1 Corinthians 7:10 -11 is the same teaching as Matthew 19. A wife is not to divorce her husband, but if she does she is to "remain unmarried" or "be reconciled to her husband". There is no authority to marry someone else. Not sure I understand the second part of the question about how God would see each person under the flesh after divorce. Can you clarify?
@@ShadowR-jz2cw I guess my confusion is the idea that “God sees” the marriage as one flesh. The Bible doesn’t say that God sees the marriage as one flesh, it says the two become one flesh, and then Jesus says, “what God has joined together, let no man separate” (Matthew 19:6). That means man does not have the authority to separate what God had joined together. So any subsequent marriage to another would be adultery. If man were to separate a marriage God had joined together (accept for sexual immortality), the only approved options are to remained unmarried or rejoin the marriage that God joined together (1 Corinthians 7:10-11). If a marriage is separated because of sexual immorality, God has authorized the separation for the innocent party, and that party has the authority of God to be married to another eligible mate. If both are eligible to be married, the two become one flesh.
😮good teaching except you lack one thing...divorce for adultery was already a common practice and would not have elicited such a response from the disciples. His TEACHING of NO divorce and remarriage was more radical than what you teach. If you go to Jeremiah 3, you will see that Jesus taught that NOT EVEN ADULTERY ENDED the marriage Covenant. The LORD uses the same "They say" ..."but I say" to abrogate what Israel believes about divorce and remarriage. Fornication is only applicable to the Jewish Betrothal and can NOT be conducted outside of a Jewish betrothal. Fornication is NOT adultery and adultery is NOT Fornication. These two sins are listed side by side because they are NOT the same and were NEVER used as the SAME thing. It is a charge of immorality BEFORE the actual marriage takes place. Please revise your teaching and it will be perfect. God Bless you.
Thank you for the comment. Jeremiah 3 is talking about Israel and Judah leaving God, not the marriage relationship. God uses the marriage relationship as an illustration of their idolatry and relationship with God, but to take an illustration and create a regulation about marriage and divorce is to do injustice to the text. God also used a similar illustration with Hosea. I do not agree with your assertion that fornication is not adultery and adultery is not fornication. Fornication is a broad category in which adultery is a sin within. Also within the category of fornication is homosexuality, beastieality, and incest. if you look at the way fornication is used in Paul’s letters, you understand it is a broad category of sexual sins, of which adultery is one. Finally, Jesus gives the exception in Matthew 19. To say that Jesus did not give it or it only applies to betrothal is to also do injustice to the text. Matthew is the word for betrothal in Matthew 1, he certainly could have used it here if Jesus meant betrothal. But He did not use that word. He used the word for marriage, and not only that, but Jesus doesn’t go to the Jewish betrothal as his argument, but to the beginning of creation with Adam and Eve. Not Jewish betrothal, but beginning of creation. So I won’t be amending what I teach as my understanding has not changed.
@@womanatwellworshiptheFather Why would you attack me rather than the argument? I gave you scriptures and logical arguments and rather than address that, you resort to name calling. Interesting.
@@brightangelchurchofchrist8145 not ONLY Jeremiah 3, but God models what He is saying through Hosea. To say that God's dealings with Israel have nothing to do with physical marriage is to deny that marriage is a TYPE of the Gospel which is clearly taught. Marriage is EXACTLY how Jesus deals with His Bride. There is ALSO A BETROTHAL STAGE. I did NOT say Jesus wasn't talking about MARRIAGE but He was talking about a STAGE OF MARRIAGE which the GENTILES do not have. The betrothal stage. He was saying EXCEPT FOR A CHARGE OF FORNICATION in the betrothal stage, a man can NOT divorce and remarry and whoever marries a DIVORCED person commits adultery. Both words are used because they mean TWO different things. A betrothed wife was STILL A WIFE. but if she committed sexual acts, it was FORNICATION. if after the TIME THE GROOM could repudiate her for a charge of FORNICATION passed...after the time she presented her virginity tokens, then any sexual act not with her husband was considered adultery. GENTILES have no fornication clause. Also THIS CHARGE could not apply to widows ..as there would be no EXPECTATION of virginity
@@brightangelchurchofchrist8145 i gave scripture back. See Jesus said they were NEVER AGAIN two people on earth. They became ONE. Adultery does Not Sever the Covenant or else the woman in Rom 7:2-3 would NOT be an adulteress. Notice she is not committing porneia but adultery. It is because she IS PAST the point of betrothal marriage. As we wait on Jesus Christ, our Groom, we are to keep ourselves PURE AND UNDEFILED so we will not get dismissed from Him for porneia.
I’m not sure I can give you a straight forward answer and this is my opinion. I believe it would depend on the situation. I know of some couples who have severed the marriage relationship, but for some other reason (financial mostly) have not divorced from the state. But they are not husband and wife. I believe that would be acceptable based on Matthew 19, but again that is my opinion and each person must evaluate their situation and know they will have to answer to God for their actions.
What about the verse where it says except you reconcile back to your spouse? Also how wound God see each person under the flesh after divorced?
1 Corinthians 7:10 -11 is the same teaching as Matthew 19. A wife is not to divorce her husband, but if she does she is to "remain unmarried" or "be reconciled to her husband". There is no authority to marry someone else. Not sure I understand the second part of the question about how God would see each person under the flesh after divorce. Can you clarify?
@@ShadowR-jz2cw I guess my confusion is the idea that “God sees” the marriage as one flesh. The Bible doesn’t say that God sees the marriage as one flesh, it says the two become one flesh, and then Jesus says, “what God has joined together, let no man separate” (Matthew 19:6). That means man does not have the authority to separate what God had joined together. So any subsequent marriage to another would be adultery. If man were to separate a marriage God had joined together (accept for sexual immortality), the only approved options are to remained unmarried or rejoin the marriage that God joined together (1 Corinthians 7:10-11). If a marriage is separated because of sexual immorality, God has authorized the separation for the innocent party, and that party has the authority of God to be married to another eligible mate. If both are eligible to be married, the two become one flesh.
😮good teaching except you lack one thing...divorce for adultery was already a common practice and would not have elicited such a response from the disciples. His TEACHING of NO divorce and remarriage was more radical than what you teach. If you go to Jeremiah 3, you will see that Jesus taught that NOT EVEN ADULTERY ENDED the marriage Covenant. The LORD uses the same "They say" ..."but I say" to abrogate what Israel believes about divorce and remarriage.
Fornication is only applicable to the Jewish Betrothal and can NOT be conducted outside of a Jewish betrothal. Fornication is NOT adultery and adultery is NOT Fornication. These two sins are listed side by side because they are NOT the same and were NEVER used as the SAME thing.
It is a charge of immorality BEFORE the actual marriage takes place. Please revise your teaching and it will be perfect. God Bless you.
Thank you for the comment. Jeremiah 3 is talking about Israel and Judah leaving God, not the marriage relationship. God uses the marriage relationship as an illustration of their idolatry and relationship with God, but to take an illustration and create a regulation about marriage and divorce is to do injustice to the text. God also used a similar illustration with Hosea.
I do not agree with your assertion that fornication is not adultery and adultery is not fornication. Fornication is a broad category in which adultery is a sin within. Also within the category of fornication is homosexuality, beastieality, and incest. if you look at the way fornication is used in Paul’s letters, you understand it is a broad category of sexual sins, of which adultery is one. Finally, Jesus gives the exception in Matthew 19. To say that Jesus did not give it or it only applies to betrothal is to also do injustice to the text. Matthew is the word for betrothal in Matthew 1, he certainly could have used it here if Jesus meant betrothal. But He did not use that word. He used the word for marriage, and not only that, but Jesus doesn’t go to the Jewish betrothal as his argument, but to the beginning of creation with Adam and Eve. Not Jewish betrothal, but beginning of creation.
So I won’t be amending what I teach as my understanding has not changed.
@@brightangelchurchofchrist8145 that is a response I expect of a hardened heart.
@@womanatwellworshiptheFather Why would you attack me rather than the argument? I gave you scriptures and logical arguments and rather than address that, you resort to name calling. Interesting.
@@brightangelchurchofchrist8145 not ONLY Jeremiah 3, but God models what He is saying through Hosea. To say that God's dealings with Israel have nothing to do with physical marriage is to deny that marriage is a TYPE of the Gospel which is clearly taught. Marriage is EXACTLY how Jesus deals with His Bride. There is ALSO A BETROTHAL STAGE.
I did NOT say Jesus wasn't talking about MARRIAGE but He was talking about a STAGE OF MARRIAGE which the GENTILES do not have. The betrothal stage. He was saying EXCEPT FOR A CHARGE OF FORNICATION in the betrothal stage, a man can NOT divorce and remarry and whoever marries a DIVORCED person commits adultery.
Both words are used because they mean TWO different things.
A betrothed wife was STILL A WIFE. but if she committed sexual acts, it was FORNICATION.
if after the TIME THE GROOM could repudiate her for a charge of FORNICATION passed...after the time she presented her virginity tokens, then any sexual act not with her husband was considered adultery.
GENTILES have no fornication clause. Also THIS CHARGE could not apply to widows ..as there would be no EXPECTATION of virginity
@@brightangelchurchofchrist8145 i gave scripture back. See Jesus said they were NEVER AGAIN two people on earth. They became ONE. Adultery does Not Sever the Covenant or else the woman in Rom 7:2-3 would NOT be an adulteress. Notice she is not committing porneia but adultery. It is because she IS PAST the point of betrothal marriage.
As we wait on Jesus Christ, our Groom, we are to keep ourselves PURE AND UNDEFILED so we will not get dismissed from Him for porneia.
If you are in an unscriptural marriage, is just leaving the marriage enough or do you have to get another divorce?
I’m not sure I can give you a straight forward answer and this is my opinion. I believe it would depend on the situation. I know of some couples who have severed the marriage relationship, but for some other reason (financial mostly) have not divorced from the state. But they are not husband and wife. I believe that would be acceptable based on Matthew 19, but again that is my opinion and each person must evaluate their situation and know they will have to answer to God for their actions.