note? Is there any benefit in finding the 'root' of an interval? Yes, and yes! Stay tuned to learn more.
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This probably completely contradicts your intended purpose, but as a keyboardist, I completely enjoy your videos. Especially those without a fretboard.
Years ago, the reason I switched from guitar to keys was every instructor I had relied completely on rote, without any why. (Very Basic Music Theory) Who knows, maybe if i had found someone who could explain things like you, I may have never switched.
But I found that "visualizing" the underlining theory was so much easier on a piano than a guitar. Viola, I guess that's the point, and I'm not really contradicting your intention.
Please excuse me, but as a keyboardist, I may be a little slow. 😊Anyway, I absolutely enjoy your channel and will continue watching, fretboard, or not!
I am not sending people away just because they play another instrument! All are welcome!! And I'm really happy to read comment like yours!
Why my message has been deleted? I think i will report this kind of practice
... you mean a comment? On this video? I did not see any comment from you on this video. And I am definitely NOT in the habit of deleting comments.
I just checked, and I don't see any comment from you even under the "held for review" tab (YT automatically filters comments, I usually approve them all)
This requires the assumption of tertian harmony, no? To an outsider, where these types of chords do not exist, this falls apart. Personally, when I think of the root note of an interval, it is always the bass note until proven otherwise, through the context in which the interval is played.
No, it does not require the assumption of tertian harmony. Just he consideration that tertian triads are more consonant than other groups of notes. I'll make a video on that.
Hi Tomasso, in a tritone interval, which note is considered the root? Is it always the bottom note? Or can either note be the root? Thank you.
Either note can be the root. The tritone being symmetric, we can't properly define the notion of a single root for it.
Thank you very much, Tomasso, for the clarification! Much appreciated.
What a Great lesson..thank you for your support ✌️☮️💜
This all depends on how well developed your inner ear is. Your explanation is certainly a good foundation. A lot of what we understand about functional harmony and what we hear is dependent on the harmonic language understood by the listener. How accustomed ones ear is to more and more complex relationships. Most people's ear is basic (not a bad thing).
Wether the listener is conscious of it or not, depends on how much they trained their ear. But it's happening anyway, whether they know it or not. Music still "makes sense" to them even if they do not know how to consciously identify a root - which means that their ear is still identifying a root.
You can use musical quotes for educational purposes right? Rick Beato has a Phd on this subject.
Rick is not a lawyer, and I am not taking legal advice from RUclips.
My theory is that what we feel as the "root" of an isolated interval is the root of the implied harmony, and that the implied chord by two notes tends to be the one which, when constructing a chord in thirds from one of the notes, would take less stacked thirds to reach both notes of the interval. I think that's what results to be "the simplest chord", and it fits with your examples. P.S. I'm excluding intervals that don't occur naturally in the major scale; I highly doubt a diminished seven wouldn't be percieved as a major sixth.
Yes, but what if you grew up in a place where quartal harmony is "implied"?
Hello Tomasso, so nice to see you! One point - the odd/even number rule collapses above an octave. 2nd becomes a 9th etc., so it's no longer an odd number with a bottom note being a root, it's the other way around.
Yes, intervals need to be reduced to inside the octave for the even/odd rule to work
Yeps. Until the bass player decides otherwise.
Many guitarists don't realize we're not really the ones in the drivers seat. lols
bass note =/= root note
@@MusicTheoryForGuitar If the guitar plays C and E and the bass plays A, would you really consider C to be the root note?
@dilemmacubing If I make a video on what is the root when only 2 notes are played, and people try to prove me wrong with an example in which 3 notes are played, am I really wrong? ;-)
🤣(from a bass player)
I totaly agree at 9:12, your conclusion. Your ear IS the ‘’master’’ and was builded with the physicals properties of sound in the nature. Truth is, when you’re listenning to C on Bass and a B on high you heard a CM7. But if you play C and B on Bass you get a lot of confusion cause there’s no root, except if a Bass player give you a big C on your ears, you will hear a CM7 again. If you just play D on Bass and B on high , you are playing Dorien…Inversion of interval work better on high register cause you’re not listenning to a Bass note and so, root note is no longer obvious. You can now play Jazz 😄
???
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I notice the one interval you didn't cover is the dreaded tritone (dim5 or aug4). Here, though, the implied root is neither of the tones themselves and is actually ambiguous, since it can be the note a maj3 away from either the bottom or the top. (This ambiguity, and the corresponding implied ambiguity of its harmonic resolution, is why the early Christian church banned the tritone for several hundred years.)
The tritone was not banned ;-) Either way, since the tritone is enharmonically symmetrical, the root is simply ill-defined (like you say).
@@MusicTheoryForGuitar It was banned for several centuries in the early Catholic church, absolutely. Where do you think Gregorian chants came from?
Well, so it should not be difficult for you to find the original document (in latin, signed by a pope or a cardinal or other ecclesiastic authority) that bans the tritone. The Catholic Church documents everything, and scans of the documents are readily available. In absence of that document, we are just discussing gossip from secondary, unreliable sources.
@@MusicTheoryForGuitarIf we're going to talk about enharmonic intervals (and I was going to bring this up elsewhere), there's an even bigger problem: what is the root of an augmented 5 (say, C and G#)? The C. What is the root of a minor 6th (C and Ab)? Ab. Yet both intervals have 8 half steps.
I suspect that the answer is "context", but that doesn't help if you play a C and a note 8 half-steps above that C in isolation.
@@christopherheckman7957 In isolation, and without context, your ear interprets that sound as a minor 6th. When there is doubt, the ear always goes for the most consonant interpretation. So the Ab will be perceived as the root.
The tritone is different because both interpretations (dim4 and aug4) are equally as dissonant.
If instead there is a context (i.e. previous sounds) you can force the C-G# interpretation. It's tricky to do (and left as an exercise to the reader), but possible.
If you are thinking that "but it's the same number of half-steps, why a difference in name makes a difference in what is the root?" then you did not understand (yet) how the ear interprets the sound. It does not matter if the objective stimulus is the same (an interval of 8 half-steps): your ear perceives a min6 differently than an aug5 because it's trying to compress (in the information-theoretical sense) the signal (hence, it "prefers" consonant interpretations). What you "hear" is NOT the raw sound, but the compressed version your ear encoded which includes the context.
Basically, most of basic music theory takes into account all this in the theory of intervals. We have this strange system of sharps and flats because that's how your ear ACTUALLY perceives/elaborates the sound.
When music theory stops becoming useful...
When people confuse: "I can't see any application of this idea" with: "there is no application of this idea".
2:05 Well, that beats Punxsutawney Phil (who has a 30% record).
3:27 A is an "undertone"?
Why does the ear hear notes in this way? Is it from just physics, or is it because harmony in thirds is what we are used to hearing? IOW, if someone grew up only hearing quartal harmony, would they say the root of the interval C-F is actually a C?
The "why" is long (I explained the basic in the answer to another comment of yours to this video). But basically... no, even if you grew up with quartal harmony, that would not happen. The triads have a fundamental physical property that seems to drive the ear's compression algorithm. It's interesting, but we'd have to go technical to explain it, and I really don't have THAT much time! ;-)
But I'll make a video on why triads are special.
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