@Iyas kelu im happy to say that his arguments miss the mark, but just to be clear when i say "deceptive" i mean "knows full well he is saying something false but says it anyways" which is different from "has a bad argument that does not represent Christianity well." Do you think it's the first one or the second one? And if it's the first one why do you think he is intentionally lying about Christianity I do want to be clear that I am not here to say that all of his arguments are good, he's obviously an idealogue (i am an atheist and his "the only reason you date the book of Daniel and the second half of Isaiah late is because the prophecies are too true" is just a mega eye roll at this point...bad argument that misses the point, it's more indepth than the superficial circular argument about how "prophecy cant happen therefore prophecy cant happen" that he is talking about) but i dont think he knows full well he is lying when he says dumbs stuff about atheist critical scholars, just tht he picks up bad arguments that are convenient for him so he can just believe them and not pick them apart further. So do you think he is coming up with a lie that he knows is a lie, or do you think he just has bad arguments that he believes because they work for him? And if it's the first one, why do you think he is lying?
When I first encountered this objection a couple years ago, my faith was definitely shaken. But then I found Dr. Brown and his masterful explanation of the Scripture and thorough answers cleared my mind of any doubt
Hi, let me warn you, you will find objections from whoever has not accepted Jesus as the promised Messiah, it will be always like that, but the true, unshakeable truth is that Jesus is the Messiah and will come for a second time as promised too.amen
@@Viral_Christology It doesn’t sound like you actually listened to what Dr Brown said. His counterpoints clearly refute Singer’s arguments. Dr Brown makes clear Singer’s arguments do not agree with historic Rabbinic interpretation. Leviticus clearly teaches only an unblemished animal is acceptable as an offering for sin. Not even the remnant of Israel is unblemished by sin, so how can they qualify as “guilt” offering for sin? Please read Isaiah 52:13-53:12 for yourself. It is clearly speaking of an individual.
I love the way this man explains the Holy Scriptures, he is a man for the hour, a great one to study under, thanks Dr. Brown, you´re a God send! Viewing and learning from Guatemala, C.A.🙏
I viewed this over a year ago . . . I think 3 times. Today, in listening again, it's like the 1st time. I'll probably have to view it a few more times because there's so much in it and you speak fast. Very good and understandable after repeated hearing. 😊
According to the Christian Bible, the sacrificial system has come to an end, because Jesus is the final sacrifice. It says this in Hebrews chapter 10 verse 18 and Romans chapter 6 In Ezekiel 45 the Messiah (prince) will bring a sin offering for his own sins and the sins of the people in verses, 16-22. I would like to know from Christians why would the Messiah be bringing a sin offering on behalf of his own sins if the Messiah never sinned and is sinless?
@@jamilbiotech91 Thank you sweetheart for asking. Yes, the sacrificial system ended on that day that our sweet Lord Jesus Christ hung dead and bleeding on that Cross for us all and attested to by the VEIL of the Holy of Holies being rent from top to bottom by God our Father Himself [Matt 27:51-53] (ie God saying IT'S DONE, IT'S FINISHED, this is Now OBSOLETE, I don't need this anymore). Also, the True Messiah of God (Jesus Christ) is SINLESS. First because He was the BEGINNING OF THE NEW CREATION of God, that is His body was FORMED as a New Creation [NO FERTILIZATION, Mary's Ova was not involved and no sperms natural/supernatural. ie there was no fusing of any chromosomes ie (NOT [sperm + ova = embryo] AND NOT [ova + Supernatural sperm = embryo]) whatsoever. Jesus Christ was therefore neither a half or full son of Adam whatsoever, but He was the Lord from heaven (1 Cor 15:45-47). He was rather, 100% the Word of the Father FORMED in a Body of Flesh (John 1:14) ie (100% Word of the Father + 100% Spirit of the Father [the Holy Ghost] = JESUS CHRIST of Nazareth). Therefore, in reality Jesus Christ has no earthly Father nor Mother except God the Holy Spirit (Matt 1:8)] Melchizedek was a type of Him (Hebrew 7:3). He has no genealogy whatsoever, don't mind those in Matthew and Luke (those are FAITH genealogies). After His birth, His life was absolutely SINLESS unto His Death and Resurrection. So, He (Jesus Christ) was both sinless by conception and birth (Psalm 51:5) and lifestyle (Rom 3:23) before God the Father as God Himself testified "This is My Beloved Son in Whom I am well please". With no other Man right from Adam to all his descendants (all humanity) had/has God the Father ever been "WELL PLEASED". Finally, Ezekiel 45:16 - 22 is NOT about the PRINCE (Messiah, the Prince of Peace [Isaiah 9:6] who Reigns for EVER) [please read from Ezekiel 44] AND it's not a future PROPHECY but rather, they were ORDINANCES AND STATUES for the temple worship that the LORD gave Ezekiel to give to not just ONE prince, BUT for all the PEOPLE, PRIESTS AND PRINCES of Israel to observe at that time NOT for the FUTURE. This was the commandment from the LORD for all the Princes of the Tribes of Israel and even any overall prince of the people then not the FUTURE. God bless you. Shalom!!!
@@danielukpong4675 You are mistaken greatly. Ezekiel 45 speaks of the temple being fully restored. In Ezekiel 44 the prince (the messiah) will have his own appointed land. For you to say this isn’t a prophecy shows your lack of understanding the Hebrew Scriptures Ezekiel 40-48 speaks of the temple being rebuilt In chapter 40 Ezkeil describes the vision he is seeing: ”In visions of God he took me to the land of Israel and set me on a very high mountain, on whose south side were some buildings that looked like a city. He took me there, and I saw a man whose appearance was like bronze; he was standing in the gateway with a linen cord and a measuring rod in his hand. The man said to me, “Son of man, look carefully and listen closely and pay attention to everything I am going to show you, for that is why you have been brought here. Tell the people of Israel everything you see.”“ Ezekiel 40:2-4 NIV How is this not a prophecy? As for the order of Melchizedek, The author of Hebrews has misconstrued Psalm 110 as a reference to Jesus. The biblically unsound arguments presented are vain attempts to prove that Jesus was more than a mere mortal. It is maintained that Jesus did not have the Aaronic priesthood, but did possess the Melchizedek priesthood and thereby could offer up himself as a sacrifice. The claim that Jesus held a priesthood “according to the order of Melchizedek” is irrelevant to any discussion of sacrifice made under the Torah. It is the Torah that Jesus is said to have fulfilled and nullified by offering up himself (Hebrews 7:27). The so-called “better covenant” (Hebrews 7:22) allegedly instituted by Jesus and its accompanying everlasting Melchizedek priesthood have to do with Christian beliefs concerning Jesus after his death. A non-Aaronic order of priesthood has no relevancy to the requirements of the Torah. Moreover, what are the ordinances of the priestly “order of Melchizedek”? The New Testament claims that Jesus fulfilled and nullified the law by offering up himself as a sacrifice. According to the description it provides, this came about in a manner that runs counter to the Torah. Yet, the claim is made that everything Jesus did was in accordance with the Torah. This is a New Testament conundrum. To the rest of us, it is obvious that this New Testament claim has no basis in fact. Concerning the Messiah, God says: And I will set up one shepherd over them, and he shall feed them, even My servant David; he shall feed them, and he shall be their shepherd. And I the Lord will be their God. And My servant David prince among them; I the Lord have spoken. (Ezekiel 34:23-24) The Lord (Y-H-V-H) alone will be worshiped as God, while the Messiah, as the servant of God, lives with the people. God and the Messiah are not and cannot be equals, for it is God alone who gives the Messiah power to rule in that capacity as His appointed servant.
@@danielukpong4675 You are mistaken greatly. Ezekiel 45 speaks of the temple being fully restored. In Ezekiel 44 the prince (the messiah) will have his own appointed land. For you to say this isn’t a prophecy shows your lack of understanding the Hebrew Scriptures Ezekiel 40-48 speaks of the temple being rebuilt In chapter 40 Ezkeil describes the vision he is seeing: ”In visions of God he took me to the land of Israel and set me on a very high mountain, on whose south side were some buildings that looked like a city. He took me there, and I saw a man whose appearance was like bronze; he was standing in the gateway with a linen cord and a measuring rod in his hand. The man said to me, “Son of man, look carefully and listen closely and pay attention to everything I am going to show you, for that is why you have been brought here. Tell the people of Israel everything you see.”“ Ezekiel 40:2-4 NIV How is this not a prophecy? As for the order of Melchizedek, The author of Hebrews has misconstrued Psalm 110 as a reference to Jesus. The biblically unsound arguments presented are vain attempts to prove that Jesus was more than a mere mortal. It is maintained that Jesus did not have the Aaronic priesthood, but did possess the Melchizedek priesthood and thereby could offer up himself as a sacrifice. The claim that Jesus held a priesthood “according to the order of Melchizedek” is irrelevant to any discussion of sacrifice made under the Torah. It is the Torah that Jesus is said to have fulfilled and nullified by offering up himself (Hebrews 7:27). The so-called “better covenant” (Hebrews 7:22) allegedly instituted by Jesus and its accompanying everlasting Melchizedek priesthood have to do with Christian beliefs concerning Jesus after his death. A non-Aaronic order of priesthood has no relevancy to the requirements of the Torah. Moreover, what are the ordinances of the priestly “order of Melchizedek”? The New Testament claims that Jesus fulfilled and nullified the law by offering up himself as a sacrifice. According to the description it provides, this came about in a manner that runs counter to the Torah. Yet, the claim is made that everything Jesus did was in accordance with the Torah. This is a New Testament conundrum. To the rest of us, it is obvious that this New Testament claim has no basis in fact. Concerning the Messiah, God says: And I will set up one shepherd over them, and he shall feed them, even My servant David; he shall feed them, and he shall be their shepherd. And I the Lord will be their God. And My servant David prince among them; I the Lord have spoken. (Ezekiel 34:23-24) The Lord (Y-H-V-H) alone will be worshiped as God, while the Messiah, as the servant of God, lives with the people. God and the Messiah are not and cannot be equals, for it is God alone who gives the Messiah power to rule in that capacity as His appointed servant
@@OvercomeComeOver The broad consensus among Jewish, and even some Christian commentators, that the “servant” in Isaiah 52-53 refers to the nation of Israel is understandable. Isaiah 53, which is the fourth of four renowned Servant Songs, is umbilically connected to its preceding chapters. The “servant” in each of the three previous Servant Songs is plainly and repeatedly identified as the nation of Israel. Isaiah 41:8-9 But you, Israel, my servant, Jacob, whom I have chosen, the offspring of Abraham, my friend; you whom I took from the ends of the earth, and called from its farthest corners, saying to you, “You are my servant, I have chosen you and not cast you off.” Isaiah 44:1 But now hear, O Jacob my servant, Israel whom I have chosen! Isaiah 44:21 Remember these things, O Jacob, and Israel, for you are my servant; I formed you; you are my servant; O Israel, you will not be forgotten by me. Isaiah 45:4 For the sake of my servant Jacob, and Israel my chosen, I called you by your name, I name you, though you do not know me. Isaiah 48:20 Go out from Babylon, flee from Chaldea, declare this with a shout of joy, proclaim it, send it out to the end of the earth; say, “The Lord has redeemed his servant Jacob!” Isaiah 49:3 And he said to me, “You are my servant, Israel, in whom I will be glorified.” The stunned reaction of the world’s nations to the unexpected vindication and redemption of the Jewish nation in the messianic age is a recurring theme throughout the Hebrew Scriptures. ((Isaiah 41:11; Micah 7:15-16; Jeremiah 16:19-20;)) Israel’s neighbors will be amazed when their age-old assessment of the Jew is finally proven wrong. Throughout Israel’s long and bitter exile, the nations mistakenly attributed the miserable predicament of the Jew to his stubborn rejection of the world’s religions. In the End of Days, however, the gentiles will discover what was until then unimaginable - the unwavering Jew was, in fact, all this time faithful to the one true God. On the other hand, “We despised and held him of no account” (53:3).
@Wilmar singer lies too much. Is like watching Donald Trump at his rallies. So, singer just sounds convincing but when he is fact checked, you would realized he just said alternative truths.
Another point to make. When the preceding chapters refer to Israel as the servant they are also referring to the other nations as "they/them." For example, ch.49:1, "give attention you peoples," and ch.48:15 referring to the chaldeans as a person, "I have spoken and called him. " This is set up clearly in the verse, "Hear this, O house of Jacob, who are called by the name of Israel, and who came from the waters of Judah." Isaiah ch.48:1 God is speaking to Jacob/Israel and including the descendants in him. But when He starts speaking of the descendents of Jacob as them, "he" can no longer refer to a group of people but am individual because the pattern is broken. If in ch.49:6, the servant is now bringing those of Israel back, "they" is no longer the nations, but now Israel itself. In fact, in verse 7 says this individual was despised by the "nation," singular, which must refer to Israel(or Judah). If he is spoken of in context of the nation, then the pattern of speaking of groups of people in the singular is broken. Furthermore, this individual is like a new patriarch, "he shall see his offspring," ch.53:10. If he is a root out of Jesse, then he must grow into a strong tree. Is it any wonder that the Jews in the last days are confused at the number of the children of Abraham, like in ch.49:21? "Then you will say in your heart: ‘Who has borne me these? I was bereaved and barren, exiled and put away, but who has brought up these? Behold, I was left alone; from where have these come?’” This is the ingrafting of many Gentiles into the family of Israel, through the Messiah who is like a new patriarch, bringing us into the family. But it seems it's all happened outside of the Jews' awareness. Will the Jews believe the report about the Messiah in ch.53:1? It speaks as though they've missed it. Or even in ch.49:8 they are predicted to miss it. "I will keep you(the Messiah) and give you as a covenant to the people," to Israel. But to indicate they didn't realize this fact, in ch.49:14, "But Zion said, 'The Lord has forsaken me; my Lord has forgotten me.'” It's as though they see the very thing given to them for the sake of the covenant and respond, "But the Lord has forsaken me." The amazing thing is that the passage says even though the Jews don't realize it, Gentiles are now bearing children for Israel! Again, the verse, "Then you will say in your heart: ‘Who has borne me these? I was bereaved and barren, exiled and put away, but who has brought up these? Behold, I was left alone; from where have these come?’” But this is happening all over the world. Ch.49:23 - "Kings shall be your foster fathers, and their queens your nursing mothers." God could not help but to give children to His beloved Israel. The suffering servant was given to ensure this. As he will see his offspring, and at that moment of judgment, the increase of children. "'Sing, O barren one, who did not bear; break forth into singing and cry aloud, you who have not been in labor! For the children of the desolate one will be more than the children of her who is married,' says the Lord." Isaiah ch.54:1
The servant in Messiah had NO SIN in HIM - Israel is FULL OF SIN. Deuteronomy 18:15-19 Moses says God will raise up one from AMONG HUMANs one LIKE MOSES whom he will put the words in his his mouth - We must listen to him or lose our souls. Daniel 9:24-27 The MESSIAH was to be cut off BEFORE the destruction of the 2nd temple in 70 AD . Isaiah 9:6-7 Says the MEssiah will be GOD IN THE FLESH - A human called GOD, Isaiah 7:14 says the Messiah will be born to a virgin called Emmanual (GOD WITH US), Genesis 3:15 The woman's seed will defeat satan - not a mans seed - A HUMAN!!! God came in the Flesh and the Jewish people feared they would lose their land to the Romans so they crucified him - Isaiah 53, Psalm 22, Psalm 34:20, Psalm 16:10, Isaiah 26:19, Zechariah 12:10, Micah 5:2. To read of the Messiah's geneology - again proving he would come as a human, visit these verses: Genesis 12:3 Genesis 22:18 (Messiah would come from line of Abraham), Messiah would be a descendant of Isaac. Genesis 17:19 Genesis 21:12, Messiah would be a descendant of Jacob. Numbers 24:17, Messiah would come from the tribe of Judah. Genesis 49:10, Messiah would be heir to King David's throne. 2 Samuel 7:12-13 Isaiah 9:7,. ***** MARY WAS ALSO FROM THE LINE OF DAVID ***** Read ISAIAH 53 again, in combination with all these Old Testament verses - then go read the New Testament Gospels and REPENT and get to know your SAVIOR - for your redeemer God did come into this world as FLESH John 1:1-14 as he was too HOLY to enter as he was - he had to take on the form of a human to die for you. John 3:16 For God so loved the world that he gave his only begotten son (Psalm 2), that whosoever believes on him shall not perish but have ever lasting life. ***** OLD TESTAMENT SCRIPTURE CONFIRMS MANY TIMES THAT THE MESSIAH WOULD COME AS A HUMAN *****
@@ChristianGirlwhoLovesJesus I agree with you. Jesus is my Savior. Israel is the failed servant in earlier chapters then the Messiah is THE servant who accomplishes the will of God.
Even though I disagree with you on some major points, I so much appreciate your interaction with the Jewish people and defense of Yeshua the Messiah. I believe God has blessed you with the experiences and gifts you have received “for such a time as this”. Thank you Dr. Brown. May YHWH bless and keep you.
I heard Rabbi singer say this objection for years and since the first time I heard this it did not shake my faith because I immediately thought it’s not supposed to be talking about Jesus so Jesus comes along by mere chance and fulfills this perfectly beautifully that’s a really super big coincidence and a stretch don’t you think?
Its about the Sacrifice and Mercy of our Lord Jesus! By his Stripes we are Healed! Thank you Father for your ultimate Sacrifice for us so that we can have purpose and Truth. Forgive us for our Sins my Lord. May you receive All the Glory forever and Ever… I love you Lord Jesus. You are the Alpha and the Omega. The beginning and the End.
The Rabbi reminded his countrymen that "you are the light of the world " Matt 5:14. Now if these two Jews, Singer, and Brown can't even agree on which path to take, where does that leave the rest of us gentiles and barbarians?
The servant of Isaiah 53 is the messiah according to the overall context of the hebrew Bible, specifically messianic prophecy In Jer 23:5-6 God refers to The messiah as "The righteous branch who shall be called The Lord (YHVH) our righteousness" this undoubtedly proves the suffering servant is the Messiah 1. The suffering servant is the arm of The Lord The suffering servant of Isaiah is the arm of the Lord. This means he has an intrinsic oneness with God. He and God are one in essence. Just as an arm is one flesh with the rest of the body, The servant and The Lord are one deity. meaning the servant is God. That is why God said he shall be called The Lord (YHVH) our righteousness. Becaues he is YHVH 2. He is a tender plant that grows from tender ground In v.2 the suffering servant is depicted as a plant who sprouts fourth, as a root that grew from dry ground. This is a direct reference to the branch language used for the messiah all over scripture. As we read in Jer 23:5, he is referred to as the branch 3. He is righteous In v.11 God says his servant is the righteous one. This is also a direct reference to other messianic prophecies. All over the hebrew bible, the messiah is said to be the righteous one. "a righteous branch.." (Jer 23:5) Meaning, we are dealing with the same person 4. He makes many righteous In v.11 God says that his suffering servant will make many righteous. This is directly confirmed in Jer 23:5-6 where the messiah is said to be "The Lord OUR RIGHTEOUSNESS" This, without a doubt proves, the suffering servant is the Messiah 🚩 May The True Messiah, our Lord Jesus Christ Bless You! Keep up the good work
@@zephyr-117sdropzone8 do you have the interpretation where you have to move around the order of events so the temple's destruction happens after the 490 years are over and everything in verse 27 happens before it, or the one where you still have to wait 37 years from year 483 from the killing of the anointed one to the destruction of the temple, but also even after that have an enormous unmentioned-in-the-prophecy gap of time before the last 7 year starts?
@@Greyz174 Actually the jewish sages came up with the 490 years. It's in Talmud. I posted it below. TALMUD DANIEL 9:24-27 *Nazir 32b:6* The Gemara responds: Although they might have known that the Second Temple would be destroyed, as the verse speaks of three Temples, did they know when it would be destroyed? Would they have considered that it might occur in their lifetimes, preventing them from sacrificing their offerings? Abaye said: And did they not know when? But isn’t it written: “Seventy sevens are decreed upon your people and upon your sacred city” (Daniel 9:24), which indicates that the Second Temple would be destroyed seventy Sabbatical cycles of seven years after the destruction of the First Temple, which is *490 years* . The Gemara answers: And still, did we know on which day it would be destroyed? It was therefore impossible to use this factor as a means to broach the dissolution of their vows. *TALMUD RABBINIC TEACHINGS DANIEL 9:24-27 *Medieval Jewish teacher Maimonides said* , " *Daniel has elucidated to us the knowledge of the end times* . However, since *they are secret* , *the wise [rabbis] have barred the calculation of the days of Messiah's coming so that the untutored populace will not be led astray when they see that the End Times have already come but there is no sign of the Messiah* " (Igeret Teiman, Chapter 3 p.24.) *Rabbi Moses Abraham Levi said* , "I have examined and searched all the Holy Scriptures and have not found the time for the coming of Messiah clearly fixed, *except in the words of Gabriel to the prophet Daniel, which are written in the 9th chapter of the prophecy of Daniel* (The Messiah of the Targums, Talmuds and Rabbinical Writers, 1971) p.141-142. *Targum of the prophets* ; Tractate Megillah 3a by Rabbi Jonathan ben Uzziel, we read: "And the (voice from heaven) came forth and exclaimed, who is he that has revealed my secrets to mankind?.. He further sought to reveal by a Targum the inner meaning of the Hagiographa (a portion of scripture which includes Daniel), but a voice from heaven went forth and said, enough! What was the reason?-- *because the date of the Messiah was foretold in it* !" Jesus told the Pharisees that “Because they did not know the TIME OF THEIR VISITATION, the temple would be destroyed. *LUKE 19:43-45* "For the days will come upon you when your enemies will build an embankment around you, surround you and close you in on every side, and level you, and your children within you, to the ground; and they will not leave in you one stone upon another, because you did not know the time of your visitation." Targum also says *Isaiah 53* is about *The Messiah* *Targum Jonathan* (an Aramaic translation) of the book of Isaiah, dating around the second century, says, “Behold, My servant the Messiah shall prosper.”33
Isaiah 11 vs Isaiah 53 prophecy of Jesus Christians, recognizing that Isaiah 11 speaks of the Messiah and the messianic age attempt to apply it to Jesus. But, for this passage to have any connection to the life of Jesus it would need to be referring to his so-called first coming, and that is not the case. This prophecy concerns the “shoot” coming “out of the stock of David,” which would refer to the Messiah’s ancestry at the time of his birth not at a supposed second coming. And it should be noted that Davidic ancestry in general and lineal descent from the regal line in particular is not firmly established for Jesus by the pertinent New Testament narratives. This presents a serious problem for the Christian interpretation of Isaiah 11. This chapter, which Christians identify with Jesus, gives a very positive and widely accepted leadership portrait of the individual described. It stands in stark contrast to the portrayal of the suffering servant of Isaiah 53:1-2, who Christians also identify with Jesus. The servant is portrayed in difficult circumstances, from his very beginning. Now, if Isaiah’s two prophecies (11:1 and 53:1-2) are both applied to Jesus, they would have to refer to his so-called first coming and this leads to an irreconcilable contradiction. The respective passages simply could not both be referring to one person and are mutually exclusive of each other. Some Christians divide this passage into two separate periods, one during Jesus’ lifetime and the other after his supposed future return following his death. Nonetheless, it is apparent that there is but one “coming” indicated in the passage. This is confirmed by verse 10 where all the events listed in verses 2-9 occur. There the individual spoken of is called, “a shoot of the stock of Jesse,” and typical of biblical poetic style parallel to this he is called “a branch out of his [Jesse’s] roots shall bear fruit.” This can only refer to one’s earthly existence and not to a supposedly resurrected divine being coming back at some future date. Christians claim that Jesus appeared first to offer a means of salvation for mankind. They then claim that he will return a second time, at which time he is supposed to judge and rule the world. This Christian explanation, however, has nothing in common with the text of Isaiah 11. The subject of this passage is not portrayed as a resurrected divine being returning to earth as its judge and king. Some Christians claim that verse 2, “The spirit of the Lord shall rest upon him” was fulfilled at Jesus’ baptism (Matthew 3:16, Mark 1:10, Luke 3:22). This explanation also has no textual support. It is said that “God anointed him [Jesus] with the Holy Spirit and with power” (Acts 10:38; see also John 3:34). Are we to assume that Jesus, one-third of a triune deity, needed the “Spirit of God,” another one-third of the deity, to descend upon him by permission of still another one-third of this deity? The author of Acts claims that Jesus had the ability to do wonders because God anointed him and that “God was with him.” But, now, think about this! If Jesus was a coequal part of a triune God, he would not need to be anointed by another part of this God and have this other God “with him” in order to perform miracles. Even more so, if Jesus was God in any way, whatsoever, he could not stand in a relationship with God that is outside of God. If the New Testament Jesus, at any time, gave up any of his supposed pre-incarnation godly powers he could not be God in any ontological subdivision. God cannot be diminished or subdivided. Christians choose those verses that they think have been fulfilled in a first coming by Jesus and leave the remainder to be fulfilled during a second coming. A perusal of the entire chapter 11 shows that there is no evidence to suggest a two part division within the prophecy. Needless to say, this passage has nothing to do with Jesus.
1. It was Son of Man in flesh who got anointed not His Divine essence. It was symbolic ceremony to fulfill the prophecies so the people of Israel know the sign that The King Messiah has come according to the Prophets passages. Son of Man is both God in essence and Man in flesh, but He isn’t limited by time, space, and matter. He can be God at same time he can walk on earth as flesh. God is omnipresence. 2. Isaiah 11 clealry talking about The Messiah in the future after the judgement day. Read the verse 6-16 (6) The wolf also shall dwell with the lamb, and the leopard shall lie down with the kid; and the calf and the young lion and the fatling together; and a little child shall lead them. (7) And the cow and the bear shall feed; their young ones shall lie down together: and the lion shall eat straw like the ox. (8) And the sucking child shall play on the hole of the asp, and the weaned child shall put his hand on the cockatrice' den. (9) They shall not hurt nor destroy in all my holy mountain: for the earth shall be full of the knowledge of the LORD, as the waters cover the sea. (10) And in that day there shall be a root of Jesse, which shall stand for an ensign of the people; to it shall the Gentiles seek: and his rest shall be glorious. (11) And it shall come to pass in that day, that the Lord shall set his hand again the second time to recover the remnant of his people, which shall be left, from Assyria, and from Egypt, and from Pathros, and from Cush, and from Elam, and from Shinar, and from Hamath, and from the islands of the sea. (12) And he shall set up an ensign for the nations, and shall assemble the outcasts of Israel, and gather together the dispersed of Judah from the four corners of the earth. (13) The envy also of Ephraim shall depart, and the adversaries of Judah shall be cut off: Ephraim shall not envy Judah, and Judah shall not vex Ephraim. (14) But they shall fly upon the shoulders of the Philistines toward the west; they shall spoil them of the east together: they shall lay their hand upon Edom and Moab; and the children of Ammon shall obey them. (15) And the LORD shall utterly destroy the tongue of the Egyptian sea; and with his mighty wind shall he shake his hand over the river, and shall smite it in the seven streams, and make men go over dryshod. (16) And there shall be an highway for the remnant of his people, which shall be left, from Assyria; like as it was to Israel in the day that he came up out of the land of Egypt. Isaiah 11:3-5 talk about the time at the judgement day how The King Messiah will judge (btw only God can judge so clearly Jesus was God in flesh) (3) And shall make him of quick understanding in the fear of the LORD: and he shall not judge after the sight of his eyes, neither reprove after the hearing of his ears: (4) But with righteousness shall he judge the poor, and reprove with equity for the meek of the earth: and he shall smite the earth with the rod of his mouth, and with the breath of his lips shall he slay the wicked. (5) And righteousness shall be the girdle of his loins, and faithfulness the girdle of his reins. After that all humankind will have eternal peace and Israel as a nation will restored from every parts of the world as it was promised in Isaiah 11 verse 6-16. Jesus bless you
Citing rabbinical commentary to give weight that 53 speaks of the Messiah is setting yourself up to fall apart. Rabbinical commentary also university refuses Jesus as the Messiah. You’re not going to accept a rabbinical interpretation that rejects Jesus, but you’ll take it if it speaks of the Messiah and you can twist it to fit your beliefs? That’s just cherry picking. 42:6-7 refers to God opening the eyes of Israel Himself, it makes no mention of a second, “servant. It is also as ridiculous to cite and an Aramaic translation of Isiah 52 as it is to cite the Septuagint. Translations never override the original. Also, the word messiah means anointed one. There are many messiahs in the Bible so someone translating servant to messiah in Aramaic centuries before Christianity, may not have meant messiah like a Christian would. You can’t get mad at People citing Zephaniah because it “refers to the future” when your doing the same thing with Isaiah 53. Also taking Jeremiah 30 is the same this as well, your pulling different verses, from different books with different contexts out of where they belong to justify whatever theology you want to create. You can try to cover up the holes in the argument with fast talking and rapidly jumping around both the Bible and the argument points and making assertions with verses that have nothing to do with what you say so fast it’s hard to keep up. To where people get a hard time critiquing you. And people who already agree with you will just passively accept your on to something. But in reality, it’s the same assertion that one must read outside of Isaiah rather then the rest of Isaiah to learn what 53 is about. When doctrines pop up that take Christian verses out of context to justify crazy beliefs just know you will look at them the same way we look at you.
The servant in Messiah had NO SIN in HIM - Israel is FULL OF SIN. Deuteronomy 18:15-19 Moses says God will raise up one from AMONG HUMANs one LIKE MOSES whom he will put the words in his his mouth - We must listen to him or lose our souls. Daniel 9:24-27 The MESSIAH was to be cut off BEFORE the destruction of the 2nd temple in 70 AD . Isaiah 9:6-7 Says the MEssiah will be GOD IN THE FLESH - A human called GOD, Isaiah 7:14 says the Messiah will be born to a virgin called Emmanual (GOD WITH US), Genesis 3:15 The woman's seed will defeat satan - not a mans seed - A HUMAN!!! God came in the Flesh and the Jewish people feared they would lose their land to the Romans so they crucified him - Isaiah 53, Psalm 22, Psalm 34:20, Psalm 16:10, Isaiah 26:19, Zechariah 12:10, Micah 5:2. To read of the Messiah's geneology - again proving he would come as a human, visit these verses: Genesis 12:3 Genesis 22:18 (Messiah would come from line of Abraham), Messiah would be a descendant of Isaac. Genesis 17:19 Genesis 21:12, Messiah would be a descendant of Jacob. Numbers 24:17, Messiah would come from the tribe of Judah. Genesis 49:10, Messiah would be heir to King David's throne. 2 Samuel 7:12-13 Isaiah 9:7,. ***** MARY WAS ALSO FROM THE LINE OF DAVID ***** Read ISAIAH 53 again, in combination with all these Old Testament verses - then go read the New Testament Gospels and REPENT and get to know your SAVIOR - for your redeemer God did come into this world as FLESH John 1:1-14 as he was too HOLY to enter as he was - he had to take on the form of a human to die for you. John 3:16 For God so loved the world that he gave his only begotten son (Psalm 2), that whosoever believes on him shall not perish but have ever lasting life. ***** OLD TESTAMENT SCRIPTURE CONFIRMS MANY TIMES THAT THE MESSIAH WOULD COME AS A HUMAN *****
@@InspiredByEbonyLove Ponder on these verses - Then return to *ISAIAH 53 and read it from a Messianic view* . *ISAIAH 59* states Israel is *FULL OF DECEIT, SIN, and VIOLENCE* - Calling Israel the *SUFFERING RIGHTEOUS SERVANT WHO HAD NO DECEIT OR VIOLENCE* would be a *CONTRADICTION* to ISAIAH 53:9. *SEE BELOW* *ISAIAH 53:8-9* He (SUFFERING SERVANT MESSIAH* ) was taken from prison and from judgment: and who shall declare his generation? for *HE* (SINGULAR MESSIAH) was cut off out of the land of the living: *for the transgression of my people was he stricken* (HE = MESSIAH, and MY PEOPLE = ISRAEL).9 And he made his grave with the wicked, and with the rich in his death; because *he had done no violence, neither was any deceit in his mouth* . *ISAIAH 59:2-6* 2 But your iniquities have separated between you and your God, and your sins have hid his face from you, that he will not hear. 3 For *your hands are defiled with blood* , and your fingers with iniquity; *your lips have spoken lies* , your tongue hath muttered perverseness. 4 None calleth for justice, nor any pleadeth for truth: they trust in vanity, and *speak lies* ; they conceive mischief, and bring forth iniquity. 5 They hatch cockatrice' eggs, and weave the spider's web: he that eateth of their eggs dieth, and that which is crushed breaketh out into a viper. 6 Their webs shall not become garments, neither shall they cover themselves with their works: *their works are works of iniquity* , and the *act of violence is in their hands* . ( *ISRAEL CANNOT SAVE THEMSELVES BY WORKS* ) *ISRAEL IS NOT RIGHTEOUS* *ISRAEL IS FULL OF DECEIT* *ISRAEL HAS INNOCENT BLOOD ON ITS HANDS* *ISRAEL SPEAKS LIES* *ISRAEL HAS ACTS OF VIOLENCE IN THEIR HANDS* *ISAIAH 59:11-16* We roar all like bears, and mourn sore like doves: we look for judgment, but there is none; *for salvation, but it is far off from us* .12 For our transgressions are multiplied before thee, and our sins testify against us: for our transgressions are with us; and as for our iniquities, we know them; 13 In *transgressing and lying against the Lord* , and departing away from our God, speaking oppression and revolt, conceiving and *uttering from the heart words of falsehood* . 14 And judgment is turned away backward, and justice standeth afar off: for truth is fallen in the street, and equity cannot enter. 15 Yea, truth faileth; and he that departeth from evil maketh himself a prey: and the Lord saw it, and it displeased him that there was no judgment. 16 And he saw that there was no man, and wondered that *there was no intercessor* ( *ISRAEL IS NOT THE INTERCESSOR* ): therefore *his arm brought salvation unto him* ( *WHOM HAS THE ARM OF THE LORD BEEN REVEALLED* ); and his righteousness, it sustained him. *ISRAEL WAITS FOR GOD'S SALVATION - THEY CANNOT SAVE THEMSELVES OR ANYONE FOR THAT MATTER* ! Rabbinic Judaism is not biblical - Read the warning in *PROVERBS 30:5-6* Every word of God is pure: he is a shield unto them that put their trust in him. *Add thou not unto his words, lest he reprove thee, and thou be found a liar* . *I challenge you to read LEVITICUS 26 & DEUTERONOMY 28 - The people of Israel suffers for their own sins by being exiled - Israel *NEVER DIES* it only *ENJOYS* it's rest for all the ignored sabbath years. The nation of Israel suffers for their own sin while ISRAEL rests - Israel is *NEVER* cut off and *NEVER* dies. ( *LEV **26:42**-43* Then will I remember my covenant with Jacob, and also my covenant with Isaac, and also my covenant with Abraham will I remember; and *I will remember the land* . 43 *The land also shall be left of them, and shall enjoy her sabbaths, while she lieth desolate without them* : and *they shall accept of the punishment of their iniquity* : because, even because they despised my judgments, and because their soul abhorred my statutes) - *THERE YOU HAVE IT* ! Israel is *EXILED FOR THEIR OWN SINS* and the *SINGULAR ISRAEL COUNTRY IS SPARED* ! *ISAIAH 53 is about THE MESSIAH* ! Ask yourself, "Why have Jews been in exile with no temple for 2000 years"? Must have done something hugely sinful for God to punish the people that bad. So if *ISAIAH 59:20* states the *REDEEMER will come TO ISRAEL* and *ZECHARIAH **9:11* he comes with the *NEW BLOOD COVENANT* as promised by *JEREMIAH 31:31* and ISAIAH 59:6* says *YOUR WORKS WONT SAVE YOU*, then what is your plan for redemption? You need a *BLOOD ATONEMENT* as said in *LEVITICUS 17:11.
So Dr. Brown, your basic argument is that in other passages, rabbinic commentators noted that the Messiah is being referenced. Therefore you conclude that chapter 53 is about the Messiah. What does the rabbinic commentary say about chapter 53? If they said that it too were about the Messiah- then why would those rabbis continue to not accept Jesus as the Messiah? Could it be because Jesus didn't fulfill messianic prophecy?
Well of course they weren't going to accept Jesus as the messiah since that meant conversion to Christianity. They would be expecting a Jewish and strictly Jewish Messiah.
Great word Dr. Brown, yet it is very clear that Philip knew what he was saying when he declared to the Eunuch that this person in Isaiah, was indeed Jesus. “Now an angel of the Lord said to Philip, “Rise up and go toward the south on the way that goes down from Jerusalem to Gaza.” This is desert. So he rose up and went. And there was a man of Ethiopia, a eunuch of great authority under Candace, queen of the Ethiopians, who was in command of her entire treasury. He had come to Jerusalem to worship. He was returning, sitting in his chariot and reading the book of Isaiah the prophet. The Spirit said to Philip, “Go to this chariot and stay with it.” Then Philip ran to him, and heard him read the book of Isaiah the prophet, and said, “Do you understand what you are reading?” He said, “How can I, unless someone guides me?” So he invited Philip to come up and sit with him. The passage of Scripture which he was reading was this: “He was led as a sheep to slaughter; and as a lamb before its shearer is silent, so He opened not His mouth. In His humiliation justice was denied Him; who will speak of His generation? For His life is taken from the earth.” The eunuch said to Philip, “I ask you, of whom does the prophet speak, of himself or of someone else?” Then Philip spoke, beginning with the same Scripture, and preached Jesus to him.” Acts 8:26-35.
Jews understand that Isaiah has an antiphonal style when he refers to Israel the nation at one point and the Messiah the next. Yet they still deny Isaiah 53 refers to the Messiah because it's too great an indictment of the rejection of the New Testament Christ. For Tovia, I bring this to him. Ruth 4:12 " And let thy house be like the house of Phares....
Singers whole demeanour and tone is that of hubris. Couple that with the proven examples of him giving false definitions of Hebrew words, twisting truths and straight lying - I don’t know why anyone listens to him.
I have been told the nations are the ones speaking in Isaiah 53, because they finally realise that their abuse of Israel is wrong towards the end. This confuses me. I always thought it was the prophet speaking because of v1 "to whom has the arm of the Lord been revealed?" Please can you help?
That was awesome! What did scholar/rabbis make of Isaiah 53 before Jesus arrived? Was there any thought that it was a Messianic prophecy before Jesus? Because I can't imagine them making much sense of it alongside their other, more kingly messianic beliefs.
yes there was. there were many messianic interpretations that were accepted and circulated before Yeshua's time... they were all pushed aside when Rabbinic Judaism was established ca. 100 AD.
Although the Qumran community , before the time of Jesus expected the coming of two Messiah. Messiah of Aaron ( high priest ) & Messiah of Israel ( the King) . If you read the prophecy of Zechariah 6 , you see that Yoshua the High priest with a crown on his head is the representation of the Messiah ,the branch . Messiah High priest comes first then Messiah of Israel the king comes after.
They didn't want a king, they wanted a warrior. They denied him b/c his sword was a message of love. Jews wanted to conquer and enslave their enemies. Is.53 was taught to be the messiah for centuries until it was reinterpreted and removed from teaching in tabernacles.
John, in the gospel of John confirms that this prophecy was about Jesus. John quotes Isaiah 53 when referring to Jesus. John 12:37-38 “But although He had done so many signs before them, they did not believe in Him, 38 that the word of Isaiah the prophet might be fulfilled, which he spoke: “Lord, who has believed our report? And to whom has the arm of the Lord been revealed?”
The servant is the messiah, in v.8 the speaker says he suffered for the sin of my people. this shows the speakers cannot be the rest of the world. because it would be strange for the people to say "my people" meaning the speaker is the prophet. the prophet is the one who says, the servant suffered for my people. thus, making the speakers from v.1-6, the jewish nation. the prophet speaking on behalf of the nation the jewish people thought this servant was the accursed one, one that was stricken by God. but in reality he was the arm of the lord who died for their sin. Jesus is Lord! keep up the good work
Great to see Dr. Brown refute Singers take on Isaiah. Singer does everything he can to deny Jesus Christ as the Messiah. He replaces him with a common man, a political peace maker well versed on Judaism who is yet to come.
The national destiny and mission of Israel is embodied and fulfilled in their Messiah, so it makes perfect sense for Isaiah to speak of Israel as a nation as God's servant, and then apply these specific prophecies to Israel's Messiah who fulfills the mission of the nation. Isaiah 49 makes it clear, this servant/Israel's job is to bring the remnant of Jacob/Israel back to God, and the Gentiles as well. So this servant of the Lord, like Moses before him, is a single individual from the nation of Israel, who represents the nation before God, and carries the mission of Israel to completion.
Here is another passage that clearly shows that “My Servant” isn’t always about the whole of Israel but is referring to one person, in this context it’s referring to Isaiah: Isaiah 49:5-6 5 And now, saith the Lord that formed me from the womb to be his servant, to bring Jacob again to him, Though Israel be not gathered, yet shall I be glorious in the eyes of the Lord, and my God shall be my strength. 6 And he said, It is a light thing that thou shouldest be my servant to raise up the tribes of Jacob, and to restore the preserved of Israel: I will also give thee for a light to the Gentiles, that thou mayest be my salvation unto the end of the earth.
Here’s proof from God that this talks about Israel ““ ‘So do not be afraid, Jacob my servant; do not be dismayed, Israel,’ declares the Lord. ‘I will surely save you out of a distant place, your descendants from the land of their exile. Jacob will again have peace and security, and no one will make him afraid. I am with you and will save you,’ declares the Lord. ‘Though I completely destroy all the nations among which I scatter you, I will not completely destroy you. I will discipline you but only in due measure; I will not let you go entirely unpunished.’ “This is what the Lord says: “ ‘Your wound is incurable, your injury beyond healing. There is no one to plead your cause, no remedy for your sore, no healing for you. All your allies have forgotten you; they care nothing for you. I have struck you as an enemy would and punished you as would the cruel, because your guilt is so great and your sins so many. Why do you cry out over your wound, your pain that has no cure? Because of your great guilt and many sins I have done these things to you. “ ‘But all who devour you will be devoured; all your enemies will go into exile. Those who plunder you will be plundered; all who make spoil of you I will despoil. But I will restore you to health and heal your wounds,’ declares the Lord, ‘because you are called an outcast, Zion for whom no one cares.’” Jeremiah 30:10-17
@@Viral_Christology so you really have no clue on your belief do you? You don’t know your Bible? Don’t listen to me listen to God. See below “The Lord will scatter you among the peoples, and only a few of you will survive among the nations to which the Lord will drive you. There you will worship man-made gods of wood and stone, which cannot see or hear or eat or smell. But if from there you seek the Lord your God, you will find him if you seek him with all your heart and with all your soul. When you are in distress and all these things have happened to you, then in later days you will return to the Lord your God and obey him. For the Lord your God is a merciful God; he will not abandon or destroy you or forget the covenant with your ancestors, which he confirmed to them by oath.” Deuteronomy 4:27-31 NIV Do you understand now? When the Jews stopped filling Gods decrees he told them he will scatter them but will never forget them. This is the theme throughout the Hebrew Scriptures. Here is Gods promise again “As a shepherd looks after his scattered flock when he is with them, so will I look after my sheep. I will rescue them from all the places where they were scattered on a day of clouds and darkness. I will bring them out from the nations and gather them from the countries, and I will bring them into their own land. I will pasture them on the mountains of Israel, in the ravines and in all the settlements in the land. I will tend them in a good pasture, and the mountain heights of Israel will be their grazing land. There they will lie down in good grazing land, and there they will feed in a rich pasture on the mountains of Israel. I myself will tend my sheep and have them lie down, declares the Sovereign Lord. I will search for the lost and bring back the strays. I will bind up the injured and strengthen the weak, but the sleek and the strong I will destroy. I will shepherd the flock with justice. “ ‘As for you, my flock, this is what the Sovereign Lord says: I will judge between one sheep and another, and between rams and goats.” Ezekiel 34:12-17 NIV NO JESUS REQUIRED!!!
@@Viral_Christology If you read the text correctly, Isaiah is clearly telling us how the nations of the world will react when they witness the future messianic-redemption of the Jewish people. (Throughout the book of Isaiah, the Jewish people are referred to as the “Servant of G-d” and in the singular, e.g. Isaiah 41:8, Isaiah 49:3). First, they will be astonished, literally covering their mouths at what they see, because they never believed that they would witness the glorious redemption of a persecuted, rejected and despised Israel - which they themselves persecuted! Then, they will try to understand why this newly exalted Israel suffered so much. Originally they believed it was because G-d had rejected the Jews. Now that they see that this is not true, they will say that the suffering was the result of the transgressions of the nations (themselves) who persecuted the Jewish people. Two points that are very important: 1.“He [Israel] was wounded because of (מ) our [the nations] transgression.” (Isaiah 53:5). In this verse the Hebrew letter (מ) means “because of” or “from.” It is never translated as “for” which would incorrectly indicate a vicarious atonement. 2. “For the transgression of my people they (למו) were stricken.” (Isaiah 53:8). The word they (למו) is plural (see Psalm 99:7) and clearly indicates that this verse does not refer to a single individual. Another important detail to point out is that his chapter does not clearly identify Jesus of Nazareth. Even if we take the approach that the chapter does speak of Messiah, it could just as easily apply to anyone in history who suffered. How about Moses, Elijah the prophet? The entire application to Jesus by missionaries is based on faith, but when carefully scrutinized it doesn’t prove anything. One other point to emphasize, if you have time. In Matthew 16, we see that Jesus himself does not claim to be Messiah. Jesus asks his disciples, “Who do you think I am?” One answers “Elijah,” another, that he is John the Baptist. Peter thinks he is the Messiah. However, when Jesus then says that he must go up to Jerusalem, be killed, and resurrected on the third day. Peter rebukes him “God forbid it, lord, this shall never happen to you.” One may ask “Why does Peter need to rebuke Jesus?” If, indeed he is the promised messiah, then Peter, no doubt familiar with Isaiah 53, should have had no problem. Yet, since neither he, nor any other apostle of Jesus knew of any strange concept of Messiah suffering, dying, and being resurrected, they did not see Isaiah 53 as being a definitive passage containing information defining the “suffering servant” and vicarious atonement role of Messiah.
@@Viral_Christology you are completely ignoring the the theme of the book of Isaiah. It’s a book of warning and hope. God explains in deuteronomy what will Happen if the Jews disobey Gods commands: ”The Lord will scatter you among the peoples, and only a few of you will survive among the nations to which the Lord will drive you. There you will worship man-made gods of wood and stone, which cannot see or hear or eat or smell. But if from there you seek the Lord your God, you will find him if you seek him with all your heart and with all your soul. When you are in distress and all these things have happened to you, then in later days you will return to the Lord your God and obey him. For the Lord your God is a merciful God; he will not abandon or destroy you or forget the covenant with your ancestors, which he confirmed to them by oath. You were shown these things so that you might know that the Lord is God; besides him there is no other. From heaven he made you hear his voice to discipline you. On earth he showed you his great fire, and you heard his words from out of the fire. Acknowledge and take to heart this day that the Lord is God in heaven above and on the earth below. There is no other. Keep his decrees and commands, which I am giving you today, so that it may go well with you and your children after you and that you may live long in the land the Lord your God gives you for all time.“ Deuteronomy 4:27-31, 35-36, 39-40 NIV Then when the Jews are exiled for disobeying God then he will save the ones who are faithful: ”“Therefore say to the Israelites, ‘This is what the Sovereign Lord says: It is not for your sake, people of Israel, that I am going to do these things, but for the sake of my holy name, which you have profaned among the nations where you have gone. I will show the holiness of my great name, which has been profaned among the nations, the name you have profaned among them. Then the nations will know that I am the Lord, declares the Sovereign Lord, when I am proved holy through you before their eyes. “ ‘For I will take you out of the nations; I will gather you from all the countries and bring you back into your own land. I will sprinkle clean water on you, and you will be clean; I will cleanse you from all your impurities and from all your idols. I will give you a new heart and put a new spirit in you; I will remove from you your heart of stone and give you a heart of flesh. And I will put my Spirit in you and move you to follow my decrees and be careful to keep my laws. Then you will live in the land I gave your ancestors; you will be my people, and I will be your God. I will save you from all your uncleanness. I will call for the grain and make it plentiful and will not bring famine upon you. I will increase the fruit of the trees and the crops of the field, so that you will no longer suffer disgrace among the nations because of famine. Then you will remember your evil ways and wicked deeds, and you will loathe yourselves for your sins and detestable practices. I want you to know that I am not doing this for your sake, declares the Sovereign Lord. Be ashamed and disgraced for your conduct, people of Israel! “ ‘This is what the Sovereign Lord says: On the day I cleanse you from all your sins, I will resettle your towns, and the ruins will be rebuilt. The desolate land will be cultivated instead of lying desolate in the sight of all who pass through it. They will say, “This land that was laid waste has become like the garden of Eden; the cities that were lying in ruins, desolate and destroyed, are now fortified and inhabited.” Then the nations around you that remain will know that I the Lord have rebuilt what was destroyed and have replanted what was desolate. I the Lord have spoken, and I will do it.’ “This is what the Sovereign Lord says: Once again I will yield to Israel’s plea and do this for them: I will make their people as numerous as sheep, as numerous as the flocks for offerings at Jerusalem during her appointed festivals. So will the ruined cities be filled with flocks of people. Then they will know that I am the Lord.”“ Ezekiel 36:22-38 NIV
@@Viral_Christology According to the Christian Bible, the sacrificial system has come to an end, because Jesus is the final sacrifice. It says this in Hebrews chapter 10 verse 18 and Romans chapter 6 In Ezekiel 45 the Messiah (prince) will bring a sin offering for his own sins and the sins of the people in verses, 16-22. I would like to know from you why would the Messiah be bringing a sin offering on behalf of his own sins if the Messiah never sinned and is sinless?
What Christians and Messianics don’t understand is that it’s not so much about Isaiah 53 being messianic in nature or not, it’s about whether or not Jesus fits into the context based upon the NT. Well does he ? No. נִבְזֶה֙ וַֽחֲדַ֣ל אִישִׁ֔ים "Despised and isolated from men." (Isaiah 53:3) This doesn’t fit into the NT accounts of Jesus, a man who was supposedly "praised by all" (Lk. 4:14-15) and followed by multitudes (Matt. 4:25), who would later acclaim him as a prophet upon his triumphal entry into Jerusalem (Matt. 21:9-11). Even as he was taken to be crucified, a multitude bemoaned his fate (Lk. 23:27). Jesus had to be taken by stealth, as the rulers feared "a riot of the people" (Mk. 14:1-2). 2. אִ֥ישׁ מַכְאֹב֖וֹת וִיד֣וּעַ חֹ֑לִי “…a man of pains and accustomed to sickness (or disease/illness)…” (Isaiah 53:3) Yet, the Christian translation reads: “and accustomed or acquainted with grief” This point is very important. Choli/חולי in Hebrew has nothing to do with “grief”!! Choli is a disease or sickness ! There are actually words in ancient Hebrew that express “grief”, such as “יגון” or “תוגה” (Proverbs 10:1, 14:13; Lamentations 3:32). Choli, however, only expresses disease and illness, chronic or not. Proof, you ask? In fact, until this very verse in Isaiah, and even in Isaiah itself, Christian Bibles correctly translated the word as disease or illness, countless times! As in, “The writing of Hezekiah king of Judah, when he had been sick, and was recovered of his sickness. (Isaiah 38:9) 🤔 Don’t take my word for it, and check it out for yourself. The following verses express this exact, correct translation: Deuteronomy 7:15; 7:15; 28:59; 28:59; 28:59; 28:61; 28:61 1 Kings 17:17 2 Kings 1:2; 8:8; 8:9; 13:14 2 Chronicles 16:12; 21:15; 21:15; 21:18; 21:19 Psalms 41:4 Ecclesiastes 5:16; 5:16; 6:2 Suddenly, in order to make Jesus more palatable to Isaiah 53, it’s translated as “grief”. (1) Jesus was never “ill” or “sick” with any illness, let alone to have endured chronic illness !! (2) From a purely speculative point of view, even if we accept the lie of “grief”, it still makes no sense to define Jesus as “accustomed or acquainted with grief” ! Jesus’ life can hardly be defined as chronically plagued with “grief”. Besides a few instances of the grief he felt for others, or his death, his “grief” was not extraordinary, persistent and/or significant enough to be coined as “accustomed”. 3. וְלֹ֣א יִפְתַּח־פִּיו֒ כַּשֶּׂה֙ לַטֶּ֣בַח יוּבָ֔ל וּכְרָחֵ֕ל לִפְנֵ֥י גֹֽזְזֶ֖יהָ נֶֽאֱלָ֑מָה וְלֹ֥א יִפְתַּ֖ח פִּֽיו: “…yet he would not open his mouth; like a lamb to the slaughter he would be brought, and like a ewe that is mute before her shearers, and he would not open his mouth.” (Isaiah 53:7) There is a precedent in the Bible for remaining silent in the face of harsh judgment, as in, “Then Moses said to Aaron, "This is what the Lord spoke, [when He said], 'I will be sanctified through those near to Me, and before all the people I will be glorified.' " And Aaron was silent. (Leviticus 10:3) Aharon’s two sons were killed suddenly in the midst of a great celebration, the inauguration of the tabernacle, yet, Aharon accepted the judgment and spoke, not a word. This is starkly contrasted with Jesus’ response: After Jesus was arrested in the Garden of Gethsemane, the high priest questioned Jesus, saying, “Are You the Christ, the Son of the Blessed?” Jesus responded, not with silence, or humbly, rather, with provocation; He said: “I am. And you will see the Son of Man sitting at the right hand of the Power, and coming with the clouds of heaven” (Mark 14:61-62). Jesus then was sent to Pilate, where He was asked another question about His identity, “Are You the King of the Jews?” As he had done earlier that night, He did not keep SILENCE, but answered Pilate with these words: “It is as you say” (Mark 15:2). Even while hanging on the cross a few hours later, Jesus made several statements, including, “Father, forgive them, for they do not know what they do” (Luke 23:34), and “My God, My God, why have You forsaken Me?” (Mark 15:34). Even if we say that “keeping silent” is at least fulfilled through humility and a limitation of speech, Jesus not only spoke up, he even boasted, and, as well, expressed confusion at the cross regarding God’s judgment, as in, “My God, My God, why have You forsaken Me?” (Mark 15:34). Besides the fact that God can’t forsake his “other person”, questioning God’s judgment which allegedly brought “world peace and everlasting atonement” is hardly the place for such impertinent words. Thus, both his trial and execution were tainted with defective speech. Conclusion: Jesus did not remain “silent” and aligned with Divine judgement which contradicts the attitude expressed by the servant of God in this verse. 4. This next point is perhaps the most unambiguous refutation of the claim that Isaiah 53 is speaking uniquely of a messianic figure. כִּ֚י נִגְזַר֙ מֵאֶ֣רֶץ חַיִּ֔ים מִפֶּ֥שַׁע עַמִּ֖י נֶ֥גַע לָֽמוֹ “…He [the servant] was cut off from the land of the living, because of the transgressions of my people THEY were stricken”. (Isaiah 53:8) Yet, Christian translate it as, “…HE was stricken.” Who was stricken, THEY or He ? Now, the last part of the verse tells us that this “servant” was “stricken”, yet, in the Hebrew, it refers to the servant in the plural, “THEY were stricken”. It cannot be translated as, “he was stricken”, as a Christian Bible would have you believe. (We will get into that shortly) This absolutely annihilates the Christian interpretation of chapter 53, and entirely supports the traditional interpretation, which teaches that “the servant” of the Lord, is Israel, and more particularly, “the righteous remnant of Israel”, they are the ones who suffer on behalf of others. They are collectively known as “Jacob Israel”, the righteous servant, in the singular, for they are united with one heart in the service of God, it’s as if there is only one entity; thus, we find that the nation is referred to many times in Scripture in the singular (Exodus 12:2, among the many). Yet, it is totally justified, and most proper, to also refer to them in the plural, on account of their being composed of many individuals, for the nation of Israel is mentioned, as well, in the plural. (One of the best examples, again, is Exodus 12:2, where, in the very same verse, they are referred to both in plural and singular) To clarify: The word למו/lamo, literally means either “to or for them”. It’s composed of a ״ל״ “lamed”, a preposition which translates roughly as “to” or “for”, and “״מו, pronounced “Mo or Moo”, a less frequent form of the objective pronoun for “them”. Shockingly, Christian translations of the Bible never fail to interpret every other instance of this objective pronoun in the plural except here! For example: Genesis 9:26-27; Exodus 15:5,7,9; Deuteronomy 32:32, 35; Deuteronomy 33:2. (It appears several times in Isaiah itself !) Isaiah 23:1, 26:14,16, 30:5, 35:8, 43:8, 44:7, 15, 48:21; and the list goes on… Dozens of times, they translate it as it should be translated, yet, only here, they chose to alter and singularize it; quite astonishing! 5. וַיִּתֵּ֚ן אֶת־רְשָׁעִים֙ קִבְר֔וֹ וְאֶת־עָשִׁ֖יר בְּמֹתָ֑יו “And he gave his grave to the wicked, and to the wealthy [he subjected himself] in HIS DEATHS…” (Isaiah 53:9) What does it mean to give your grave to the wicked ? To let them kill you as they please, in the most degrading fashion. The next part of the verse is very cumbersome for the Christian understanding, as it states, “and to the wealthy in HIS DEATHS”, in the plural, which means that he let himself be subjected to all kinds of deaths that a wealthy ruler decreed. In which ever way you translate it, even according to the Christian translation, there is one word that you cannot get around, for the verse uses the plural בְּמֹתָ֑יו/BeMotav, literally, in his deaths, implying a whole variety of deaths. This is utterly inapplicable to Jesus, yet, makes total sense when speaking of the righteous remnant of Israel, composed of many individuals. 6. יִרְאֶ֥ה זֶ֖רַע יַֽאֲרִ֣יךְ יָמִ֑ים “…he shall see children, he shall prolong his days…” (Isaiah 53:10) Jesus allegedly had no children, and certainly did not prolong his days. Despite the fact that a “prolongation of days” should not apply to God in any way.
Thanks Dr.Brown for the explanation. I'm a simple gentile, but it never made sense to me that 'The suffering servant' in Isaiah should be regarded as 'Israel' (or the remnant). I've read comments by Jews who claimed the suffering servant is Jacob, or even Antipas(????). So the person referred to can be anyone to them, except Jesus of Nazareth.
Unfortunately for his position, Dr. Brown makes the mistake of conflating the Past with the Future. He mistakes Isaiah reminding Israel of its past sins (Isa. 42, 43, 47, 48... and most notably from Isa. 50.1) with the future events he prophesied in Isa. 53. Beginning at 5:18, Dr. Brown recites time after time where Isaiah recounts God's "Servant", Israel, suffering for the disobedience of others within it. Most especially, as Dr. Brown states here re: Ch. 50:1 ... "God's indictment is forthright: '...for your iniquities you were sold, and FOR YOUR TRANSGRESSIONS YOUR MOTHER WAS SENT AWAY.' " Now, was the "mother" here guilty of those sins? Or was "she", an innocent, sent away for the sins of others? For "...your (Israel's) transgressions"? And yet... was not that metaphorical "mother" also of Israel? Of course she was; as were all other mothers like her in the Exile. Yet she was forced to pay for the sins of her children, despite being innocent of them. Bingo! This is exactly what we find Isaiah then prophesying in Isa. 53... that the "Servant" will, in like manner, be forced to suffer for the transgressions of others in Israel. Isaiah is letting Israel know that ... just as in the past, Israel forced ALL in Israel (e.g., mothers) to suffer for the disobedience of others... the innocent for the guilty... so also will the "Servant" (the innocent in Israel at that future time) be likewise made to suffer for the transgressions of others. Look... it's so very simple: Isaiah repeatedly used the term "Servant" throughout his book to mean "Israel"... no question. And ironically, Dr. Brown agrees with that. Thus, had Isaiah meant a different meaning for the term in Isa. 53 (i.e., "Messiah"), then that's the term he would have used. He sure as hell wouldn't have used the same term for "Israel" he had been exclusively using at every instance... to suddenly mean something completely different in only one chapter! To do so would be to ensure confusion and misinterpretation... which is exactly what Christians do by so claiming. And finally, as I have pointed out again and again... as also does Rabbi Singer... Isa. 53.10 proves it's not "Jesus"... for "Jesus" never saw His own "seed" (biological offspring) nor were His days in mortality "prolonged"... as was promised the "Servant." This ONLY makes sense if the Servant is "Israel" in the future... when during the Messianic Age, they are fully restored, when they shall be reunited with their long-lost offspring dispersed throughout the world (e.g., "lost" Ten Tribes) and their days will be "prolonged" for no longer forced to suffer And finally, as I have pointed out again and again... as also does Rabbi Singer... Isa. 53.10 proves it's not "Jesus"... for "Jesus" never saw His own "seed" (biological offspring) nor were His days in mortality "prolonged"... as was promised the "Servant." This ONLY makes sense if the Servant is "Israel" in the future... when during the Messianic Age, they are fully restored, when they shall be reunited with their long-lost offspring dispersed throughout the world (e.g., "lost" Ten Tribes) and their days will be "prolonged" for no longer suffering antisemitism and all its horrors Israel has been forced to endure for millennia. and all its horrors Israel has been forced to endure for millennia.
The interpretation of Isaiah 53 as a prophecy about Israel rather than a Messianic figure misses key contextual elements that define Isaiah’s portrayal of the “Servant.” While it’s true Isaiah often identifies Israel as God’s “servant” (Isaiah 41:8-9; 44:1), Isaiah 53 uniquely describes an individual figure who is innocent, voluntarily suffers, and acts as an atoning sacrifice. This is distinct from Israel’s historical suffering, which Isaiah attributes to their own sins, as in Isaiah 50:1, where God clarifies that Israel suffered due to her own iniquities. In Isaiah 53:5, we read, “But he was wounded for our transgressions, crushed for our iniquities.” This description suggests vicarious suffering, where an individual takes on the sins of others. Israel’s own suffering, conversely, is repeatedly shown as deserved consequence (Isaiah 1:4-7, 42:24-25). Unlike Israel’s collective guilt, Isaiah’s “Servant” is described as entirely innocent and silent before His oppressors (Isaiah 53:7), aligning with the unique Messianic figure Christians see in Jesus, who, according to the New Testament, was “without sin” (Hebrews 4:15). The argument that Isaiah would have explicitly used the term “Messiah” is based on a misunderstanding. Isaiah’s use of “Servant” here parallels his use of personal descriptors elsewhere in Messianic prophecies (e.g., “Immanuel” in Isaiah 7:14, “Prince of Peace” in Isaiah 9:6), signaling a unique figure with divine qualities. Hebrew Bible scholarship recognizes the poetic style in Isaiah as frequently typological, with terms like “Servant” applicable both to Israel and, in certain passages, to an individual within Israel, especially in the context of the “Suffering Servant.” Regarding “seeing His seed” (Isaiah 53:10) and having “prolonged days,” these terms don’t necessitate biological offspring. The phrase “seed” often symbolizes spiritual descendants in Jewish thought (e.g., Psalm 22:30), a fitting interpretation given the followers of Jesus who became spiritual “offspring” through faith. Jesus’ resurrection also signifies “prolonged days,” as Christians believe He lives eternally, a view consistent with the text’s broader context of overcoming death and suffering. Finally, asserting that Israel alone fulfills Isaiah 53 overlooks the clear New Testament references where this chapter is applied directly to Jesus (e.g., Acts 8:32-35). Jesus’ role as the suffering, innocent figure aligns fully with Isaiah’s “Servant” who “bore the sin of many” (Isaiah 53:12). Ironically, Rabbinic Judaism acknowledges the possibility of an individual Messianic figure in certain texts (e.g., Sanhedrin 98b), yet Isaiah 53’s perfect fulfillment in Jesus is rejected, perhaps out of reluctance to reconcile this vision with traditional beliefs.
@@danielmayer1977 ... You're cherry picking and speculating like mad here. As Rabbi Tovia explains, the "Suffering Servant" is not ALL of Israel... but instead specifically the Righteous in Israel. Obviously, those in Israel who are disobedient are not God's Servant(s). However, for the sins of the wicked in Israel, the righteous are made to suffer, also. This has nothing to do with paying for their sins... but for being forced as Israelites also to suffer the same consequences as the disobedient... just as they did also when Jerusalem and Israel was destroyed beginning in 70 AD by the Romans... and later by Hitler in the Holocaust... and most recently by Islam's demonic terrorism. But, as Isaiah, makes clear in Isa. 53:10 (the verse Christians avoid like the plague), the Righteous in Israel... the "Suffering Servant(s)" being referenced here... will eventually be vindicated and will have their days in mortality prolonged and will see their offspring... something "Jesus" never did.
@@Khemin Your interpretation of Isaiah 53 as referring to the righteous within Israel does not align with the Hebrew text or its context. The term "seed" (זרע) in Isaiah 53:10 is frequently metaphorical. Psalm 22:30 describes a "seed" serving God, clearly referring to spiritual descendants. Isaiah 1:4 uses "seed of evildoers" to describe moral characteristics. Jesus fulfills this metaphor through His followers, who are His spiritual legacy, not biological children. "Prolonged days" (יאריך ימים) in Isaiah 53:10 refers to eternal vindication or divine blessing, not mortal longevity. Deuteronomy 17:20 uses it for a king’s enduring reign, and Psalm 91:16 connects it to salvation. Jesus’ resurrection fulfills this prophecy, demonstrating eternal life and victory over death. Isaiah 53 explicitly describes atoning suffering, not collateral consequences. The Servant "makes His soul an offering for sin" (אשם, asham), a term for guilt offerings in Leviticus 5. Israel collectively cannot fulfill this role, as its suffering is repeatedly attributed to its own guilt (Isaiah 1:4-7, 50:1). The Servant’s role as an innocent, voluntary substitute aligns with Jesus, not Israel. The vindication in Isaiah 53:10 refers to the Servant’s satisfaction in accomplishing atonement (v. 11: "He shall see the labor of His soul and be satisfied"), fitting Jesus’ resurrection, not the geopolitical restoration of Israel. Your claim that Christians avoid Isaiah 53:10 is baseless. This verse is central to Christian theology, highlighting Jesus’ resurrection ("prolonged days") and His spiritual offspring through faith. Far from being ignored, it is foundational. Lastly, while Isaiah often calls Israel God’s "servant," the term is not exclusive. Isaiah 49:5-6 distinguishes the Servant from Israel, tasking Him with restoring Israel to God. Isaiah 53’s consistent use of singular pronouns (e.g., הוא, לו) confirms the Servant as an individual. Even Rabbinic sources like Sanhedrin 98b recognize the possibility of a suffering Messiah, undermining the claim of a uniform Jewish understanding. Isaiah 53 describes an innocent, atoning individual whose suffering fulfills God’s redemptive plan-uniquely accomplished by Jesus. The Hebrew text, grammar, and context make this interpretation airtight.
The Servant must be the messiah. because in v.2 it says he grew up like a tender plant, as a root from dry ground. this clearly shows that the servant is the branch that God promised to raise. its the same branch language used for the messiah elsewhere. (Jer 23:5-6 Jer 33:15-16 Zach 3:8 Is 11:1) in all of these places the messiah is depicted as a branch who sprouts fourth Moreover, He is referred to as "root", in v.2. this is important because that is what the messiah is explicitly called in Isaiah 11:10 " 10 In that day *the Root* of Jesse will stand as a banner for the peoples; the nations will rally to him, and his resting place will be glorious. " Isaiah 11:10 Keep up the good work! may our risen Lord Jesus Christ Bless You
root is a general term for offspring, that is used in other contexts than just the messiah. the messiah is referred to as a root because it's talking about the offspring of David Isaiah 5 23 Those who acquit the guilty for bribes, and deprive the innocent of justice! 24 Therefore, as the tongue of fire licks up stubble, as dry grass shrivels in the flame, *Their root shall rot* and their blossom scatter like dust; For they have rejected the instruction of the Lord of hosts, and scorned the word of the Holy One of Israel. Here it's talking about how the bad people won't have offspring and their line will die, as part of their punishment. Look up all the uses of the word Root in the Hebrew Bible, it's used in more contexts than just the messiah. Proverbs 12 talks about the root of the righteous twice, when describing the good things that happen to the offspring of righteous people. Deuteronomy 29:17 in warnings against idolatry talks about how there may be poisonous roots among you, meaning to watch out for people that come up in the tribe that might lead you astray into all the bad practices. You can use a concordance to find all the uses of a word in the Bible, it's really useful.
Yes and Besides it saying "For the transgression of MY PEOPLE He was stricken"isaiah 53 is not Israel as the suffering servant. Read these proofs right here:isiaah 53: 9He was assigned a grave with the wicked, and with a rich man in His death, although He had done no violence, nor was any deceit in His mouth."Jeremiah 11:10 They have returned to the sins of their forefathers who refused to obey My words. They have followed other gods to serve them. The house of Israel and the house of Judah have broken the covenant I made with their fathers."Jeremiah 3:8,22 And I saw, when for all the causes whereby backsliding Israel committed adultery I had put her away, and given her a bill of divorce; yet her treacherous sister Judah feared not, but went and played the harlot also…"Ezekiel 8:17 "Son of man," He said to me, "do you see this? Is it not enough for the house of Judah to commit the abominations they are practicing here, that they must also fill the land with violence and continually provoke Me to anger? Look, they are even putting the branch to their nose! Ezekiel 44:6 Tell the rebellious house of Israel that this is what the Lord GOD says: 'I have had enough of all your abominations, O house of Israel.' Deut 32:28Israel is a nation devoid of counsel, with no understanding among them. 29If only they were wise, they would understand it; they would comprehend their fate. ........ 36For the LORD will vindicate His people and have compassion on His servants when He sees that their strength is gone and no one remains, slave or free.;
Majority opinion doesn’t make something true. Saying x rabbinic tradition says multiple servants, doesn’t nullify y rabbinic tradition that says there is one servant. You are appealing to majority opinion/authority which is never an acceptable form of argumentation You can apply it to remnant of Israel that ALWAYS existed even when Israel as a majority went astray. Was Daniel and his companions not part of that remnant? The remnant always will suffer the consequences of the majority. Just like a child will suffer the consequences of the parents choices.
This is a very poor response. It’s very odd that you’re so willing to point out the the messiah is in Isaiah 42, but you avoid the entire passage which speaks on what the messiah is supposed to do upon that arrival. In Isaiah 42 it literally states that this servant will bring justice in all lands and that he will not be defeated or weakened. He will fulfill his duty of bringing peace to isreal and conquer other nations. So yes Isaiah 42 speaks of the messiah but does that fit the same narrative of Isaiah 53? No. Absolutely not. So therefor Isaiah 53 is the “suffering servant” and Isaiah 42 is the righteous servant aka the messiah.
@@stephenglasse9756 associate the prophecy with the person and does the person fit? Has he completed everything mentioned? Is there peace amongst all nation? Is Isreal regathered and striving? Is Edom destroyed? Is the messiah on his throne? You pick and choose what you want but leave out everything else? Do you think Maimonides has more authority, reverence or credibility over rabbis like Akiva, Eleazar, Yahuah, etc? No.
@@travisallen4907 maybe he does🤔. After all do not Jews say, "from Moses unto Moses there was none like Moses"? And it's not just Moses Maimonides but the Talmud, the Zohar and Rabbi ibn Crispin. And did not Maimonides criticise Rashi's attempt to interpret it of Israel rather than the Messiah saying this was not the view of Jewish consensus? Or was Maimonides lying? Clearly Messiah couldn't have fulfilled the prophecies concerning the restoration of Israel because THEY REJECTED HIM! Who do you think fulfils the criteria of Isaiah 53?
@@stephenglasse9756 bro you’re invalidating generations of rabbi with Maimonides? There are so many well revered and followed rabbis that disapprove of what you’re presenting and you really don’t understand the moses to moses saying huh? You discrediting Rashi but what about the several others that preexist. The zohar doesn’t even agree with you either because it’s very obvious that if they did they’d be Christians. As I said stop picking and choosing, and actually speak about stuff in their entirety. Where did any prophecy in the Bible say the messiah will fail? Since you wanna say he didn’t fulfill that part of the prophecy doesnt that disqualify him from the position? Doesn’t that mean that Jesus isn’t what the prophets talk about?
@@travisallen4907 you mention Akiva but Akiva apparently regarded Simon bar Kochba as the Messiah. It's not invalidating generations of rabbi's if those rabbi's agreed Isaiah 53 refers to the Messiah and you haven't established that they didn't! On the contrary Moses Maimonides one of the most revered Jewish authorities author of the Mishnah Torah and Guide for the Perplexed stated 53 most certainly does refer to Messiah as did Nachmanides the babylonian Talmud and the Zohar stating that all israel's sickness and chastisement is made to rest on him citing Isaiah 53. A Jew would not be a Christian just because they accept that 53 refers to the Messiah - that's a ludicrous argument. Maimonides wasn't a Christian. It's true that great scholars like Rashi disagreed but then he also thought it referred to the nation which as Dr Brown argues cannot be true.
Who is David referring to in Psalm 2:12? Is that also Jesus? He says "Kiss the Son, lest he be angry, and ye perish from the way, when his wrath is kindled but a little. Blessed are all they that put their trust in him." when speaking of God.
I watched Rabbi Singer and I thought his conclusions were wrong. God calls many his "servant" according to his plans. Nebuchadnezzar is also his servant. So just because parts of Isiah refer to Israel his servant, doesn't mean other parts refer to the same as his servant. Of course Isiah 53 is not the same servant as Israel is in other texts in the same book. Common sense tells you his suffering, offering forgiveness of sins, having no sin or deceit doesn't refer to the nation of Israel. You have to be completely blind to draw another conclusion.
Remember that according with the new testament jesus abolish Shabbat and was blasphemy because being human wants to be god, and jesus spoke during his death
Ok Mr. Brown. From Isaiah 42:1-9, you say it’s Jesus. But let’s look at Isaiah 42:2. “He will not cry out or raise his voice, Nor make his voice heard in the street” If his voice can’t be heard on the street, there wouldn’t be large multitudes following him, then. Right? But as we see in the New Testament: Matthew 4:25 and Luke 14:25, it explicitly says “large multitudes followed him”
I love how every time Dr. Brown thinks that “my servant” doesn’t mean the Jewish people, that it automatically means Jesus. Like, where? Show me one. ONE place in the Old Testament that it says Jesus and I’m in church tomorrow
Any one who argues Isaiah 53 needs to know that THERE IS NO RIGHTEOUS PEOPLE IN ISRAEL - ALL PEOPLE ARE SINNERS. ONLY THE MESSIAH WAS SIN FREE BECAUSE GOD CANNOT SIN!!!! These false teachers do not even believe Moses! Deuteronomy 18:15-19 God says to Moses that he will raise up a prophet like Moses and put his words in his mouth - Those who do not listen will lose their souls. Daniel 9:24-27 says the Messiah comes before the 2nd temple destruction. ISAIAH 9:6-7, ISAIAH 7:14, GENESIS 3:15, DANIEL 7:9-14 - ALL SAY THE MESSIAH WILL BE A HUMAN!!!! What doesn't Tovia get?
The Rabbi wins by 1,000 country miles. ISAIAH 53. Check it: Isa 41/8 "But thou, Israel, My servant, Jacob whom I have chosen, the seed of Abraham My friend" These too, in the same book, same Prophet: SUFFERING SERVANT. “You are My servant, O Israel” (41:8) // “You are My servant, Israel” (49:3) // ISA 43: 10 Ye are My witnesses, saith the LORD, and My servant whom I have chosen; that ye may know and believe Me, and understand that I am He; before Me there was no God formed, neither shall any be after Me.// ISA 43;1 1 Yet now hear, O Jacob My servant, and Israel, whom I have chosen // ISA 48:20. 'The LORD hath redeemed His servant Jacob.// see also Isaiah 44:1, 44:2, 44:21, 45:4, 48:20
What must be understood is that God had to transition from 'animal sacrifices' for the forgiveness of sin to the ultimate sacrifice of Jesus Himself, the Messiah, for the forgiveness of sin. For the wages of unforgiven sin is death. Today, I am not aware of how Jews receive the forgiveness of their sins, let me know.
Can anyone respond to the claim, supposedly from Tovia Singer, that Isaiah 53 v 7 and v 8 should not be translated "HE" at the beginning of the verse because the hebrew word translated there is a plural not a singular? This is a kind of conspiracy theory accusation that christian bibles have conspired to mistranslate the hebrew there.
Hey, thank you for your awesome work! I have a question, in Isaiah 42:6 it says I have created you in reference to the messiah... Yeshua is uncreated, as he's Yahweh himself, so I dont fully understand how he could be created. Hope you see this
I have a question for you Dr. Brown, in this video you say that Rabbi Singer claims that the suffering servant of chapter 53 is the righteous remnant, and is narrated by Israel as a whole. However, in the videos i have watched of his, he says the suffering servant is not only the righteous remnant, but instead ALL of Israel, and the narrator of the passage are the gentile kings mentioned in the previous chapter. So i’m confused, Did he switch his standpoint on the passage?
It is my impression from messianic Jews like Dr Brown and other regulars that Rabbi Singer lies a lot, sometimes intentionally given how many times Dr Brown addresses him
is God speaking, and He says about the servants "he grew before me" (clearly God speaking), and then God says that the servant is hurt "for the sins of My people" (God's people). clearly not about the gentile kings
This regardless what Rabbi Singer says. It sounds like youre rejecting what Isaiah specifically said from HASHEM. though Israel sinned , after the fact HASHEM STILL CALLS THE SERVANT RIGHTEOUS. Youre going backwards from the message to justify idolatry. Youre going against The Word of HASHEM. Will say also go against what its in Proverbs? Pro 24:16 For a just man falleth seven times, and riseth up again: but the wicked shall fall into mischief. notice the difference between “the just” and the wicked.
@@pepepena1937 Israel is the servant, that’s pretty clear and in context,on what Isaiah himself wrote directed by HASHEM: Look it up. Isaiah 41:8 , Isaiah 44:1 Isaiah 44:21 Isaiah 45:1, Isaiah48:20 Jeremiah 30:10.. and so on. That’s pretty clear and you do not have to jump any hoops with this. If you’re trying to look for a ‘term” righteousness Israel” then you’re looking under rocks to try to “justify the idolatry of the NT. Jesus wasn’t a righteous person… Pablo “made him look “righteous. that is Another man trying to condemn and have other men fall into idolatry. and Based The Tanach and in ***context*** with Isaiah’s writing (knowing he is not going to contradict himself ro HASHEM) Israel is called “righteous” and servant”. Isaiah 53:11 , Isaiah 26:2 and also Psalm 14:3-5 and see how HASHEM makes a difference between evil-doers and the his people, that are righteous. The answers are straight in the text.
@@MTDMP The passages in Isaiah that reference Israel as “My servant” (Isaiah 41:8; 44:1) do indeed identify Israel in a collective sense. However, Isaiah 52:13-53:12 depicts a distinct, suffering figure who “bore the sin of many” (Isaiah 53:12, NRSV), endured rejection, and brought healing through suffering (Isaiah 53:5). This portrayal closely aligns with the New Testament depiction of Jesus, who is described as bearing the sins of humanity (Matthew 8:17, John 1:29), fulfilling the role of the suffering servant through his crucifixion. Moreover, the idea that righteousness is obtained through atonement resonates throughout the Hebrew Scriptures, as seen in Leviticus 17:11, where blood is designated to make atonement for the soul. Jesus’ self-sacrifice is viewed in Christianity as fulfilling this requirement, transcending individual or national sin to offer redemption universally (Romans 5:8). Paul’s teachings, far from idolatry, emphasize that Jesus was the awaited Messiah who fulfilled these scriptural promises, not by “making Him appear righteous,” but by documenting His life, teachings, and sacrificial death. As for Proverbs 24:16, it does affirm that a “just man falls seven times and rises again,” highlighting human fallibility rather than attributing inherent righteousness to Israel without atonement. The Christian perspective holds that while all fall short (Romans 3:23), Jesus’ atoning work fulfills the promise of righteousness to all who believe (Romans 3:22). This focus on personal and collective redemption aligns with the prophetic messages that anticipated a suffering servant with a salvific mission. Finally, it’s worth noting that, while Isaiah references Israel as “My servant” in many contexts, the explicit role of bearing others' sins-a task historically associated with atonement-is not elsewhere attributed to Israel. If Isaiah 53 were solely about Israel, we would expect consistent application of this “sin-bearing” role throughout the text, which we do not see. Therefore, the Christian interpretation sees Jesus as uniquely fulfilling this prophecy, a view supported by the early Jewish followers who recognized Him as the suffering servant of Isaiah’s vision.
@ im sorry you’re way out of context, since Isaiah is NOT going to write one thing and then contradict himself later on especially directed by HASHEM. context is context. Isaiah 52 and 53 aligns perfectly talking none other than Israel, since the ones speaking is the nations ‘about’ Israel. If you would of the studied chapters before , Israel is spoken of singularly and plural( Isaiah 43:10-12) Isaiah is not there to defend idolatria , less the NT. Regarding Leviticus 17:11… like ALL OTHER PASSAGES , if you would of read v10 …. You would have understood its talking about animals , not human sacrifices that HASHEM clearly States He Hates /abhors (Deut.12:31). You think HASHEM is going to contradict Himself? Then we are not talking about the same GOD. The NT is a total different false god(s). Compared to The GOD of ISRAEL. You need to review things in context , not try to fit the ideas of the NT into The Tanach. the Tanach came first, NOT the NT. Study in order, and that way you may see the truth, The REAL Truth.
@@MTDMP The argument that Isaiah 52-53 speaks exclusively of Israel fails to address critical distinctions in the text. While Isaiah does refer to Israel as “My servant” in earlier passages (e.g., Isaiah 41:8, 44:1), Isaiah 53 describes a servant who is sinless and bears the sins of others (Isaiah 53:9, 11). This cannot apply to Israel, which Isaiah repeatedly portrays as sinful and in need of redemption (Isaiah 1:4-6, 59:2-3). If the servant is Israel, it would paradoxically mean Israel is atoning for its own sins while being in need of atonement-a contradiction. Leviticus 22:20-21 explicitly requires a sinless sacrifice for atonement, which aligns with the Christian understanding of Jesus, who lived without sin (2 Corinthians 5:21, 1 Peter 2:22). The suggestion that Isaiah 53 aligns "perfectly" with Israel ignores the context. Isaiah 53 speaks of a servant who suffers voluntarily, dies unjustly, and brings healing to others (Isaiah 53:5, 7-9). This role of substitutionary atonement is never assigned to Israel elsewhere in the Tanakh. Moreover, the nations in Isaiah 52:15-53:3 are depicted as astonished observers of the servant’s suffering, not as active participants. The Talmud (Sanhedrin 98b) acknowledges that the suffering servant can be understood as the Messiah, confirming that this interpretation predates Christianity. Regarding Leviticus 17:11, the text establishes the principle of blood atonement: “For the life of the flesh is in the blood, and I have given it for you on the altar to make atonement for your souls.” While this initially applied to animal sacrifices, the New Testament reveals its fulfillment in Jesus’ sacrifice (Hebrews 9:22). His death is not a “human sacrifice” in the pagan sense condemned in Deuteronomy 12:31. Rather, it is God Himself, incarnate as Jesus, offering atonement (John 1:29, Philippians 2:6-8). This act of self-giving love is consistent with the Tanakh’s portrayal of God as both just and merciful. The claim that the NT represents a “false god” misunderstands Christian theology. Jesus is not a separate deity but the incarnate Word of God (John 1:1, 14), fulfilling Messianic prophecies found in the Tanakh. Early Jewish followers of Jesus, deeply rooted in Torah, recognized His divinity and the fulfillment of Isaiah 53 in His life, death, and resurrection. Their belief in Jesus was not a departure from the God of Israel but an affirmation of His ultimate redemptive plan. In conclusion, the collective Israel interpretation collapses under textual and theological scrutiny. The servant of Isaiah 53 must be sinless, bear the sins of others, and voluntarily suffer for their atonement-criteria Israel does not meet. Instead, Jesus uniquely fulfills this role, as affirmed by the earliest Jewish followers and even hinted at within Jewish oral traditions. Far from idolatry, this reveals the fulfillment of God’s covenantal promises, consistent with the Tanakh’s deepest themes of atonement and redemption.
Rabbis claimed that humans sacrifice dont exist in Thora . Well, why righitous part of Israel die for others sins? By that interpretation they confirmed ,(not directly of corse) that innocents should die for others , even Isshaia 53 is not about Messiah. I suppous they will try take this passage metaphoriclly (read: spiritual) but is exactly how death of Yeshua was necesery not litarally on the altar but spiritually to fullfil spirtual law wchich is hidden in Thora. Sorry my English learnng is in progress :)
Tell me did this suffering servant messiah inspire the creation of ANTISEMITISM as Jesus did is such an eventuality associated scripturally with messiah yes or no ?
🤣🤣🤣🤣🤣 👉👉👉 FROM THE HORSES MOUTH (Tovia Singer)* I thought it was ISRAEL?😲😲😲😲 Weren't Christians Corrupt to think that it was about a person?😲😲😲 “In rabbinic thought, all of God’s faithful, gentiles included (Zechariah 13:8-9), endure suffering on behalf of God (Isaiah 40:2; Zechariah 1:15). Thus, Jewish leaders of the past, such as Moses12 and Jeremiah,13) Rabbi Akiva,14 as well as future eschatological figures, such as 👉 *the messiah ben Joseph* 👈 and 👉 *the messiah ben David* 👈, are held up in rabbinic literature as individuals who exemplify the “servant” who willingly suffers on behalf of Heaven.” “When Isaiah speaks of the suffering remnant of Israel, 👉 *the messianic king* 👈 is, therefore, included. The final heir of David’s throne is an integral member of the pious of Israel. This is, according to rabbinic interpretation, the pshat, or the plain meaning of the text in Isaiah 52:13 - 53:12.” “In order to shed much-needed light on the famed Servant Songs, numerous rabbinic commentators hold up Jewish heroes as a paradigm of Isaiah 53’s “servant.” Accordingly, while on one hand the Talmud, Zohar, and other ancient rabbinic texts state explicitly that the “servant” of Isaiah 53 refers to the faithful of corporate Jewry,16 the same sources frequently point to renowned saints of Israel as an archetype of the Suffering Servant. These virtuous individuals include saints such as Moses, Elijah, Jeremiah, 👉 *the messiah the son of Joseph and David* 👈 - each of them embodies perfect examples of God’s servant, the righteous remnant of Israel.” “Bear in mind that the rabbinic commentary on Isaiah 53 is not dualistic or multilateral. Meaning, the sages of old did not suggest that Isaiah 53 refers to either the righteous remnant of Israel, Moses, Jeremiah, or an anointed leader. Rather, the servant in all four Servant Songs are the faithful descendants of Abraham. Isaiah 53 attests to unprecedented worldwide repentance of all of mankind - a redemptive achievement accomplished by no other saint in history. Therefore, rabbinic commentators 👉 *tend to lift up the messiah’s name more frequently* 👈 than the names of other faithful servants of God.” *Tovia Singer* *Outreach Judaism*
Clifford Gallegos I understand that child sacrifice is against God’s law, but if what you are calling “human sacrifice” fits that description, that’s not what happened in the case of Yeshua. So I don’t see the correlation you are trying to make or how it would apply. Yeshua’s “sacrifice” is in the context of Isaiah 53. Is that a passage describing an unlawful sacrifice?
6:48 Isaiah 42:6. Even if the servant is the messiah and not Israel, I don't see how this can be Jesus. The verse clearly says God created this servant. Colossians 1:16 says Jesus is not created. It says all things were created by Jesus, putting him equal to God the father. Trinity! So this servant is a created being and thus can't be Jesus. If Dr Brown is saying the servant in Isaiah 42 is the messiah and specifically Jesus, it actually validates that Christianity is a false religion, a cult. Just searching for the truth. Not here to argue. But for me, this validates for me again that I made a right choice in denouncing my faith in Jesus few months ago. Hope everyone find what they are looking for. :)
@@BKNew2022 el problema es que Jesús no es Dios La creencia de que Jesús es Dios surge de la Mala interpretación y de traductores influenciados por sus Herejías Jesús nunca dijo YO SOY DIOS. Jesús dijo ser hombre 8:40 But now ye seek to kill me, A MAN that hath told you the truth, which I have heard of God: this did not Abraham. John Muchos Judíos no Creen precisamente porque los "cristianos de titulo" no verdaderos se han inventado un Mesías Dios Hombre que muere Jesús siendo hombre dejó Claro que Dios es Espíritu Juan 4:24 A Dios nadie lo ha visto Jamás
Who says that the Jewish people died for the sins of others? That’s not at all. What it says. In fact, the opposite is true. The Bible forbid people dying for the sins of others.
Yea, if you do not have a good explanation from someone with the caliber of Doctor Brown any ravi will confuse your mind and will make you believe his heresy, they will say that Jesus is not the Messiah, thanks God we count on Dr. Brown who knows Hebrew and English and not only that, he counts with the inspiration of God.
What about the next verse, Isaiah 53:10? It says, "But the Lord chose to crush him by disease, That if he made himself an offering for guilt, He might see offspring." This seems to be the offspring of the children of Israel, the Jewish people. If this is about Jesus, he had no children, no offspring. So how can verse 9 be referring to Jesus?
It talks about the ressurection of Jesus. Jesus was offered as an offering, indicating he did and then he lived long to see his offspring. Meaning he ressurected to see his seed. Isaiah 53 primarily talks about the suffering servant (messiah which is Jesus) saving the sins for Israel, the context of Isaiah refers to Israel who needs saving.
@@jakamsoohia7492 The Hebrew word there, זרע, for seed, means seed from a man, offspring, physical biological descendants. There is no record of Jesus having children, is there? It says that he might see offspring and have long life. This means if the people do teshuva, if they confess and fear the Lord, then they will be blessed with children and long life, live to see their offspring, descendants. The true meaning here seems to be referring to the generation who will repent, who will fear God and return to Him in the days of Messiah. Also, why is the word, "If" used, "if he made himself an offering? If this verse is a prophecy, if it's talking about Jesus, why would it say "If?" The prophet Isaiah often refers to Israel as He, one man, in the singular. So it makes no sense to change it here and say it is actually referring to one man, Jesus. Isaiah 52 very clearly is speaking of the nation, says Zion, Jerusalem, holy city, starting at v. 4 says "My people" several times. Isaiah 52:14 says, "Just as they were appalled at him, So marred was his appearance, unlike that of a man, His form beyond human semblance." That chapter is talking about the Jewish people. So why does Dr. Brown say Isaiah 53 suddenly changes from talking about the nation of Israel, to a completely different topic of Jesus, when he never mentions him anywhere else before or after? I don't understand this logic.
@@jakamsoohia7492 The seed is the SEED OF THOSE ADOPTED IN CHRIST TO GOD. Read all of ISAIAH and the Old testament and you will see the MESSIAH came as a human. Deuteronomy 18:15-19 Moses says God will raise up one from AMONG HUMANs one LIKE MOSES whom he will put the words in his his mouth - We must listen to him or lose our souls. Daniel 9:24-27 The MESSIAH was to be cut off BEFORE the destruction of the 2nd temple in 70 AD . Isaiah 9:6-7 Says the MEssiah will be GOD IN THE FLESH - A human called GOD, Isaiah 7:14 says the Messiah will be born to a virgin called Emmanual (GOD WITH US), Genesis 3:15 The woman's seed will defeat satan - not a mans seed. Also read Psalm 22, Psalm 34:20, Psalm 16:10, Isaiah 26:19, Zechariah 12:10, Micah 5:2. To read of the Messiah's geneology - again proving he would come as a human, visit these verses: Genesis 12:3 Genesis 22:18 (Messiah would come from line of Abraham), Messiah would be a descendant of Isaac. Genesis 17:19 Genesis 21:12, Messiah would be a descendant of Jacob. Numbers 24:17, Messiah would come from the tribe of Judah. Genesis 49:10, Messiah would be heir to King David's throne. 2 Samuel 7:12-13 Isaiah 9:7,. ***** MARY WAS ALSO FROM THE LINE OF DAVID ***** John 1:1-14 as he was too HOLY to enter as he was - he had to take on the form of a human to die for you. John 3:16 For God so loved the world that he gave his only begotten son (Psalm 2), that whosoever believes on him shall not perish but have ever lasting life. ***** OLD TESTAMENT SCRIPTURE CONFIRMS MANY TIMES THAT THE MESSIAH WOULD COME AS A HUMAN *****
Isaiah did not refer to the nation of Israel but to the descendants of Jacob(Israel) whom most of them were rebellious towards God. So God sent the prophets to warn the descendants of Jacob to bow to and faithful to God. So the prophets predicted the coming of Messiah who could lead the descendants of Jacob(Israel) living with full respect and faithful to God, not to dominate other mankind selfishly. Definitely, God is not selfish just to love the nation of Israel alone but to love the descendants of Jacob and other mankind/races.
Both Jews and Christians have to open their eyes and accept reincarnation, and also a higher reincarnation where Jesus is called the Son of Man, this in John 3:31 means that Israel is a man who has lived died and dwelt in Paradise then he Ascended, the Isaiah dialogues are Divine Councils in which Israel is being evangelised to accept another incarnation.
As Jesus was (proven to be) not the messiah, Isaiah 53 and all other places where Christians want see him in in the Jewish scriptures, cannot possibly be about him. It's simple logic.
Interesting how you didn’t finish reading the passage verse 10. Why dont you read the last sentence lol. It says clearly there is no other GOD but me looooool. You can read it when you bring up the passage. So why didnt you read the rest of the verse????? It proves you know it goes against your beliefs of the Man God other wise you would not have an issue finish reading it. Heres the full passage Isaiah 43:10 10 Ye are my witnesses, saith the Lord, and my servant whom I have chosen: that ye may know and believe me, and understand that I am he: before me there was no God formed, neither shall there be after me.
Also the following verses make it clear that the Messiah would be born as a human and be called "God with Us". John 1::14 The word was made flesh and dwelled among us. ISAIAH 9:6 - "A Child is born - will be called ALL MIGHTY GOD" ISAIAH 7:14 - "Unto us a child is born - a SON is given, and his name shall be called Immanuel (GOD WITH US). *God took on the form of a human, because people would die if they saw him as he is - Deuteronomy 18:15-19 told us he would do this * Also to fulfill prophesy as per GENESIS 3:15, THE REDEEMER (GOD) had to be a human. **Psalm 111:9 He (GOD) has SENT redemption to His people; He has ordained His covenant forever; Holy and awesome is His name.**
@רחבעם did any of those rabbis who taught it as messiah refer this to yeshu the nazarene? especially cause they were all after him you would think they would see that? if so why would u think they did not?
You have to go back to the renaming of Jacob to get it. When he identifies Jacob as Israel, it’s revealing something much deeper. He always referred to Israel in the singular because god only has one son on this earth at a time. He was Moses, the servant called out of Egypt then. Jacob still wrestles with god. So what you see in Isa 53 is the prodigal son repenting and seeing the light of day. He goes on to have children and live a long life. Who is it? Who else but Adam? So you see two separate lives described in Isa 53 and they’re both the same individual. It’s mostly describing this life for that suffering servant who is now cast out and shunned and lived the life described there. In prison just like Joseph cast there by his own family. Like David eluding his enemies and facing his own Goliaths. This was laid on that suffering servant in this life only it wasn’t over an Easter weekend. Adam has been suffering since the foundation and only he can unseal Rev and Daniel to vindicate the prophets and Jesus. It’s not all Israel but it’s also not just Jesus and the sacrifice he made. He was only the first Atonement goat. Adam lives in the wilderness the scapegoat. The caregiver set him free but the goat chooses to stay. He surrendered all rights to normalcy and been hated since birth. It pleased god to lay this on him for the sake of Israel. The truth will set them free once they see it was never on them to save the world. They were his witnesses preserving the prophets and that’s the extent of their contributions. We won’t be needing to grab their shirttails take us to Jerusalem. Because Adam is the apple of gods eye he’s paved the way for the rest of us. Israel no longer wrestles with god but that nation is now in peril and their future not so settled. Rabbinical Judaism is in part Mystery Babylon. It’s already been determined. Shiloh is the grandson of David but not through his son. The scepter will depart completely from Judah once the promises to David are fulfilled and a gentile king will be his heir. God literally named him so there would be no doubts anymore and the Jewish people can stop worshipping their own image. Blame Tovia and those wicked rabbis for their replacement theology trying to replace that suffering servant. It was always only about the redemption of Adam.
How does Isaiah 43:1044:1-9 fit in I think you either accept Christ or you don’t Isaiah 53 uses the word MAN to refer to the nation of Israel according to Jews as well as the claim the Jewish Bible and the Christian Bible are rearranged following The Book of Isaiah and this is used as an important point because apparently the book after is supposed to be a continuation of the previous Book.
The fact of the matter is not whether Isaiah 53 is speaking of the Messiah or not, but rather that Tovia Singer is lying when he suggests that it isn't. It is the Jewish nation's 'Big Lie' , in the Orwellian sense of that term !
There are things Tovia Singer says that are true, for example Jesus does not save you, if that were so Jesus would have to judge you, Jesus tells us *that He does not Judge* it is God the Son who is the Divine Word who judges and un doing so saves. Judgement is a non-trinitarian event.
God's suffering servant is israel. Read the book of Isaiah in context. Christians take chapters and verses from the bible out of context. Reading the bible out of context is Dangerous. I my self am an ex Christian who was devoted in worshipping Christ. But When I saw rabbis videos and started reading the bible for myself i came to know the truth.
It says .ashiach, but not Yeshua! It doesn't say Yeshua. Oh my! Now he is quoting the commentaries of the sages...very different from Rabbi Singer that quoted from the Torah !
I love how every time that Dr. Brown says that Jesus/Yeshua is the Messiah of Israel, he has a joyful smile on his face.
Agreed
This is why Tovia Singer dodges Doctor Brown and does not dare step into another debate with him.
@Filip Ljubanović so now you are a messiahnic jew.....glad to hear😊
Yup ... You are right TravisLee.... 🙏🏻🏌🏌
You couldn't have said it better you are 100 o. That That guy runs from Dr brown 🤣🤣🤣🤣🤣
@Iyas kelu do you think he is deceptively trying to fool the people that listen to him? if so, what would be his reason for deceiving them like this?
@Iyas kelu im happy to say that his arguments miss the mark, but just to be clear when i say "deceptive" i mean "knows full well he is saying something false but says it anyways" which is different from "has a bad argument that does not represent Christianity well." Do you think it's the first one or the second one? And if it's the first one why do you think he is intentionally lying about Christianity
I do want to be clear that I am not here to say that all of his arguments are good, he's obviously an idealogue (i am an atheist and his "the only reason you date the book of Daniel and the second half of Isaiah late is because the prophecies are too true" is just a mega eye roll at this point...bad argument that misses the point, it's more indepth than the superficial circular argument about how "prophecy cant happen therefore prophecy cant happen" that he is talking about) but i dont think he knows full well he is lying when he says dumbs stuff about atheist critical scholars, just tht he picks up bad arguments that are convenient for him so he can just believe them and not pick them apart further.
So do you think he is coming up with a lie that he knows is a lie, or do you think he just has bad arguments that he believes because they work for him? And if it's the first one, why do you think he is lying?
When I first encountered this objection a couple years ago, my faith was definitely shaken. But then I found Dr. Brown and his masterful explanation of the Scripture and thorough answers cleared my mind of any doubt
@@treksta2009 I'm doing a series of videos to debunk Tovia Singer if you are interested. Isaiah 53 has already been posted on my channel.
I'm doing a series of videos to debunk Tovia Singer if you are interested. Isaiah 53 has already been posted on my channel.
Hi, let me warn you, you will find objections from whoever has not accepted Jesus as the promised Messiah, it will be always like that, but the true, unshakeable truth is that Jesus is the Messiah and will come for a second time as promised too.amen
@@Viral_Christology
It doesn’t sound like you actually listened to what Dr Brown said. His counterpoints clearly refute Singer’s arguments. Dr Brown makes clear Singer’s arguments do not agree with historic Rabbinic interpretation.
Leviticus clearly teaches only an unblemished animal is acceptable as an offering for sin. Not even the remnant of Israel is unblemished by sin, so how can they qualify as “guilt” offering for sin?
Please read Isaiah 52:13-53:12 for yourself. It is clearly speaking of an individual.
@@Viral_Christology Do you mind if I prove to you what Dr. brown is saying is false ?
I love the way this man explains the Holy Scriptures, he is a man for the hour, a great one to study under, thanks Dr. Brown, you´re a God send! Viewing and learning from Guatemala, C.A.🙏
I viewed this over a year ago . . . I think 3 times. Today, in listening again, it's like the 1st time. I'll probably have to view it a few more times because there's so much in it and you speak fast. Very good and understandable after repeated hearing. 😊
God bless you my brother Dr. Brown. Rabbi Singer is a spiritual illiterate, deaf and blind but make so much empty noise. Thank you so much. Shalom
According to the Christian Bible, the sacrificial system has come to an end, because Jesus is the final sacrifice. It says this in Hebrews chapter 10 verse 18 and Romans chapter 6
In Ezekiel 45 the Messiah (prince) will bring a sin offering for his own sins and the sins of the people in verses, 16-22. I would like to know from Christians why would the Messiah be bringing a sin offering on behalf of his own sins if the Messiah never sinned and is sinless?
@@jamilbiotech91 Thank you sweetheart for asking. Yes, the sacrificial system ended on that day that our sweet Lord Jesus Christ hung dead and bleeding on that Cross for us all and attested to by the VEIL of the Holy of Holies being rent from top to bottom by God our Father Himself [Matt 27:51-53] (ie God saying IT'S DONE, IT'S FINISHED, this is Now OBSOLETE, I don't need this anymore). Also, the True Messiah of God (Jesus Christ) is SINLESS. First because He was the BEGINNING OF THE NEW CREATION of God, that is His body was FORMED as a New Creation [NO FERTILIZATION, Mary's Ova was not involved and no sperms natural/supernatural. ie there was no fusing of any chromosomes ie (NOT [sperm + ova = embryo] AND NOT [ova + Supernatural sperm = embryo]) whatsoever. Jesus Christ was therefore neither a half or full son of Adam whatsoever, but He was the Lord from heaven (1 Cor 15:45-47). He was rather, 100% the Word of the Father FORMED in a Body of Flesh (John 1:14) ie (100% Word of the Father + 100% Spirit of the Father [the Holy Ghost] = JESUS CHRIST of Nazareth). Therefore, in reality Jesus Christ has no earthly Father nor Mother except God the Holy Spirit (Matt 1:8)] Melchizedek was a type of Him (Hebrew 7:3). He has no genealogy whatsoever, don't mind those in Matthew and Luke (those are FAITH genealogies). After His birth, His life was absolutely SINLESS unto His Death and Resurrection. So, He (Jesus Christ) was both sinless by conception and birth (Psalm 51:5) and lifestyle (Rom 3:23) before God the Father as God Himself testified "This is My Beloved Son in Whom I am well please". With no other Man right from Adam to all his descendants (all humanity) had/has God the Father ever been "WELL PLEASED".
Finally, Ezekiel 45:16 - 22 is NOT about the PRINCE (Messiah, the Prince of Peace [Isaiah 9:6] who Reigns for EVER) [please read from Ezekiel 44] AND it's not a future PROPHECY but rather, they were ORDINANCES AND STATUES for the temple worship that the LORD gave Ezekiel to give to not just ONE prince, BUT for all the PEOPLE, PRIESTS AND PRINCES of Israel to observe at that time NOT for the FUTURE. This was the commandment from the LORD for all the Princes of the Tribes of Israel and even any overall prince of the people then not the FUTURE. God bless you. Shalom!!!
@@danielukpong4675
You are mistaken greatly.
Ezekiel 45 speaks of the temple being fully restored.
In Ezekiel 44 the prince (the messiah) will have his own appointed land.
For you to say this isn’t a prophecy shows your lack of understanding the Hebrew Scriptures
Ezekiel 40-48 speaks of the temple being rebuilt
In chapter 40 Ezkeil describes the vision he is seeing:
”In visions of God he took me to the land of Israel and set me on a very high mountain, on whose south side were some buildings that looked like a city. He took me there, and I saw a man whose appearance was like bronze; he was standing in the gateway with a linen cord and a measuring rod in his hand. The man said to me, “Son of man, look carefully and listen closely and pay attention to everything I am going to show you, for that is why you have been brought here. Tell the people of Israel everything you see.”“
Ezekiel 40:2-4 NIV
How is this not a prophecy?
As for the order of Melchizedek,
The author of Hebrews has misconstrued Psalm 110 as a reference to Jesus. The biblically unsound arguments presented are vain attempts to prove that Jesus was more than a mere mortal. It is maintained that Jesus did not have the Aaronic priesthood, but did possess the Melchizedek priesthood and thereby could offer up himself as a sacrifice. The claim that Jesus held a priesthood “according to the order of Melchizedek” is irrelevant to any discussion of sacrifice made under the Torah. It is the Torah that Jesus is said to have fulfilled and nullified by offering up himself (Hebrews 7:27). The so-called “better covenant” (Hebrews 7:22) allegedly instituted by Jesus and its accompanying everlasting Melchizedek priesthood have to do with Christian beliefs concerning Jesus after his death. A non-Aaronic order of priesthood has no relevancy to the requirements of the Torah. Moreover, what are the ordinances of the priestly “order of Melchizedek”?
The New Testament claims that Jesus fulfilled and nullified the law by offering up himself as a sacrifice. According to the description it provides, this came about in a manner that runs counter to the Torah. Yet, the claim is made that everything Jesus did was in accordance with the Torah. This is a New Testament conundrum. To the rest of us, it is obvious that this New Testament claim has no basis in fact. Concerning the Messiah, God says: And I will set up one shepherd over them, and he shall feed them, even My servant David; he shall feed them, and he shall be their shepherd. And I the Lord will be their God. And My servant David prince among them; I the Lord have spoken. (Ezekiel 34:23-24) The Lord (Y-H-V-H) alone will be worshiped as God, while the Messiah, as the servant of God, lives with the people. God and the Messiah are not and cannot be equals, for it is God alone who gives the Messiah power to rule in that capacity as His appointed servant.
@@danielukpong4675
You are mistaken greatly. Ezekiel 45 speaks of the temple being fully restored. In Ezekiel 44 the prince (the messiah) will have his own appointed land. For you to say this isn’t a prophecy shows your lack of understanding the Hebrew Scriptures Ezekiel 40-48 speaks of the temple being rebuilt In chapter 40 Ezkeil describes the vision he is seeing: ”In visions of God he took me to the land of Israel and set me on a very high mountain, on whose south side were some buildings that looked like a city. He took me there, and I saw a man whose appearance was like bronze; he was standing in the gateway with a linen cord and a measuring rod in his hand. The man said to me, “Son of man, look carefully and listen closely and pay attention to everything I am going to show you, for that is why you have been brought here. Tell the people of Israel everything you see.”“ Ezekiel 40:2-4 NIV How is this not a prophecy? As for the order of Melchizedek, The author of Hebrews has misconstrued Psalm 110 as a reference to Jesus. The biblically unsound arguments presented are vain attempts to prove that Jesus was more than a mere mortal. It is maintained that Jesus did not have the Aaronic priesthood, but did possess the Melchizedek priesthood and thereby could offer up himself as a sacrifice. The claim that Jesus held a priesthood “according to the order of Melchizedek” is irrelevant to any discussion of sacrifice made under the Torah. It is the Torah that Jesus is said to have fulfilled and nullified by offering up himself (Hebrews 7:27). The so-called “better covenant” (Hebrews 7:22) allegedly instituted by Jesus and its accompanying everlasting Melchizedek priesthood have to do with Christian beliefs concerning Jesus after his death. A non-Aaronic order of priesthood has no relevancy to the requirements of the Torah. Moreover, what are the ordinances of the priestly “order of Melchizedek”? The New Testament claims that Jesus fulfilled and nullified the law by offering up himself as a sacrifice. According to the description it provides, this came about in a manner that runs counter to the Torah. Yet, the claim is made that everything Jesus did was in accordance with the Torah. This is a New Testament conundrum. To the rest of us, it is obvious that this New Testament claim has no basis in fact. Concerning the Messiah, God says: And I will set up one shepherd over them, and he shall feed them, even My servant David; he shall feed them, and he shall be their shepherd. And I the Lord will be their God. And My servant David prince among them; I the Lord have spoken. (Ezekiel 34:23-24) The Lord (Y-H-V-H) alone will be worshiped as God, while the Messiah, as the servant of God, lives with the people. God and the Messiah are not and cannot be equals, for it is God alone who gives the Messiah power to rule in that capacity as His appointed servant
Thank you Dr. Brown you are a light to the church of God.
Thanks for this video, it solved a great crisis of faith I have had.
Do you mind if I prove to you what Dr. brown is saying is false ?
@@jamilbiotech91 No not really
@@jamilbiotech91you can't.
@@OvercomeComeOver
The broad consensus among Jewish, and even some Christian commentators, that the “servant” in Isaiah 52-53 refers to the nation of Israel is understandable.
Isaiah 53, which is the fourth of four renowned Servant Songs, is umbilically connected to its preceding chapters.
The “servant” in each of the three previous Servant Songs is plainly and repeatedly identified as the nation of Israel.
Isaiah 41:8-9
But you, Israel, my servant, Jacob, whom I have chosen, the offspring of Abraham, my friend; you whom I took from the ends of the earth, and called from its farthest corners, saying to you, “You are my servant, I have chosen you and not cast you off.”
Isaiah 44:1
But now hear, O Jacob my servant, Israel whom I have chosen!
Isaiah 44:21
Remember these things, O Jacob, and Israel, for you are my servant; I formed you; you are my servant; O Israel, you will not be forgotten by me.
Isaiah 45:4
For the sake of my servant Jacob, and Israel my chosen, I called you by your name, I name you, though you do not know me.
Isaiah 48:20
Go out from Babylon, flee from Chaldea, declare this with a shout of joy, proclaim it, send it out to the end of the earth; say, “The Lord has redeemed his servant Jacob!”
Isaiah 49:3
And he said to me, “You are my servant, Israel, in whom I will be glorified.”
The stunned reaction of the world’s nations to the unexpected vindication and redemption of the Jewish nation in the messianic age is a recurring theme throughout the Hebrew Scriptures.
((Isaiah 41:11; Micah 7:15-16; Jeremiah 16:19-20;))
Israel’s neighbors will be amazed when their age-old assessment of the Jew is finally proven wrong.
Throughout Israel’s long and bitter exile, the nations mistakenly attributed the miserable predicament of the Jew to his stubborn rejection of the world’s religions.
In the End of Days, however, the gentiles will discover what was until then unimaginable - the unwavering Jew was, in fact, all this time faithful to the one true God. On the other hand, “We despised and held him of no account” (53:3).
There it is, Dr Brown at his best. Beautiful apologetic work.👏👏👏
@Wilmar singer lies too much. Is like watching Donald Trump at his rallies. So, singer just sounds convincing but when he is fact checked, you would realized he just said alternative truths.
@@FeyAccion8523 Do you mind if I prove to you what Dr. brown is saying is false ?
@@jamilbiotech91 Where is your proof, it's been over a year!!
@@bmm9095 this channel keeps taking my responses down. I don’t blame Dr. brown. He’s going thru a lot of allegations these days
Another point to make. When the preceding chapters refer to Israel as the servant they are also referring to the other nations as "they/them." For example, ch.49:1, "give attention you peoples," and ch.48:15 referring to the chaldeans as a person, "I have spoken and called him. " This is set up clearly in the verse, "Hear this, O house of Jacob, who are called by the name of Israel, and who came from the waters of Judah." Isaiah ch.48:1 God is speaking to Jacob/Israel and including the descendants in him.
But when He starts speaking of the descendents of Jacob as them, "he" can no longer refer to a group of people but am individual because the pattern is broken. If in ch.49:6, the servant is now bringing those of Israel back, "they" is no longer the nations, but now Israel itself. In fact, in verse 7 says this individual was despised by the "nation," singular, which must refer to Israel(or Judah). If he is spoken of in context of the nation, then the pattern of speaking of groups of people in the singular is broken.
Furthermore, this individual is like a new patriarch, "he shall see his offspring," ch.53:10. If he is a root out of Jesse, then he must grow into a strong tree. Is it any wonder that the Jews in the last days are confused at the number of the children of Abraham, like in ch.49:21? "Then you will say in your heart: ‘Who has borne me these? I was bereaved and barren, exiled and put away, but who has brought up these? Behold, I was left alone; from where have these come?’” This is the ingrafting of many Gentiles into the family of Israel, through the Messiah who is like a new patriarch, bringing us into the family.
But it seems it's all happened outside of the Jews' awareness. Will the Jews believe the report about the Messiah in ch.53:1? It speaks as though they've missed it. Or even in ch.49:8 they are predicted to miss it. "I will keep you(the Messiah) and give you as a covenant to the people," to Israel. But to indicate they didn't realize this fact, in ch.49:14, "But Zion said, 'The Lord has forsaken me; my Lord has forgotten me.'” It's as though they see the very thing given to them for the sake of the covenant and respond, "But the Lord has forsaken me."
The amazing thing is that the passage says even though the Jews don't realize it, Gentiles are now bearing children for Israel! Again, the verse, "Then you will say in your heart: ‘Who has borne me these? I was bereaved and barren, exiled and put away, but who has brought up these? Behold, I was left alone; from where have these come?’” But this is happening all over the world. Ch.49:23 - "Kings shall be your foster fathers, and their queens your nursing mothers."
God could not help but to give children to His beloved Israel. The suffering servant was given to ensure this. As he will see his offspring, and at that moment of judgment, the increase of children. "'Sing, O barren one, who did not bear; break forth into singing and cry aloud, you who have not been in labor! For the children of the desolate one will be more than the children of her who is married,' says the Lord."
Isaiah ch.54:1
The servant in Messiah had NO SIN in HIM - Israel is FULL OF SIN. Deuteronomy 18:15-19 Moses says God will raise up one from AMONG HUMANs one LIKE MOSES whom he will put the words in his his mouth - We must listen to him or lose our souls. Daniel 9:24-27 The MESSIAH was to be cut off BEFORE the destruction of the 2nd temple in 70 AD . Isaiah 9:6-7 Says the MEssiah will be GOD IN THE FLESH - A human called GOD, Isaiah 7:14 says the Messiah will be born to a virgin called Emmanual (GOD WITH US), Genesis 3:15 The woman's seed will defeat satan - not a mans seed - A HUMAN!!! God came in the Flesh and the Jewish people feared they would lose their land to the Romans so they crucified him - Isaiah 53, Psalm 22, Psalm 34:20, Psalm 16:10, Isaiah 26:19, Zechariah 12:10, Micah 5:2.
To read of the Messiah's geneology - again proving he would come as a human, visit these verses: Genesis 12:3 Genesis 22:18 (Messiah would come from line of Abraham), Messiah would be a descendant of Isaac. Genesis 17:19 Genesis 21:12, Messiah would be a descendant of Jacob. Numbers 24:17, Messiah would come from the tribe of Judah. Genesis 49:10, Messiah would be heir to King David's throne. 2 Samuel 7:12-13 Isaiah 9:7,.
***** MARY WAS ALSO FROM THE LINE OF DAVID *****
Read ISAIAH 53 again, in combination with all these Old Testament verses - then go read the New Testament Gospels and REPENT and get to know your SAVIOR - for your redeemer God did come into this world as FLESH John 1:1-14 as he was too HOLY to enter as he was - he had to take on the form of a human to die for you. John 3:16 For God so loved the world that he gave his only begotten son (Psalm 2), that whosoever believes on him shall not perish but have ever lasting life.
***** OLD TESTAMENT SCRIPTURE CONFIRMS MANY TIMES THAT THE MESSIAH WOULD COME AS A HUMAN *****
@@ChristianGirlwhoLovesJesus I agree with you. Jesus is my Savior. Israel is the failed servant in earlier chapters then the Messiah is THE servant who accomplishes the will of God.
@@ChristianGirlwhoLovesJesus he wasn't disagreeing
JESUS MESSIAH name above all names, Blessed Redeemer LORD OF ALL!
JESUS CHRIST IS THE MESSAIAH🙌❤️
THE SAVIOR OF THE WORLD❣️
Even though I disagree with you on some major points, I so much appreciate your interaction with the Jewish people and defense of Yeshua the Messiah. I believe God has blessed you with the experiences and gifts you have received “for such a time as this”. Thank you Dr. Brown. May YHWH bless and keep you.
I heard Rabbi singer say this objection for years and since the first time I heard this it did not shake my faith because I immediately thought it’s not supposed to be talking about Jesus so Jesus comes along by mere chance and fulfills this perfectly beautifully that’s a really super big coincidence and a stretch don’t you think?
So very informative, thank you Dr. Brown
It’s literally like going back in time and taking one of the Pharisees with you, where he discovers RUclips and makes a channel. Lol
Praise Yeshua.....WE DO HAVE LIONS OF JUDAH LIKE DR, BROWN DEFENDING THE FAITH...
Its about the Sacrifice and Mercy of our Lord Jesus! By his Stripes we are Healed! Thank you Father for your ultimate Sacrifice for us so that we can have purpose and Truth. Forgive us for our Sins my Lord. May you receive All the Glory forever and Ever… I love you Lord Jesus. You are the Alpha and the Omega. The beginning and the End.
This is such an important video for Christians and Jews alike.
The Servant in Isaiah 52:13 - Isaiah 53:12 is the Righteous Individual within Israel , Who is YeshuaHamoshiach ❤️
Do you mind if I prove to you what Dr. brown is saying is false ?
@@jamilbiotech91we dont mind . please begin
Thank-you Dr Brown
The Rabbi reminded his countrymen that "you are the light of the world " Matt 5:14. Now if these two Jews, Singer, and Brown can't even agree on which path to take, where does that leave the rest of us gentiles and barbarians?
The servant of Isaiah 53 is the messiah according to the overall context of the hebrew Bible, specifically messianic prophecy
In Jer 23:5-6 God refers to The messiah as "The righteous branch who shall be called The Lord (YHVH) our righteousness" this undoubtedly proves the suffering servant is the Messiah
1. The suffering servant is the arm of The Lord
The suffering servant of Isaiah is the arm of the Lord. This means he has an intrinsic oneness with God. He and God are one in essence. Just as an arm is one flesh with the rest of the body, The servant and The Lord are one deity. meaning the servant is God.
That is why God said he shall be called The Lord (YHVH) our righteousness. Becaues he is YHVH
2. He is a tender plant that grows from tender ground
In v.2 the suffering servant is depicted as a plant who sprouts fourth, as a root that grew from dry ground.
This is a direct reference to the branch language used for the messiah all over scripture. As we read in Jer 23:5, he is referred to as the branch
3. He is righteous
In v.11 God says his servant is the righteous one. This is also a direct reference to other messianic prophecies. All over the hebrew bible, the messiah is said to be the righteous one. "a righteous branch.." (Jer 23:5)
Meaning, we are dealing with the same person
4. He makes many righteous
In v.11 God says that his suffering servant will make many righteous. This is directly confirmed in Jer 23:5-6 where the messiah is said to be "The Lord OUR RIGHTEOUSNESS"
This, without a doubt proves, the suffering servant is the Messiah
🚩 May The True Messiah, our Lord Jesus Christ Bless You!
Keep up the good work
Thank you Samson for that explanation. Really helps to put it all together
If we grant this, how then do you connect the messiah to Jesus?
@@Jay_in_Japan Daniel's 70 weeks prophecy.
@@zephyr-117sdropzone8 do you have the interpretation where you have to move around the order of events so the temple's destruction happens after the 490 years are over and everything in verse 27 happens before it, or the one where you still have to wait 37 years from year 483 from the killing of the anointed one to the destruction of the temple, but also even after that have an enormous unmentioned-in-the-prophecy gap of time before the last 7 year starts?
@@Greyz174 Actually the jewish sages came up with the 490 years. It's in Talmud. I posted it below.
TALMUD DANIEL 9:24-27
*Nazir 32b:6* The Gemara responds: Although they might have known that the Second Temple would be destroyed, as the verse speaks of three Temples, did they know when it would be destroyed? Would they have considered that it might occur in their lifetimes, preventing them from sacrificing their offerings? Abaye said: And did they not know when? But isn’t it written: “Seventy sevens are decreed upon your people and upon your sacred city” (Daniel 9:24), which indicates that the Second Temple would be destroyed seventy Sabbatical cycles of seven years after the destruction of the First Temple, which is *490 years* . The Gemara answers: And still, did we know on which day it would be destroyed? It was therefore impossible to use this factor as a means to broach the dissolution of their vows.
*TALMUD RABBINIC TEACHINGS DANIEL 9:24-27
*Medieval Jewish teacher Maimonides said* , " *Daniel has elucidated to us the knowledge of the end times* . However, since *they are secret* , *the wise [rabbis] have barred the calculation of the days of Messiah's coming so that the untutored populace will not be led astray when they see that the End Times have already come but there is no sign of the Messiah* " (Igeret Teiman, Chapter 3 p.24.)
*Rabbi Moses Abraham Levi said* , "I have examined and searched all the Holy Scriptures and have not found the time for the coming of Messiah clearly fixed, *except in the words of Gabriel to the prophet Daniel, which are written in the 9th chapter of the prophecy of Daniel* (The Messiah of the Targums, Talmuds and Rabbinical Writers, 1971) p.141-142.
*Targum of the prophets* ; Tractate Megillah 3a by Rabbi Jonathan ben Uzziel, we read: "And the (voice from heaven) came forth and exclaimed, who is he that has revealed my secrets to mankind?.. He further sought to reveal by a Targum the inner meaning of the Hagiographa (a portion of scripture which includes Daniel), but a voice from heaven went forth and said, enough! What was the reason?-- *because the date of the Messiah was foretold in it* !"
Jesus told the Pharisees that “Because they did not know the TIME OF THEIR VISITATION, the temple would be destroyed.
*LUKE 19:43-45* "For the days will come upon you when your enemies will build an embankment around you, surround you and close you in on every side, and level you, and your children within you, to the ground; and they will not leave in you one stone upon another, because you did not know the time of your visitation."
Targum also says *Isaiah 53* is about *The Messiah*
*Targum Jonathan* (an Aramaic translation) of the book of Isaiah, dating around the second century, says, “Behold, My servant the Messiah shall prosper.”33
Isaiah 11 vs Isaiah 53 prophecy of Jesus
Christians, recognizing that Isaiah 11 speaks of the Messiah and the messianic age attempt to apply it to Jesus. But, for this passage to have any connection to the life of Jesus it would need to be referring to his so-called first coming, and that is not the case. This prophecy concerns the “shoot” coming “out of the stock of David,” which would refer to the Messiah’s ancestry at the time of his birth not at a supposed second coming. And it should be noted that Davidic ancestry in general and lineal descent from the regal line in particular is not firmly established for Jesus by the pertinent New Testament narratives.
This presents a serious problem for the Christian interpretation of Isaiah 11. This chapter, which Christians identify with Jesus, gives a very positive and widely accepted leadership portrait of the individual described. It stands in stark contrast to the portrayal of the suffering servant of Isaiah 53:1-2, who Christians also identify with Jesus. The servant is portrayed in difficult circumstances, from his very beginning. Now, if Isaiah’s two prophecies (11:1 and 53:1-2) are both applied to Jesus, they would have to refer to his so-called first coming and this leads to an irreconcilable contradiction. The respective passages simply could not both be referring to one person and are mutually exclusive of each other. Some Christians divide this passage into two separate periods, one during Jesus’ lifetime and the other after his supposed future return following his death. Nonetheless, it is apparent that there is but one “coming” indicated in the passage. This is confirmed by verse 10 where all the events listed in verses 2-9 occur. There the individual spoken of is called, “a shoot of the stock of Jesse,” and typical of biblical poetic style parallel to this he is called “a branch out of his [Jesse’s] roots shall bear fruit.” This can only refer to one’s earthly existence and not to a supposedly resurrected divine being coming back at some future date. Christians claim that Jesus appeared first to offer a means of salvation for mankind. They then claim that he will return a second time, at which time he is supposed to judge and rule the world. This Christian explanation, however, has nothing in common with the text of Isaiah 11. The subject of this passage is not portrayed as a resurrected divine being returning to earth as its judge and king.
Some Christians claim that verse 2, “The spirit of the Lord shall rest upon him” was fulfilled at Jesus’ baptism (Matthew 3:16, Mark 1:10, Luke 3:22). This explanation also has no textual support. It is said that “God anointed him [Jesus] with the Holy Spirit and with power” (Acts 10:38; see also John 3:34). Are we to assume that Jesus, one-third of a triune deity, needed the “Spirit of God,” another one-third of the deity, to descend upon him by permission of still another one-third of this deity? The author of Acts claims that Jesus had the ability to do wonders because God anointed him and that “God was with him.” But, now, think about this! If Jesus was a coequal part of a triune God, he would not need to be anointed by another part of this God and have this other God “with him” in order to perform miracles. Even more so, if Jesus was God in any way, whatsoever, he could not stand in a relationship with God that is outside of God. If the New Testament Jesus, at any time, gave up any of his supposed pre-incarnation godly powers he could not be God in any ontological subdivision. God cannot be diminished or subdivided.
Christians choose those verses that they think have been fulfilled in a first coming by Jesus and leave the remainder to be fulfilled during a second coming. A perusal of the entire chapter 11 shows that there is no evidence to suggest a two part division within the prophecy. Needless to say, this passage has nothing to do with Jesus.
1. It was Son of Man in flesh who got anointed not His Divine essence. It was symbolic ceremony to fulfill the prophecies so the people of Israel know the sign that The King Messiah has come according to the Prophets passages. Son of Man is both God in essence and Man in flesh, but He isn’t limited by time, space, and matter. He can be God at same time he can walk on earth as flesh. God is omnipresence.
2. Isaiah 11 clealry talking about The Messiah in the future after the judgement day. Read the verse 6-16
(6) The wolf also shall dwell with the lamb, and the leopard shall lie down with the kid; and the calf and the young lion and the fatling together; and a little child shall lead them. (7) And the cow and the bear shall feed; their young ones shall lie down together: and the lion shall eat straw like the ox. (8) And the sucking child shall play on the hole of the asp, and the weaned child shall put his hand on the cockatrice' den. (9) They shall not hurt nor destroy in all my holy mountain: for the earth shall be full of the knowledge of the LORD, as the waters cover the sea. (10) And in that day there shall be a root of Jesse, which shall stand for an ensign of the people; to it shall the Gentiles seek: and his rest shall be glorious. (11) And it shall come to pass in that day, that the Lord shall set his hand again the second time to recover the remnant of his people, which shall be left, from Assyria, and from Egypt, and from Pathros, and from Cush, and from Elam, and from Shinar, and from Hamath, and from the islands of the sea. (12) And he shall set up an ensign for the nations, and shall assemble the outcasts of Israel, and gather together the dispersed of Judah from the four corners of the earth. (13) The envy also of Ephraim shall depart, and the adversaries of Judah shall be cut off: Ephraim shall not envy Judah, and Judah shall not vex Ephraim. (14) But they shall fly upon the shoulders of the Philistines toward the west; they shall spoil them of the east together: they shall lay their hand upon Edom and Moab; and the children of Ammon shall obey them. (15) And the LORD shall utterly destroy the tongue of the Egyptian sea; and with his mighty wind shall he shake his hand over the river, and shall smite it in the seven streams, and make men go over dryshod. (16) And there shall be an highway for the remnant of his people, which shall be left, from Assyria; like as it was to Israel in the day that he came up out of the land of Egypt.
Isaiah 11:3-5 talk about the time at the judgement day how The King Messiah
will judge (btw only God can judge so clearly Jesus was God in flesh)
(3) And shall make him of quick understanding in the fear of the LORD: and he shall not judge after the sight of his eyes, neither reprove after the hearing of his ears: (4) But with righteousness shall he judge the poor, and reprove with equity for the meek of the earth: and he shall smite the earth with the rod of his mouth, and with the breath of his lips shall he slay the wicked. (5) And righteousness shall be the girdle of his loins, and faithfulness the girdle of his reins.
After that all humankind will have eternal peace and Israel as a nation will restored from every parts of the world as it was promised in Isaiah 11 verse 6-16.
Jesus bless you
@
How can a son of man be God?
Citing rabbinical commentary to give weight that 53 speaks of the Messiah is setting yourself up to fall apart. Rabbinical commentary also university refuses Jesus as the Messiah. You’re not going to accept a rabbinical interpretation that rejects Jesus, but you’ll take it if it speaks of the Messiah and you can twist it to fit your beliefs? That’s just cherry picking.
42:6-7 refers to God opening the eyes of Israel Himself, it makes no mention of a second, “servant.
It is also as ridiculous to cite and an Aramaic translation of Isiah 52 as it is to cite the Septuagint. Translations never override the original. Also, the word messiah means anointed one. There are many messiahs in the Bible so someone translating servant to messiah in Aramaic centuries before Christianity, may not have meant messiah like a Christian would.
You can’t get mad at People citing Zephaniah because it “refers to the future” when your doing the same thing with Isaiah 53. Also taking Jeremiah 30 is the same this as well, your pulling different verses, from different books with different contexts out of where they belong to justify whatever theology you want to create.
You can try to cover up the holes in the argument with fast talking and rapidly jumping around both the Bible and the argument points and making assertions with verses that have nothing to do with what you say so fast it’s hard to keep up. To where people get a hard time critiquing you. And people who already agree with you will just passively accept your on to something. But in reality, it’s the same assertion that one must read outside of Isaiah rather then the rest of Isaiah to learn what 53 is about. When doctrines pop up that take Christian verses out of context to justify crazy beliefs just know you will look at them the same way we look at you.
The servant in Messiah had NO SIN in HIM - Israel is FULL OF SIN. Deuteronomy 18:15-19 Moses says God will raise up one from AMONG HUMANs one LIKE MOSES whom he will put the words in his his mouth - We must listen to him or lose our souls. Daniel 9:24-27 The MESSIAH was to be cut off BEFORE the destruction of the 2nd temple in 70 AD . Isaiah 9:6-7 Says the MEssiah will be GOD IN THE FLESH - A human called GOD, Isaiah 7:14 says the Messiah will be born to a virgin called Emmanual (GOD WITH US), Genesis 3:15 The woman's seed will defeat satan - not a mans seed - A HUMAN!!! God came in the Flesh and the Jewish people feared they would lose their land to the Romans so they crucified him - Isaiah 53, Psalm 22, Psalm 34:20, Psalm 16:10, Isaiah 26:19, Zechariah 12:10, Micah 5:2.
To read of the Messiah's geneology - again proving he would come as a human, visit these verses: Genesis 12:3 Genesis 22:18 (Messiah would come from line of Abraham), Messiah would be a descendant of Isaac. Genesis 17:19 Genesis 21:12, Messiah would be a descendant of Jacob. Numbers 24:17, Messiah would come from the tribe of Judah. Genesis 49:10, Messiah would be heir to King David's throne. 2 Samuel 7:12-13 Isaiah 9:7,.
***** MARY WAS ALSO FROM THE LINE OF DAVID *****
Read ISAIAH 53 again, in combination with all these Old Testament verses - then go read the New Testament Gospels and REPENT and get to know your SAVIOR - for your redeemer God did come into this world as FLESH John 1:1-14 as he was too HOLY to enter as he was - he had to take on the form of a human to die for you. John 3:16 For God so loved the world that he gave his only begotten son (Psalm 2), that whosoever believes on him shall not perish but have ever lasting life.
***** OLD TESTAMENT SCRIPTURE CONFIRMS MANY TIMES THAT THE MESSIAH WOULD COME AS A HUMAN *****
Right on Dr. Brown. Isaiah 53=YESHUA MESSIAH
LAUGHABLE! IT IS THE PEOPLE ISRAEL.
@@InspiredByEbonyLove Ponder on these verses - Then return to *ISAIAH 53 and read it from a Messianic view* .
*ISAIAH 59* states Israel is *FULL OF DECEIT, SIN, and VIOLENCE* - Calling Israel the *SUFFERING RIGHTEOUS SERVANT WHO HAD NO DECEIT OR VIOLENCE* would be a *CONTRADICTION* to ISAIAH 53:9. *SEE BELOW*
*ISAIAH 53:8-9* He (SUFFERING SERVANT MESSIAH* ) was taken from prison and from judgment: and who shall declare his generation? for *HE* (SINGULAR MESSIAH) was cut off out of the land of the living: *for the transgression of my people was he stricken* (HE = MESSIAH, and MY PEOPLE = ISRAEL).9 And he made his grave with the wicked, and with the rich in his death; because *he had done no violence, neither was any deceit in his mouth* .
*ISAIAH 59:2-6* 2 But your iniquities have separated between you and your God, and your sins have hid his face from you, that he will not hear. 3 For *your hands are defiled with blood* , and your fingers with iniquity; *your lips have spoken lies* , your tongue hath muttered perverseness. 4 None calleth for justice, nor any pleadeth for truth: they trust in vanity, and *speak lies* ; they conceive mischief, and bring forth iniquity. 5 They hatch cockatrice' eggs, and weave the spider's web: he that eateth of their eggs dieth, and that which is crushed breaketh out into a viper. 6 Their webs shall not become garments, neither shall they cover themselves with their works: *their works are works of iniquity* , and the *act of violence is in their hands* . ( *ISRAEL CANNOT SAVE THEMSELVES BY WORKS* )
*ISRAEL IS NOT RIGHTEOUS*
*ISRAEL IS FULL OF DECEIT*
*ISRAEL HAS INNOCENT BLOOD ON ITS HANDS*
*ISRAEL SPEAKS LIES*
*ISRAEL HAS ACTS OF VIOLENCE IN THEIR HANDS*
*ISAIAH 59:11-16* We roar all like bears, and mourn sore like doves: we look for judgment, but there is none; *for salvation, but it is far off from us* .12 For our transgressions are multiplied before thee, and our sins testify against us: for our transgressions are with us; and as for our iniquities, we know them; 13 In *transgressing and lying against the Lord* , and departing away from our God, speaking oppression and revolt, conceiving and *uttering from the heart words of falsehood* . 14 And judgment is turned away backward, and justice standeth afar off: for truth is fallen in the street, and equity cannot enter. 15 Yea, truth faileth; and he that departeth from evil maketh himself a prey: and the Lord saw it, and it displeased him that there was no judgment. 16 And he saw that there was no man, and wondered that *there was no intercessor* ( *ISRAEL IS NOT THE INTERCESSOR* ): therefore *his arm brought salvation unto him* ( *WHOM HAS THE ARM OF THE LORD BEEN REVEALLED* ); and his righteousness, it sustained him.
*ISRAEL WAITS FOR GOD'S SALVATION - THEY CANNOT SAVE THEMSELVES OR ANYONE FOR THAT MATTER* !
Rabbinic Judaism is not biblical - Read the warning in
*PROVERBS 30:5-6*
Every word of God is pure: he is a shield unto them that put their trust in him. *Add thou not unto his words, lest he reprove thee, and thou be found a liar* .
*I challenge you to read LEVITICUS 26 & DEUTERONOMY 28 - The people of Israel suffers for their own sins by being exiled - Israel *NEVER DIES* it only *ENJOYS* it's rest for all the ignored sabbath years. The nation of Israel suffers for their own sin while ISRAEL rests - Israel is *NEVER* cut off and *NEVER* dies. ( *LEV **26:42**-43* Then will I remember my covenant with Jacob, and also my covenant with Isaac, and also my covenant with Abraham will I remember; and *I will remember the land* . 43 *The land also shall be left of them, and shall enjoy her sabbaths, while she lieth desolate without them* : and *they shall accept of the punishment of their iniquity* : because, even because they despised my judgments, and because their soul abhorred my statutes) - *THERE YOU HAVE IT* !
Israel is *EXILED FOR THEIR OWN SINS* and the *SINGULAR ISRAEL COUNTRY IS SPARED* ! *ISAIAH 53 is about THE MESSIAH* !
Ask yourself, "Why have Jews been in exile with no temple for 2000 years"? Must have done something hugely sinful for God to punish the people that bad.
So if *ISAIAH 59:20* states the *REDEEMER will come TO ISRAEL* and *ZECHARIAH **9:11* he comes with the *NEW BLOOD COVENANT* as promised by *JEREMIAH 31:31* and ISAIAH 59:6* says *YOUR WORKS WONT SAVE YOU*, then what is your plan for redemption? You need a *BLOOD ATONEMENT* as said in *LEVITICUS 17:11.
@@InspiredByEbonyLoveProve it
I have. There are parts that completely contradict the different servant being Israel as a collective @@charananekibalijaun8837
So Dr. Brown, your basic argument is that in other passages, rabbinic commentators noted that the Messiah is being referenced. Therefore you conclude that chapter 53 is about the Messiah.
What does the rabbinic commentary say about chapter 53? If they said that it too were about the Messiah- then why would those rabbis continue to not accept Jesus as the Messiah? Could it be because Jesus didn't fulfill messianic prophecy?
👆💯
Well of course they weren't going to accept Jesus as the messiah since that meant conversion to Christianity. They would be expecting a Jewish and strictly Jewish Messiah.
Great word Dr. Brown, yet it is very clear that Philip knew what he was saying when he declared to the Eunuch that this person in Isaiah, was indeed Jesus.
“Now an angel of the Lord said to Philip, “Rise up and go toward the south on the way that goes down from Jerusalem to Gaza.” This is desert. So he rose up and went. And there was a man of Ethiopia, a eunuch of great authority under Candace, queen of the Ethiopians, who was in command of her entire treasury. He had come to Jerusalem to worship. He was returning, sitting in his chariot and reading the book of Isaiah the prophet. The Spirit said to Philip, “Go to this chariot and stay with it.”
Then Philip ran to him, and heard him read the book of Isaiah the prophet, and said, “Do you understand what you are reading?”
He said, “How can I, unless someone guides me?” So he invited Philip to come up and sit with him.
The passage of Scripture which he was reading was this:
“He was led as a sheep to slaughter;
and as a lamb before its shearer is silent,
so He opened not His mouth.
In His humiliation justice was denied Him;
who will speak of His generation?
For His life is taken from the earth.”
The eunuch said to Philip, “I ask you, of whom does the prophet speak, of himself or of someone else?” Then Philip spoke, beginning with the same Scripture, and preached Jesus to him.” Acts 8:26-35.
Jews understand that Isaiah has an antiphonal style when he refers to Israel the nation at one point and the Messiah the next. Yet they still deny Isaiah 53 refers to the Messiah because it's too great an indictment of the rejection of the New Testament Christ.
For Tovia, I bring this to him. Ruth 4:12 " And let thy house be like the house of Phares....
Thanks to Dr Brown.very clear
Thank you for combating this man's words who is saying some huge claims against Messiah.
Singers whole demeanour and tone is that of hubris. Couple that with the proven examples of him giving false definitions of Hebrew words, twisting truths and straight lying - I don’t know why anyone listens to him.
Thank you very much Dr. Brown..👏
8, .....for the transgression of My People(Israel) , was HE(Jesus) stricken.
The " my ,I " ( first singular person ) refers to God .
" my people " " his people ' throughout the chapters leading to 53 only refers to " Israel" .
Don't lie brother
King David is called God’s Servant (Isaiah 37:35),
@@catbilota2492 where it says that David will be lifted up then his suffering brought healing ??
@@nashashbel6922 I mean to say there is not 1 servent i.e israel in the full chapter of Isaiah , it has more servents including messaih .
ISRAEL IS SUFFERED/DIED FOR ISRAELS SINS.how it is possible???? Is all the jews are suffering in this World??? Including elon musk??
I have been told the nations are the ones speaking in Isaiah 53, because they finally realise that their abuse of Israel is wrong towards the end.
This confuses me. I always thought it was the prophet speaking because of v1 "to whom has the arm of the Lord been revealed?"
Please can you help?
The suffering servant is The Lord Jesus Christ. The Son of God!
That was awesome! What did scholar/rabbis make of Isaiah 53 before Jesus arrived? Was there any thought that it was a Messianic prophecy before Jesus? Because I can't imagine them making much sense of it alongside their other, more kingly messianic beliefs.
yes there was. there were many messianic interpretations that were accepted and circulated before Yeshua's time... they were all pushed aside when Rabbinic Judaism was established ca. 100 AD.
Although the Qumran community , before the time of Jesus expected the coming of two Messiah. Messiah of Aaron ( high priest ) & Messiah of Israel ( the King) .
If you read the prophecy of Zechariah 6 , you see that Yoshua the High priest with a crown on his head is the representation of the Messiah ,the branch .
Messiah High priest comes first then Messiah of Israel the king comes after.
Many of them recognized this as a messianic prophecy. It wasn’t until later that they started trying to twist it.
They didn't want a king, they wanted a warrior. They denied him b/c his sword was a message of love. Jews wanted to conquer and enslave their enemies. Is.53 was taught to be the messiah for centuries until it was reinterpreted and removed from teaching in tabernacles.
John, in the gospel of John confirms that this prophecy was about Jesus. John quotes Isaiah 53 when referring to Jesus.
John 12:37-38 “But although He had done so many signs before them, they did not believe in Him, 38 that the word of Isaiah the prophet might be fulfilled, which he spoke: “Lord, who has believed our report? And to whom has the arm of the Lord been revealed?”
The servant is the messiah, in v.8 the speaker says he suffered for the sin of my people. this shows the speakers cannot be the rest of the world. because it would be strange for the people to say "my people" meaning the speaker is the prophet. the prophet is the one who says, the servant suffered for my people. thus, making the speakers from v.1-6, the jewish nation. the prophet speaking on behalf of the nation
the jewish people thought this servant was the accursed one, one that was stricken by God. but in reality he was the arm of the lord who died for their sin. Jesus is Lord! keep up the good work
Sounds like that
Great to see Dr. Brown refute Singers take on Isaiah. Singer does everything he can to deny Jesus Christ as the Messiah. He replaces him with a common man, a political peace maker well versed on Judaism who is yet to come.
The national destiny and mission of Israel is embodied and fulfilled in their Messiah, so it makes perfect sense for Isaiah to speak of Israel as a nation as God's servant, and then apply these specific prophecies to Israel's Messiah who fulfills the mission of the nation. Isaiah 49 makes it clear, this servant/Israel's job is to bring the remnant of Jacob/Israel back to God, and the Gentiles as well. So this servant of the Lord, like Moses before him, is a single individual from the nation of Israel, who represents the nation before God, and carries the mission of Israel to completion.
Thanks.
Here is another passage that clearly shows that “My Servant” isn’t always about the whole of Israel but is referring to one person, in this context it’s referring to Isaiah:
Isaiah 49:5-6
5 And now, saith the Lord that formed me from the womb to be his servant, to bring Jacob again to him, Though Israel be not gathered, yet shall I be glorious in the eyes of the Lord, and my God shall be my strength.
6 And he said, It is a light thing that thou shouldest be my servant to raise up the tribes of Jacob, and to restore the preserved of Israel: I will also give thee for a light to the Gentiles, that thou mayest be my salvation unto the end of the earth.
Here’s proof from God that this talks about Israel
““ ‘So do not be afraid, Jacob my servant; do not be dismayed, Israel,’ declares the Lord. ‘I will surely save you out of a distant place, your descendants from the land of their exile. Jacob will again have peace and security, and no one will make him afraid. I am with you and will save you,’ declares the Lord. ‘Though I completely destroy all the nations among which I scatter you, I will not completely destroy you. I will discipline you but only in due measure; I will not let you go entirely unpunished.’ “This is what the Lord says: “ ‘Your wound is incurable, your injury beyond healing. There is no one to plead your cause, no remedy for your sore, no healing for you. All your allies have forgotten you; they care nothing for you. I have struck you as an enemy would and punished you as would the cruel, because your guilt is so great and your sins so many. Why do you cry out over your wound, your pain that has no cure? Because of your great guilt and many sins I have done these things to you. “ ‘But all who devour you will be devoured; all your enemies will go into exile. Those who plunder you will be plundered; all who make spoil of you I will despoil. But I will restore you to health and heal your wounds,’ declares the Lord, ‘because you are called an outcast, Zion for whom no one cares.’”
Jeremiah 30:10-17
@@Viral_Christology
so you really have no clue on your belief do you? You don’t know your Bible?
Don’t listen to me listen to God. See below
“The Lord will scatter you among the peoples, and only a few of you will survive among the nations to which the Lord will drive you. There you will worship man-made gods of wood and stone, which cannot see or hear or eat or smell. But if from there you seek the Lord your God, you will find him if you seek him with all your heart and with all your soul. When you are in distress and all these things have happened to you, then in later days you will return to the Lord your God and obey him. For the Lord your God is a merciful God; he will not abandon or destroy you or forget the covenant with your ancestors, which he confirmed to them by oath.”
Deuteronomy 4:27-31 NIV
Do you understand now? When the Jews stopped filling Gods decrees he told them he will scatter them but will never forget them. This is the theme throughout the Hebrew Scriptures.
Here is Gods promise again
“As a shepherd looks after his scattered flock when he is with them, so will I look after my sheep. I will rescue them from all the places where they were scattered on a day of clouds and darkness. I will bring them out from the nations and gather them from the countries, and I will bring them into their own land. I will pasture them on the mountains of Israel, in the ravines and in all the settlements in the land. I will tend them in a good pasture, and the mountain heights of Israel will be their grazing land. There they will lie down in good grazing land, and there they will feed in a rich pasture on the mountains of Israel. I myself will tend my sheep and have them lie down, declares the Sovereign Lord. I will search for the lost and bring back the strays. I will bind up the injured and strengthen the weak, but the sleek and the strong I will destroy. I will shepherd the flock with justice. “ ‘As for you, my flock, this is what the Sovereign Lord says: I will judge between one sheep and another, and between rams and goats.”
Ezekiel 34:12-17 NIV
NO JESUS REQUIRED!!!
Because Israel is repeated called the servant in the book of Isaiah
@@Viral_Christology
If you read the text correctly, Isaiah is clearly telling us how the nations of the world will react when they witness the future messianic-redemption of the Jewish people. (Throughout the book of Isaiah, the Jewish people are referred to as the “Servant of G-d” and in the singular, e.g. Isaiah 41:8, Isaiah 49:3). First, they will be astonished, literally covering their mouths at what they see, because they never believed that they would witness the glorious redemption of a persecuted, rejected and despised Israel - which they themselves persecuted! Then, they will try to understand why this newly exalted Israel suffered so much. Originally they believed it was because G-d had rejected the Jews. Now that they see that this is not true, they will say that the suffering was the result of the transgressions of the nations (themselves) who persecuted the Jewish people.
Two points that are very important:
1.“He [Israel] was wounded because of (מ) our [the nations] transgression.” (Isaiah 53:5). In this verse the Hebrew letter (מ) means “because of” or “from.” It is never translated as “for” which would incorrectly indicate a vicarious atonement.
2. “For the transgression of my people they (למו) were stricken.” (Isaiah 53:8). The word they (למו) is plural (see Psalm 99:7) and clearly indicates that this verse does not refer to a single individual.
Another important detail to point out is that his chapter does not clearly identify Jesus of Nazareth. Even if we take the approach that the chapter does speak of Messiah, it could just as easily apply to anyone in history who suffered. How about Moses, Elijah the prophet?
The entire application to Jesus by missionaries is based on faith, but when carefully scrutinized it doesn’t prove anything.
One other point to emphasize, if you have time. In Matthew 16, we see that Jesus himself does not claim to be Messiah. Jesus asks his disciples, “Who do you think I am?” One answers “Elijah,” another, that he is John the Baptist. Peter thinks he is the Messiah. However, when Jesus then says that he must go up to Jerusalem, be killed, and resurrected on the third day. Peter rebukes him “God forbid it, lord, this shall never happen to you.”
One may ask “Why does Peter need to rebuke Jesus?” If, indeed he is the promised messiah, then Peter, no doubt familiar with Isaiah 53, should have had no problem. Yet, since neither he, nor any other apostle of Jesus knew of any strange concept of Messiah suffering, dying, and being resurrected, they did not see Isaiah 53 as being a definitive passage containing information defining the “suffering servant” and vicarious atonement role of Messiah.
@@Viral_Christology you are completely ignoring the the theme of the book of Isaiah. It’s a book of warning and hope.
God explains in deuteronomy what will
Happen if the Jews disobey Gods commands:
”The Lord will scatter you among the peoples, and only a few of you will survive among the nations to which the Lord will drive you. There you will worship man-made gods of wood and stone, which cannot see or hear or eat or smell. But if from there you seek the Lord your God, you will find him if you seek him with all your heart and with all your soul. When you are in distress and all these things have happened to you, then in later days you will return to the Lord your God and obey him. For the Lord your God is a merciful God; he will not abandon or destroy you or forget the covenant with your ancestors, which he confirmed to them by oath. You were shown these things so that you might know that the Lord is God; besides him there is no other. From heaven he made you hear his voice to discipline you. On earth he showed you his great fire, and you heard his words from out of the fire. Acknowledge and take to heart this day that the Lord is God in heaven above and on the earth below. There is no other. Keep his decrees and commands, which I am giving you today, so that it may go well with you and your children after you and that you may live long in the land the Lord your God gives you for all time.“
Deuteronomy 4:27-31, 35-36, 39-40 NIV
Then when the Jews are exiled for disobeying God then he will save the ones who are faithful:
”“Therefore say to the Israelites, ‘This is what the Sovereign Lord says: It is not for your sake, people of Israel, that I am going to do these things, but for the sake of my holy name, which you have profaned among the nations where you have gone. I will show the holiness of my great name, which has been profaned among the nations, the name you have profaned among them. Then the nations will know that I am the Lord, declares the Sovereign Lord, when I am proved holy through you before their eyes. “ ‘For I will take you out of the nations; I will gather you from all the countries and bring you back into your own land. I will sprinkle clean water on you, and you will be clean; I will cleanse you from all your impurities and from all your idols. I will give you a new heart and put a new spirit in you; I will remove from you your heart of stone and give you a heart of flesh. And I will put my Spirit in you and move you to follow my decrees and be careful to keep my laws. Then you will live in the land I gave your ancestors; you will be my people, and I will be your God. I will save you from all your uncleanness. I will call for the grain and make it plentiful and will not bring famine upon you. I will increase the fruit of the trees and the crops of the field, so that you will no longer suffer disgrace among the nations because of famine. Then you will remember your evil ways and wicked deeds, and you will loathe yourselves for your sins and detestable practices. I want you to know that I am not doing this for your sake, declares the Sovereign Lord. Be ashamed and disgraced for your conduct, people of Israel! “ ‘This is what the Sovereign Lord says: On the day I cleanse you from all your sins, I will resettle your towns, and the ruins will be rebuilt. The desolate land will be cultivated instead of lying desolate in the sight of all who pass through it. They will say, “This land that was laid waste has become like the garden of Eden; the cities that were lying in ruins, desolate and destroyed, are now fortified and inhabited.” Then the nations around you that remain will know that I the Lord have rebuilt what was destroyed and have replanted what was desolate. I the Lord have spoken, and I will do it.’ “This is what the Sovereign Lord says: Once again I will yield to Israel’s plea and do this for them: I will make their people as numerous as sheep, as numerous as the flocks for offerings at Jerusalem during her appointed festivals. So will the ruined cities be filled with flocks of people. Then they will know that I am the Lord.”“
Ezekiel 36:22-38 NIV
@@Viral_Christology
According to the Christian Bible, the sacrificial system has come to an end, because Jesus is the final sacrifice. It says this in Hebrews chapter 10 verse 18 and Romans chapter 6
In Ezekiel 45 the Messiah (prince) will bring a sin offering for his own sins and the sins of the people in verses, 16-22. I would like to know from you why would the Messiah be bringing a sin offering on behalf of his own sins if the Messiah never sinned and is sinless?
What Christians and Messianics don’t understand is that it’s not so much about Isaiah 53 being messianic in nature or not, it’s about whether or not Jesus fits into the context based upon the NT.
Well does he ? No.
נִבְזֶה֙ וַֽחֲדַ֣ל אִישִׁ֔ים
"Despised and isolated from men."
(Isaiah 53:3)
This doesn’t fit into the NT accounts of Jesus, a man who was supposedly "praised by all" (Lk. 4:14-15) and followed by multitudes (Matt. 4:25), who would later acclaim him as a prophet upon his triumphal entry into Jerusalem (Matt. 21:9-11). Even as he was taken to be crucified, a multitude bemoaned his fate (Lk. 23:27). Jesus had to be taken by stealth, as the rulers feared "a riot of the people" (Mk. 14:1-2).
2.
אִ֥ישׁ מַכְאֹב֖וֹת וִיד֣וּעַ חֹ֑לִי
“…a man of pains and accustomed to sickness (or disease/illness)…”
(Isaiah 53:3)
Yet, the Christian translation reads: “and accustomed or acquainted with grief”
This point is very important.
Choli/חולי in Hebrew has nothing to do with “grief”!! Choli is a disease or sickness !
There are actually words in ancient Hebrew that express “grief”, such as “יגון” or “תוגה” (Proverbs 10:1, 14:13; Lamentations 3:32).
Choli, however, only expresses disease and illness, chronic or not.
Proof, you ask?
In fact, until this very verse in Isaiah, and even in Isaiah itself, Christian Bibles correctly translated the word as disease or illness, countless times! As in, “The writing of Hezekiah king of Judah, when he had been sick, and was recovered of his sickness. (Isaiah 38:9)
🤔
Don’t take my word for it, and check it out for yourself.
The following verses express this exact, correct translation:
Deuteronomy
7:15; 7:15; 28:59; 28:59; 28:59; 28:61; 28:61
1 Kings
17:17
2 Kings
1:2; 8:8; 8:9; 13:14
2 Chronicles
16:12; 21:15; 21:15; 21:18; 21:19
Psalms
41:4
Ecclesiastes
5:16; 5:16; 6:2
Suddenly, in order to make Jesus more palatable to Isaiah 53, it’s translated as “grief”.
(1) Jesus was never “ill” or “sick” with any illness, let alone to have endured chronic illness !!
(2) From a purely speculative point of view, even if we accept the lie of “grief”, it still makes no sense to define Jesus as “accustomed or acquainted with grief” !
Jesus’ life can hardly be defined as chronically plagued with “grief”.
Besides a few instances of the grief he felt for others, or his death, his “grief” was not extraordinary, persistent and/or significant enough to be coined as “accustomed”.
3.
וְלֹ֣א יִפְתַּח־פִּיו֒ כַּשֶּׂה֙ לַטֶּ֣בַח יוּבָ֔ל וּכְרָחֵ֕ל לִפְנֵ֥י גֹֽזְזֶ֖יהָ נֶֽאֱלָ֑מָה וְלֹ֥א יִפְתַּ֖ח פִּֽיו:
“…yet he would not open his mouth; like a lamb to the slaughter he would be brought, and like a ewe that is mute before her shearers, and he would not open his mouth.”
(Isaiah 53:7)
There is a precedent in the Bible for remaining silent in the face of harsh judgment, as in, “Then Moses said to Aaron, "This is what the Lord spoke, [when He said], 'I will be sanctified through those near to Me, and before all the people I will be glorified.' " And Aaron was silent. (Leviticus 10:3)
Aharon’s two sons were killed suddenly in the midst of a great celebration, the inauguration of the tabernacle, yet, Aharon accepted the judgment and spoke, not a word.
This is starkly contrasted with Jesus’ response:
After Jesus was arrested in the Garden of Gethsemane, the high priest questioned Jesus, saying, “Are You the Christ, the Son of the Blessed?” Jesus responded, not with silence, or humbly, rather, with provocation; He said: “I am. And you will see the Son of Man sitting at the right hand of the Power, and coming with the clouds of heaven” (Mark 14:61-62). Jesus then was sent to Pilate, where He was asked another question about His identity, “Are You the King of the Jews?” As he had done earlier that night, He did not keep SILENCE, but answered Pilate with these words: “It is as you say” (Mark 15:2). Even while hanging on the cross a few hours later, Jesus made several statements, including, “Father, forgive them, for they do not know what they do” (Luke 23:34), and “My God, My God, why have You forsaken Me?” (Mark 15:34).
Even if we say that “keeping silent” is at least fulfilled through humility and a limitation of speech, Jesus not only spoke up, he even boasted, and, as well, expressed confusion at the cross regarding God’s judgment, as in, “My God, My God, why have You forsaken Me?” (Mark 15:34).
Besides the fact that God can’t forsake his “other person”, questioning God’s judgment which allegedly brought “world peace and everlasting atonement” is hardly the place for such impertinent words.
Thus, both his trial and execution were tainted with defective speech.
Conclusion: Jesus did not remain “silent” and aligned with Divine judgement which contradicts the attitude expressed by the servant of God in this verse.
4. This next point is perhaps the most unambiguous refutation of the claim that Isaiah 53 is speaking uniquely of a messianic figure.
כִּ֚י נִגְזַר֙ מֵאֶ֣רֶץ חַיִּ֔ים מִפֶּ֥שַׁע עַמִּ֖י נֶ֥גַע לָֽמוֹ
“…He [the servant] was cut off from the land of the living, because of the transgressions of my people THEY were stricken”. (Isaiah 53:8)
Yet, Christian translate it as, “…HE was stricken.”
Who was stricken, THEY or He ?
Now, the last part of the verse tells us that this “servant” was “stricken”, yet, in the Hebrew, it refers to the servant in the plural, “THEY were stricken”.
It cannot be translated as, “he was stricken”, as a Christian Bible would have you believe. (We will get into that shortly)
This absolutely annihilates the Christian interpretation of chapter 53, and entirely supports the traditional interpretation, which teaches that “the servant” of the Lord, is Israel, and more particularly, “the righteous remnant of Israel”, they are the ones who suffer on behalf of others.
They are collectively known as “Jacob Israel”, the righteous servant, in the singular, for they are united with one heart in the service of God, it’s as if there is only one entity; thus, we find that the nation is referred to many times in Scripture in the singular (Exodus 12:2, among the many).
Yet, it is totally justified, and most proper, to also refer to them in the plural, on account of their being composed of many individuals, for the nation of Israel is mentioned, as well, in the plural.
(One of the best examples, again, is Exodus 12:2, where, in the very same verse, they are referred to both in plural and singular)
To clarify:
The word למו/lamo, literally means either “to or for them”. It’s composed of a ״ל״ “lamed”, a preposition which translates roughly as “to” or “for”, and “״מו, pronounced “Mo or Moo”, a less frequent form of the objective pronoun for “them”.
Shockingly, Christian translations of the Bible never fail to interpret every other instance of this objective pronoun in the plural except here!
For example: Genesis 9:26-27; Exodus 15:5,7,9; Deuteronomy 32:32, 35; Deuteronomy 33:2.
(It appears several times in Isaiah itself !)
Isaiah 23:1, 26:14,16, 30:5, 35:8, 43:8, 44:7, 15, 48:21; and the list goes on…
Dozens of times, they translate it as it should be translated, yet, only here, they chose to alter and singularize it; quite astonishing!
5.
וַיִּתֵּ֚ן אֶת־רְשָׁעִים֙ קִבְר֔וֹ וְאֶת־עָשִׁ֖יר בְּמֹתָ֑יו
“And he gave his grave to the wicked, and to the wealthy [he subjected himself] in HIS DEATHS…”
(Isaiah 53:9)
What does it mean to give your grave to the wicked ?
To let them kill you as they please, in the most degrading fashion.
The next part of the verse is very cumbersome for the Christian understanding, as it states, “and to the wealthy in HIS DEATHS”, in the plural, which means that he let himself be subjected to all kinds of deaths that a wealthy ruler decreed.
In which ever way you translate it, even according to the Christian translation, there is one word that you cannot get around, for the verse uses the plural בְּמֹתָ֑יו/BeMotav, literally, in his deaths, implying a whole variety of deaths.
This is utterly inapplicable to Jesus, yet, makes total sense when speaking of the righteous remnant of Israel, composed of many individuals.
6.
יִרְאֶ֥ה זֶ֖רַע יַֽאֲרִ֣יךְ יָמִ֑ים
“…he shall see children, he shall prolong his days…”
(Isaiah 53:10)
Jesus allegedly had no children, and certainly did not prolong his days. Despite the fact that a “prolongation of days” should not apply to God in any way.
Thank you for this teaching Dr Brown.
Great response. Proverbs 18:17
Thanks Dr.Brown for the explanation. I'm a simple gentile, but it never made sense to me that 'The suffering servant' in Isaiah should be regarded as 'Israel' (or the remnant). I've read comments by Jews who claimed the suffering servant is Jacob, or even Antipas(????). So the person referred to can be anyone to them, except Jesus of Nazareth.
Unfortunately for his position, Dr. Brown makes the mistake of conflating the Past with the Future. He mistakes Isaiah reminding Israel of its past sins (Isa. 42, 43, 47, 48... and most notably from Isa. 50.1) with the future events he prophesied in Isa. 53.
Beginning at 5:18, Dr. Brown recites time after time where Isaiah recounts God's "Servant", Israel, suffering for the disobedience of others within it. Most especially, as Dr. Brown states here re: Ch. 50:1 ... "God's indictment is forthright: '...for your iniquities you were sold, and FOR YOUR TRANSGRESSIONS YOUR MOTHER WAS SENT AWAY.' " Now, was the "mother" here guilty of those sins? Or was "she", an innocent, sent away for the sins of others? For "...your (Israel's) transgressions"? And yet... was not that metaphorical "mother" also of Israel? Of course she was; as were all other mothers like her in the Exile. Yet she was forced to pay for the sins of her children, despite being innocent of them.
Bingo! This is exactly what we find Isaiah then prophesying in Isa. 53... that the "Servant" will, in like manner, be forced to suffer for the transgressions of others in Israel. Isaiah is letting Israel know that ... just as in the past, Israel forced ALL in Israel (e.g., mothers) to suffer for the disobedience of others... the innocent for the guilty... so also will the "Servant" (the innocent in Israel at that future time) be likewise made to suffer for the transgressions of others.
Look... it's so very simple: Isaiah repeatedly used the term "Servant" throughout his book to mean "Israel"... no question. And ironically, Dr. Brown agrees with that. Thus, had Isaiah meant a different meaning for the term in Isa. 53 (i.e., "Messiah"), then that's the term he would have used. He sure as hell wouldn't have used the same term for "Israel" he had been exclusively using at every instance... to suddenly mean something completely different in only one chapter! To do so would be to ensure confusion and misinterpretation... which is exactly what Christians do by so claiming.
And finally, as I have pointed out again and again... as also does Rabbi Singer... Isa. 53.10 proves it's not "Jesus"... for "Jesus" never saw His own "seed" (biological offspring) nor were His days in mortality "prolonged"... as was promised the "Servant." This ONLY makes sense if the Servant is "Israel" in the future... when during the Messianic Age, they are fully restored, when they shall be reunited with their long-lost offspring dispersed throughout the world (e.g., "lost" Ten Tribes) and their days will be "prolonged" for no longer forced to suffer And finally, as I have pointed out again and again... as also does Rabbi Singer... Isa. 53.10 proves it's not "Jesus"... for "Jesus" never saw His own "seed" (biological offspring) nor were His days in mortality "prolonged"... as was promised the "Servant." This ONLY makes sense if the Servant is "Israel" in the future... when during the Messianic Age, they are fully restored, when they shall be reunited with their long-lost offspring dispersed throughout the world (e.g., "lost" Ten Tribes) and their days will be "prolonged" for no longer suffering antisemitism and all its horrors Israel has been forced to endure for millennia. and all its horrors Israel has been forced to endure for millennia.
The interpretation of Isaiah 53 as a prophecy about Israel rather than a Messianic figure misses key contextual elements that define Isaiah’s portrayal of the “Servant.” While it’s true Isaiah often identifies Israel as God’s “servant” (Isaiah 41:8-9; 44:1), Isaiah 53 uniquely describes an individual figure who is innocent, voluntarily suffers, and acts as an atoning sacrifice. This is distinct from Israel’s historical suffering, which Isaiah attributes to their own sins, as in Isaiah 50:1, where God clarifies that Israel suffered due to her own iniquities.
In Isaiah 53:5, we read, “But he was wounded for our transgressions, crushed for our iniquities.” This description suggests vicarious suffering, where an individual takes on the sins of others. Israel’s own suffering, conversely, is repeatedly shown as deserved consequence (Isaiah 1:4-7, 42:24-25). Unlike Israel’s collective guilt, Isaiah’s “Servant” is described as entirely innocent and silent before His oppressors (Isaiah 53:7), aligning with the unique Messianic figure Christians see in Jesus, who, according to the New Testament, was “without sin” (Hebrews 4:15).
The argument that Isaiah would have explicitly used the term “Messiah” is based on a misunderstanding. Isaiah’s use of “Servant” here parallels his use of personal descriptors elsewhere in Messianic prophecies (e.g., “Immanuel” in Isaiah 7:14, “Prince of Peace” in Isaiah 9:6), signaling a unique figure with divine qualities. Hebrew Bible scholarship recognizes the poetic style in Isaiah as frequently typological, with terms like “Servant” applicable both to Israel and, in certain passages, to an individual within Israel, especially in the context of the “Suffering Servant.”
Regarding “seeing His seed” (Isaiah 53:10) and having “prolonged days,” these terms don’t necessitate biological offspring. The phrase “seed” often symbolizes spiritual descendants in Jewish thought (e.g., Psalm 22:30), a fitting interpretation given the followers of Jesus who became spiritual “offspring” through faith. Jesus’ resurrection also signifies “prolonged days,” as Christians believe He lives eternally, a view consistent with the text’s broader context of overcoming death and suffering.
Finally, asserting that Israel alone fulfills Isaiah 53 overlooks the clear New Testament references where this chapter is applied directly to Jesus (e.g., Acts 8:32-35). Jesus’ role as the suffering, innocent figure aligns fully with Isaiah’s “Servant” who “bore the sin of many” (Isaiah 53:12). Ironically, Rabbinic Judaism acknowledges the possibility of an individual Messianic figure in certain texts (e.g., Sanhedrin 98b), yet Isaiah 53’s perfect fulfillment in Jesus is rejected, perhaps out of reluctance to reconcile this vision with traditional beliefs.
@@danielmayer1977 ... You're cherry picking and speculating like mad here. As Rabbi Tovia explains, the "Suffering Servant" is not ALL of Israel... but instead specifically the Righteous in Israel. Obviously, those in Israel who are disobedient are not God's Servant(s). However, for the sins of the wicked in Israel, the righteous are made to suffer, also. This has nothing to do with paying for their sins... but for being forced as Israelites also to suffer the same consequences as the disobedient... just as they did also when Jerusalem and Israel was destroyed beginning in 70 AD by the Romans... and later by Hitler in the Holocaust... and most recently by Islam's demonic terrorism. But, as Isaiah, makes clear in Isa. 53:10 (the verse Christians avoid like the plague), the Righteous in Israel... the "Suffering Servant(s)" being referenced here... will eventually be vindicated and will have their days in mortality prolonged and will see their offspring... something "Jesus" never did.
@@Khemin
Your interpretation of Isaiah 53 as referring to the righteous within Israel does not align with the Hebrew text or its context.
The term "seed" (זרע) in Isaiah 53:10 is frequently metaphorical. Psalm 22:30 describes a "seed" serving God, clearly referring to spiritual descendants. Isaiah 1:4 uses "seed of evildoers" to describe moral characteristics. Jesus fulfills this metaphor through His followers, who are His spiritual legacy, not biological children.
"Prolonged days" (יאריך ימים) in Isaiah 53:10 refers to eternal vindication or divine blessing, not mortal longevity. Deuteronomy 17:20 uses it for a king’s enduring reign, and Psalm 91:16 connects it to salvation. Jesus’ resurrection fulfills this prophecy, demonstrating eternal life and victory over death.
Isaiah 53 explicitly describes atoning suffering, not collateral consequences. The Servant "makes His soul an offering for sin" (אשם, asham), a term for guilt offerings in Leviticus 5. Israel collectively cannot fulfill this role, as its suffering is repeatedly attributed to its own guilt (Isaiah 1:4-7, 50:1). The Servant’s role as an innocent, voluntary substitute aligns with Jesus, not Israel.
The vindication in Isaiah 53:10 refers to the Servant’s satisfaction in accomplishing atonement (v. 11: "He shall see the labor of His soul and be satisfied"), fitting Jesus’ resurrection, not the geopolitical restoration of Israel.
Your claim that Christians avoid Isaiah 53:10 is baseless. This verse is central to Christian theology, highlighting Jesus’ resurrection ("prolonged days") and His spiritual offspring through faith. Far from being ignored, it is foundational.
Lastly, while Isaiah often calls Israel God’s "servant," the term is not exclusive. Isaiah 49:5-6 distinguishes the Servant from Israel, tasking Him with restoring Israel to God. Isaiah 53’s consistent use of singular pronouns (e.g., הוא, לו) confirms the Servant as an individual. Even Rabbinic sources like Sanhedrin 98b recognize the possibility of a suffering Messiah, undermining the claim of a uniform Jewish understanding.
Isaiah 53 describes an innocent, atoning individual whose suffering fulfills God’s redemptive plan-uniquely accomplished by Jesus. The Hebrew text, grammar, and context make this interpretation airtight.
The Servant must be the messiah. because in v.2 it says he grew up like a tender plant, as a root from dry ground. this clearly shows that the servant is the branch that God promised to raise. its the same branch language used for the messiah elsewhere. (Jer 23:5-6 Jer 33:15-16 Zach 3:8 Is 11:1) in all of these places the messiah is depicted as a branch who sprouts fourth
Moreover, He is referred to as "root", in v.2. this is important because that is what the messiah is explicitly called in Isaiah 11:10
" 10 In that day *the Root* of Jesse will stand as a banner for the peoples; the nations will rally to him, and his resting place will be glorious. " Isaiah 11:10
Keep up the good work! may our risen Lord Jesus Christ Bless You
the root? so the blessing to david the line of anointed would be coming from his seed (root) will b god himself incarnate. you think that makes sense?
root is a general term for offspring, that is used in other contexts than just the messiah. the messiah is referred to as a root because it's talking about the offspring of David
Isaiah 5
23 Those who acquit the guilty for bribes,
and deprive the innocent of justice!
24 Therefore, as the tongue of fire licks up stubble,
as dry grass shrivels in the flame,
*Their root shall rot*
and their blossom scatter like dust;
For they have rejected the instruction of the Lord of hosts,
and scorned the word of the Holy One of Israel.
Here it's talking about how the bad people won't have offspring and their line will die, as part of their punishment.
Look up all the uses of the word Root in the Hebrew Bible, it's used in more contexts than just the messiah. Proverbs 12 talks about the root of the righteous twice, when describing the good things that happen to the offspring of righteous people. Deuteronomy 29:17 in warnings against idolatry talks about how there may be poisonous roots among you, meaning to watch out for people that come up in the tribe that might lead you astray into all the bad practices.
You can use a concordance to find all the uses of a word in the Bible, it's really useful.
Thank you!!
Yes and Besides it saying "For the transgression of MY PEOPLE He was stricken"isaiah 53 is not Israel as the suffering servant. Read these proofs right here:isiaah 53: 9He was assigned a grave with the wicked,
and with a rich man in His death,
although He had done no violence,
nor was any deceit in His mouth."Jeremiah 11:10
They have returned to the sins of their forefathers who refused to obey My words. They have followed other gods to serve them. The house of Israel and the house of Judah have broken the covenant I made with their fathers."Jeremiah 3:8,22
And I saw, when for all the causes whereby backsliding Israel committed adultery I had put her away, and given her a bill of divorce; yet her treacherous sister Judah feared not, but went and played the harlot also…"Ezekiel 8:17
"Son of man," He said to me, "do you see this? Is it not enough for the house of Judah to commit the abominations they are practicing here, that they must also fill the land with violence and continually provoke Me to anger? Look, they are even putting the branch to their nose!
Ezekiel 44:6
Tell the rebellious house of Israel that this is what the Lord GOD says: 'I have had enough of all your abominations, O house of Israel.' Deut 32:28Israel is a nation devoid of counsel,
with no understanding among them.
29If only they were wise, they would understand it;
they would comprehend their fate.
........
36For the LORD will vindicate His people
and have compassion on His servants
when He sees that their strength is gone
and no one remains, slave or free.;
Majority opinion doesn’t make something true.
Saying x rabbinic tradition says multiple servants, doesn’t nullify y rabbinic tradition that says there is one servant.
You are appealing to majority opinion/authority which is never an acceptable form of argumentation
You can apply it to remnant of Israel that ALWAYS existed even when Israel as a majority went astray.
Was Daniel and his companions not part of that remnant?
The remnant always will suffer the consequences of the majority. Just like a child will suffer the consequences of the parents choices.
This is a very poor response. It’s very odd that you’re so willing to point out the the messiah is in Isaiah 42, but you avoid the entire passage which speaks on what the messiah is supposed to do upon that arrival. In Isaiah 42 it literally states that this servant will bring justice in all lands and that he will not be defeated or weakened. He will fulfill his duty of bringing peace to isreal and conquer other nations. So yes Isaiah 42 speaks of the messiah but does that fit the same narrative of Isaiah 53? No. Absolutely not. So therefor Isaiah 53 is the “suffering servant” and Isaiah 42 is the righteous servant aka the messiah.
Yet ancient Jewish authorities including Maimonides assert Isaiah 53 refers to King Messiah!
@@stephenglasse9756 associate the prophecy with the person and does the person fit? Has he completed everything mentioned? Is there peace amongst all nation? Is Isreal regathered and striving? Is Edom destroyed? Is the messiah on his throne? You pick and choose what you want but leave out everything else? Do you think Maimonides has more authority, reverence or credibility over rabbis like Akiva, Eleazar, Yahuah, etc? No.
@@travisallen4907 maybe he does🤔. After all do not Jews say, "from Moses unto Moses there was none like Moses"?
And it's not just Moses Maimonides but the Talmud, the Zohar and Rabbi ibn Crispin. And did not Maimonides criticise Rashi's attempt to interpret it of Israel rather than the Messiah saying this was not the view of Jewish consensus? Or was Maimonides lying?
Clearly Messiah couldn't have fulfilled the prophecies concerning the restoration of Israel because THEY REJECTED HIM! Who do you think fulfils the criteria of Isaiah 53?
@@stephenglasse9756 bro you’re invalidating generations of rabbi with Maimonides? There are so many well revered and followed rabbis that disapprove of what you’re presenting and you really don’t understand the moses to moses saying huh? You discrediting Rashi but what about the several others that preexist. The zohar doesn’t even agree with you either because it’s very obvious that if they did they’d be Christians. As I said stop picking and choosing, and actually speak about stuff in their entirety. Where did any prophecy in the Bible say the messiah will fail? Since you wanna say he didn’t fulfill that part of the prophecy doesnt that disqualify him from the position? Doesn’t that mean that Jesus isn’t what the prophets talk about?
@@travisallen4907 you mention Akiva but Akiva apparently regarded Simon bar Kochba as the Messiah.
It's not invalidating generations of rabbi's if those rabbi's agreed Isaiah 53 refers to the Messiah and you haven't established that they didn't! On the contrary Moses Maimonides one of the most revered Jewish authorities author of the Mishnah Torah and Guide for the Perplexed stated 53 most certainly does refer to Messiah as did Nachmanides the babylonian Talmud and the Zohar stating that all israel's sickness and chastisement is made to rest on him citing Isaiah 53. A Jew would not be a Christian just because they accept that 53 refers to the Messiah - that's a ludicrous argument. Maimonides wasn't a Christian. It's true that great scholars like Rashi disagreed but then he also thought it referred to the nation which as Dr Brown argues cannot be true.
Who is David referring to in Psalm 2:12? Is that also Jesus? He says "Kiss the Son, lest he be angry, and ye perish from the way, when his wrath is kindled but a little. Blessed are all they that put their trust in him." when speaking of God.
I watched Rabbi Singer and I thought his conclusions were wrong. God calls many his "servant" according to his plans. Nebuchadnezzar is also his servant.
So just because parts of Isiah refer to Israel his servant, doesn't mean other parts refer to the same as his servant. Of course Isiah 53 is not the same servant as Israel is in other texts in the same book.
Common sense tells you his suffering, offering forgiveness of sins, having no sin or deceit doesn't refer to the nation of Israel. You have to be completely blind to draw another conclusion.
Remember that according with the new testament jesus abolish Shabbat and was blasphemy because being human wants to be god, and jesus spoke during his death
What happened to the MESSENGER that was sent? When did he become God?
I like the new look of the background!
Ok Mr. Brown. From Isaiah 42:1-9, you say it’s Jesus. But let’s look at Isaiah 42:2. “He will not cry out or raise his voice, Nor make his voice heard in the street”
If his voice can’t be heard on the street, there wouldn’t be large multitudes following him, then. Right?
But as we see in the New Testament: Matthew 4:25 and Luke 14:25, it explicitly says “large multitudes followed him”
I love how every time Dr. Brown thinks that “my servant” doesn’t mean the Jewish people, that it automatically means Jesus. Like, where? Show me one. ONE place in the Old Testament that it says Jesus and I’m in church tomorrow
Add this to the playlist.
I like you're video 😂
sincere question if 42 is Jesus how can it be because it says that servant was created and they call him isreal?I'm confused
Any one who argues Isaiah 53 needs to know that THERE IS NO RIGHTEOUS PEOPLE IN ISRAEL - ALL PEOPLE ARE SINNERS. ONLY THE MESSIAH WAS SIN FREE BECAUSE GOD CANNOT SIN!!!! These false teachers do not even believe Moses! Deuteronomy 18:15-19 God says to Moses that he will raise up a prophet like Moses and put his words in his mouth - Those who do not listen will lose their souls. Daniel 9:24-27 says the Messiah comes before the 2nd temple destruction. ISAIAH 9:6-7, ISAIAH 7:14, GENESIS 3:15, DANIEL 7:9-14 - ALL SAY THE MESSIAH WILL BE A HUMAN!!!! What doesn't Tovia get?
The Rabbi wins by 1,000 country miles. ISAIAH 53. Check it: Isa 41/8 "But thou, Israel, My servant, Jacob whom I have chosen, the seed of Abraham My friend" These too, in the same book, same Prophet: SUFFERING SERVANT. “You are My servant, O Israel” (41:8) // “You are My servant, Israel” (49:3) // ISA 43: 10 Ye are My witnesses, saith the LORD, and My servant whom I have chosen; that ye may know and believe Me, and understand that I am He; before Me there was no God formed, neither shall any be after Me.// ISA 43;1 1 Yet now hear, O Jacob My servant, and Israel, whom I have chosen // ISA 48:20. 'The LORD hath redeemed His servant Jacob.// see also Isaiah 44:1, 44:2, 44:21, 45:4, 48:20
What must be understood is that God had to transition from 'animal sacrifices' for the forgiveness of sin to the ultimate sacrifice of Jesus Himself, the Messiah, for the forgiveness of sin. For the wages of unforgiven sin is death. Today, I am not aware of how Jews receive the forgiveness of their sins, let me know.
Can anyone respond to the claim, supposedly from Tovia Singer, that Isaiah 53 v 7 and v 8 should not be translated "HE" at the beginning of the verse because the hebrew word translated there is a plural not a singular? This is a kind of conspiracy theory accusation that christian bibles have conspired to mistranslate the hebrew there.
This rabbi Needs The Holy Spirt to teach him about Isaiah 53 because it’s about the LORD JESUS CHRIST Not the nation of Israel.
Hey, thank you for your awesome work! I have a question, in Isaiah 42:6 it says I have created you in reference to the messiah... Yeshua is uncreated, as he's Yahweh himself, so I dont fully understand how he could be created. Hope you see this
It is the descendant of David, the annointed one!!!
I have a question for you Dr. Brown, in this video you say that Rabbi Singer claims that the suffering servant of chapter 53 is the righteous remnant, and is narrated by Israel as a whole. However, in the videos i have watched of his, he says the suffering servant is not only the righteous remnant, but instead ALL of Israel, and the narrator of the passage are the gentile kings mentioned in the previous chapter.
So i’m confused, Did he switch his standpoint on the passage?
Tovia changes his stance depending on the situation
It is my impression from messianic Jews like Dr Brown and other regulars that Rabbi Singer lies a lot, sometimes intentionally given how many times Dr Brown addresses him
is God speaking, and He says about the servants "he grew before me" (clearly God speaking), and then God says that the servant is hurt "for the sins of My people" (God's people). clearly not about the gentile kings
This regardless what Rabbi Singer says. It sounds like youre rejecting what Isaiah specifically said from HASHEM. though Israel sinned , after the fact HASHEM STILL CALLS THE SERVANT RIGHTEOUS. Youre going backwards from the message to justify idolatry. Youre going against The Word of HASHEM. Will say also go against what its in Proverbs? Pro 24:16 For a just man falleth seven times, and riseth up again: but the wicked shall fall into mischief. notice the difference between “the just” and the wicked.
@@MTDMP When exactly did GOD call Israel righteous servant? Not even Moses, Abraham or David were called “righteous servant”
@@pepepena1937 Israel is the servant, that’s pretty clear and in context,on what Isaiah himself wrote directed by HASHEM: Look it up. Isaiah 41:8 , Isaiah 44:1 Isaiah 44:21 Isaiah 45:1, Isaiah48:20 Jeremiah 30:10.. and so on. That’s pretty clear and you do not have to jump any hoops with this. If you’re trying to look for a ‘term” righteousness Israel” then you’re looking under rocks to try to “justify the idolatry of the NT. Jesus wasn’t a righteous person… Pablo “made him look “righteous. that is Another man trying to condemn and have other men fall into idolatry. and Based The Tanach and in ***context*** with Isaiah’s writing (knowing he is not going to contradict himself ro HASHEM) Israel is called “righteous” and servant”. Isaiah 53:11 , Isaiah 26:2 and also Psalm 14:3-5 and see how HASHEM makes a difference between evil-doers and the his people, that are righteous. The answers are straight in the text.
@@MTDMP
The passages in Isaiah that reference Israel as “My servant” (Isaiah 41:8; 44:1) do indeed identify Israel in a collective sense. However, Isaiah 52:13-53:12 depicts a distinct, suffering figure who “bore the sin of many” (Isaiah 53:12, NRSV), endured rejection, and brought healing through suffering (Isaiah 53:5). This portrayal closely aligns with the New Testament depiction of Jesus, who is described as bearing the sins of humanity (Matthew 8:17, John 1:29), fulfilling the role of the suffering servant through his crucifixion.
Moreover, the idea that righteousness is obtained through atonement resonates throughout the Hebrew Scriptures, as seen in Leviticus 17:11, where blood is designated to make atonement for the soul. Jesus’ self-sacrifice is viewed in Christianity as fulfilling this requirement, transcending individual or national sin to offer redemption universally (Romans 5:8). Paul’s teachings, far from idolatry, emphasize that Jesus was the awaited Messiah who fulfilled these scriptural promises, not by “making Him appear righteous,” but by documenting His life, teachings, and sacrificial death.
As for Proverbs 24:16, it does affirm that a “just man falls seven times and rises again,” highlighting human fallibility rather than attributing inherent righteousness to Israel without atonement. The Christian perspective holds that while all fall short (Romans 3:23), Jesus’ atoning work fulfills the promise of righteousness to all who believe (Romans 3:22). This focus on personal and collective redemption aligns with the prophetic messages that anticipated a suffering servant with a salvific mission.
Finally, it’s worth noting that, while Isaiah references Israel as “My servant” in many contexts, the explicit role of bearing others' sins-a task historically associated with atonement-is not elsewhere attributed to Israel. If Isaiah 53 were solely about Israel, we would expect consistent application of this “sin-bearing” role throughout the text, which we do not see. Therefore, the Christian interpretation sees Jesus as uniquely fulfilling this prophecy, a view supported by the early Jewish followers who recognized Him as the suffering servant of Isaiah’s vision.
@ im sorry you’re way out of context, since Isaiah is NOT going to write one thing and then contradict himself later on especially directed by HASHEM. context is context. Isaiah 52 and 53 aligns perfectly talking none other than Israel, since the ones speaking is the nations ‘about’ Israel. If you would of the studied chapters before , Israel is spoken of singularly and plural( Isaiah 43:10-12) Isaiah is not there to defend idolatria , less the NT. Regarding Leviticus 17:11… like ALL OTHER PASSAGES , if you would of read v10 …. You would have understood its talking about animals , not human sacrifices that HASHEM clearly States He Hates /abhors (Deut.12:31). You think HASHEM is going to contradict Himself? Then we are not talking about the same GOD. The NT is a total different false god(s). Compared to The GOD of ISRAEL. You need to review things in context , not try to fit the ideas of the NT into The Tanach. the Tanach came first, NOT the NT. Study in order, and that way you may see the truth, The REAL Truth.
@@MTDMP
The argument that Isaiah 52-53 speaks exclusively of Israel fails to address critical distinctions in the text. While Isaiah does refer to Israel as “My servant” in earlier passages (e.g., Isaiah 41:8, 44:1), Isaiah 53 describes a servant who is sinless and bears the sins of others (Isaiah 53:9, 11). This cannot apply to Israel, which Isaiah repeatedly portrays as sinful and in need of redemption (Isaiah 1:4-6, 59:2-3). If the servant is Israel, it would paradoxically mean Israel is atoning for its own sins while being in need of atonement-a contradiction. Leviticus 22:20-21 explicitly requires a sinless sacrifice for atonement, which aligns with the Christian understanding of Jesus, who lived without sin (2 Corinthians 5:21, 1 Peter 2:22).
The suggestion that Isaiah 53 aligns "perfectly" with Israel ignores the context. Isaiah 53 speaks of a servant who suffers voluntarily, dies unjustly, and brings healing to others (Isaiah 53:5, 7-9). This role of substitutionary atonement is never assigned to Israel elsewhere in the Tanakh. Moreover, the nations in Isaiah 52:15-53:3 are depicted as astonished observers of the servant’s suffering, not as active participants. The Talmud (Sanhedrin 98b) acknowledges that the suffering servant can be understood as the Messiah, confirming that this interpretation predates Christianity.
Regarding Leviticus 17:11, the text establishes the principle of blood atonement: “For the life of the flesh is in the blood, and I have given it for you on the altar to make atonement for your souls.” While this initially applied to animal sacrifices, the New Testament reveals its fulfillment in Jesus’ sacrifice (Hebrews 9:22). His death is not a “human sacrifice” in the pagan sense condemned in Deuteronomy 12:31. Rather, it is God Himself, incarnate as Jesus, offering atonement (John 1:29, Philippians 2:6-8). This act of self-giving love is consistent with the Tanakh’s portrayal of God as both just and merciful.
The claim that the NT represents a “false god” misunderstands Christian theology. Jesus is not a separate deity but the incarnate Word of God (John 1:1, 14), fulfilling Messianic prophecies found in the Tanakh. Early Jewish followers of Jesus, deeply rooted in Torah, recognized His divinity and the fulfillment of Isaiah 53 in His life, death, and resurrection. Their belief in Jesus was not a departure from the God of Israel but an affirmation of His ultimate redemptive plan.
In conclusion, the collective Israel interpretation collapses under textual and theological scrutiny. The servant of Isaiah 53 must be sinless, bear the sins of others, and voluntarily suffer for their atonement-criteria Israel does not meet. Instead, Jesus uniquely fulfills this role, as affirmed by the earliest Jewish followers and even hinted at within Jewish oral traditions. Far from idolatry, this reveals the fulfillment of God’s covenantal promises, consistent with the Tanakh’s deepest themes of atonement and redemption.
Rabbis claimed that humans sacrifice dont exist in Thora . Well, why righitous part of Israel die for others sins? By that interpretation they confirmed ,(not directly of corse) that innocents should die for others , even Isshaia 53 is not about Messiah. I suppous they will try take this passage metaphoriclly (read: spiritual) but is exactly how death of Yeshua was necesery not litarally on the altar but spiritually to fullfil spirtual law wchich is hidden in Thora. Sorry my English learnng is in progress :)
Tell me did this suffering servant messiah inspire the creation of ANTISEMITISM as Jesus did is such an eventuality associated scripturally with messiah yes or no ?
Dr Brown trying his best to convinced that Isaiah 53 is about jesus because himself is a Christian. A jew will interpret differently.
🤣🤣🤣🤣🤣 👉👉👉 FROM THE HORSES MOUTH (Tovia Singer)* I thought it was ISRAEL?😲😲😲😲 Weren't Christians Corrupt to think that it was about a person?😲😲😲
“In rabbinic thought, all of God’s faithful, gentiles included (Zechariah 13:8-9), endure suffering on behalf of God (Isaiah 40:2; Zechariah 1:15). Thus, Jewish leaders of the past, such as Moses12 and Jeremiah,13) Rabbi Akiva,14 as well as future eschatological figures, such as 👉 *the messiah ben Joseph* 👈 and 👉 *the messiah ben David* 👈, are held up in rabbinic literature as individuals who exemplify the “servant” who willingly suffers on behalf of Heaven.”
“When Isaiah speaks of the suffering remnant of Israel,
👉 *the messianic king* 👈 is, therefore, included. The final heir of David’s throne is an integral member of the pious of Israel. This is, according to rabbinic interpretation, the pshat, or the plain meaning of the text in Isaiah 52:13 - 53:12.”
“In order to shed much-needed light on the famed Servant Songs, numerous rabbinic commentators hold up Jewish heroes as a paradigm of Isaiah 53’s “servant.” Accordingly, while on one hand the Talmud, Zohar, and other ancient rabbinic texts state explicitly that the “servant” of Isaiah 53 refers to the faithful of corporate Jewry,16 the same sources frequently point to renowned saints of Israel as an archetype of the Suffering Servant. These virtuous individuals include saints such as Moses, Elijah, Jeremiah,
👉 *the messiah the son of Joseph and David* 👈 - each of them embodies perfect examples of God’s servant, the righteous remnant of Israel.”
“Bear in mind that the rabbinic commentary on Isaiah 53 is not dualistic or multilateral. Meaning, the sages of old did not suggest that Isaiah 53 refers to either the righteous remnant of Israel, Moses, Jeremiah, or an anointed leader. Rather, the servant in all four Servant Songs are the faithful descendants of Abraham. Isaiah 53 attests to unprecedented worldwide repentance of all of mankind - a redemptive achievement accomplished by no other saint in history. Therefore, rabbinic commentators
👉 *tend to lift up the messiah’s name more frequently* 👈 than the names of other faithful servants of God.”
*Tovia Singer*
*Outreach Judaism*
“One man will die for the nation”
Yeshua represents the nation
Human sacrifice for atonement? Not possible and not acceptable to God
Clifford Gallegos
Define human sacrifice that is not acceptable to God
@@Mik-ha-El why you don't know this?
Clifford Gallegos
I understand that child sacrifice is against God’s law, but if what you are calling “human sacrifice” fits that description, that’s not what happened in the case of Yeshua. So I don’t see the correlation you are trying to make or how it would apply. Yeshua’s “sacrifice” is in the context of Isaiah 53. Is that a
passage describing an unlawful sacrifice?
@@Mik-ha-El well who told you that that particular chapter speaks of jesus? Christians assumption...
Again human sacrifice is ABOMINABLE to God...
6:48
Isaiah 42:6. Even if the servant is the messiah and not Israel, I don't see how this can be Jesus. The verse clearly says God created this servant.
Colossians 1:16 says Jesus is not created. It says all things were created by Jesus, putting him equal to God the father. Trinity!
So this servant is a created being and thus can't be Jesus. If Dr Brown is saying the servant in Isaiah 42 is the messiah and specifically Jesus, it actually validates that Christianity is a false religion, a cult.
Just searching for the truth. Not here to argue. But for me, this validates for me again that I made a right choice in denouncing my faith in Jesus few months ago.
Hope everyone find what they are looking for. :)
@ישוע הוא המשיח בן האלוהים Please watch the video. 6:48 to be specific. It’s what the Bible says. “I created you”.
@@BKNew2022 el problema es que Jesús no es Dios
La creencia de que Jesús es Dios surge de la Mala interpretación y de traductores influenciados por sus Herejías
Jesús nunca dijo YO SOY DIOS.
Jesús dijo ser hombre
8:40 But now ye seek to kill me, A MAN that hath told you the truth, which I have heard of God: this did not Abraham. John
Muchos Judíos no Creen precisamente porque los "cristianos de titulo" no verdaderos se han inventado un Mesías Dios Hombre que muere
Jesús siendo hombre dejó Claro que Dios es Espíritu Juan 4:24
A Dios nadie lo ha visto Jamás
The reason it "fits" is because this is the gentile kings speaking. It isn't God speaking there.
Doesn't the word Zera that is translated as seed mean physical not spiritual seed?
Who says that the Jewish people died for the sins of others? That’s not at all. What it says. In fact, the opposite is true. The Bible forbid people dying for the sins of others.
Yea, if you do not have a good explanation from someone with the caliber of Doctor Brown any ravi will confuse your mind and will make you believe his heresy, they will say that Jesus is not the Messiah, thanks God we count on Dr. Brown who knows Hebrew and English and not only that, he counts with the inspiration of God.
Even Achan, who stole from the spoils of Jericho is referred to as Israel
Maimonides (aka Rambam) also identifies Isaiah 42:1 (as well as the end of 52, and 53) as referring to the Messiah. See his "Letter to Yemen"
What about the next verse, Isaiah 53:10? It says, "But the Lord chose to crush him by disease, That if he made himself an offering for guilt, He might see offspring." This seems to be the offspring of the children of Israel, the Jewish people. If this is about Jesus, he had no children, no offspring. So how can verse 9 be referring to Jesus?
It talks about the ressurection of Jesus.
Jesus was offered as an offering, indicating he did and then he lived long to see his offspring.
Meaning he ressurected to see his seed.
Isaiah 53 primarily talks about the suffering servant (messiah which is Jesus) saving the sins for Israel, the context of Isaiah refers to Israel who needs saving.
@@jakamsoohia7492 The Hebrew word there, זרע, for seed, means seed from a man, offspring, physical biological descendants. There is no record of Jesus having children, is there? It says that he might see offspring and have long life. This means if the people do teshuva, if they confess and fear the Lord, then they will be blessed with children and long life, live to see their offspring, descendants. The true meaning here seems to be referring to the generation who will repent, who will fear God and return to Him in the days of Messiah.
Also, why is the word, "If" used, "if he made himself an offering? If this verse is a prophecy, if it's talking about Jesus, why would it say "If?"
The prophet Isaiah often refers to Israel as He, one man, in the singular. So it makes no sense to change it here and say it is actually referring to one man, Jesus. Isaiah 52 very clearly is speaking of the nation, says Zion, Jerusalem, holy city, starting at v. 4 says "My people" several times. Isaiah 52:14 says, "Just as they were appalled at him, So marred was his appearance, unlike that of a man, His form beyond human semblance." That chapter is talking about the Jewish people. So why does Dr. Brown say Isaiah 53 suddenly changes from talking about the nation of Israel, to a completely different topic of Jesus, when he never mentions him anywhere else before or after? I don't understand this logic.
@@jakamsoohia7492 The seed is the SEED OF THOSE ADOPTED IN CHRIST TO GOD. Read all of ISAIAH and the Old testament and you will see the MESSIAH came as a human.
Deuteronomy 18:15-19 Moses says God will raise up one from AMONG HUMANs one LIKE MOSES whom he will put the words in his his mouth - We must listen to him or lose our souls. Daniel 9:24-27 The MESSIAH was to be cut off BEFORE the destruction of the 2nd temple in 70 AD . Isaiah 9:6-7 Says the MEssiah will be GOD IN THE FLESH - A human called GOD, Isaiah 7:14 says the Messiah will be born to a virgin called Emmanual (GOD WITH US), Genesis 3:15 The woman's seed will defeat satan - not a mans seed. Also read Psalm 22, Psalm 34:20, Psalm 16:10, Isaiah 26:19, Zechariah 12:10, Micah 5:2.
To read of the Messiah's geneology - again proving he would come as a human, visit these verses: Genesis 12:3 Genesis 22:18 (Messiah would come from line of Abraham), Messiah would be a descendant of Isaac. Genesis 17:19 Genesis 21:12, Messiah would be a descendant of Jacob. Numbers 24:17, Messiah would come from the tribe of Judah. Genesis 49:10, Messiah would be heir to King David's throne. 2 Samuel 7:12-13 Isaiah 9:7,.
***** MARY WAS ALSO FROM THE LINE OF DAVID *****
John 1:1-14 as he was too HOLY to enter as he was - he had to take on the form of a human to die for you. John 3:16 For God so loved the world that he gave his only begotten son (Psalm 2), that whosoever believes on him shall not perish but have ever lasting life.
***** OLD TESTAMENT SCRIPTURE CONFIRMS MANY TIMES THAT THE MESSIAH WOULD COME AS A HUMAN *****
@@ChristianGirlwhoLovesJesus you're really lost in this Christian brainwash
Isaiah did not refer to the nation of Israel but to the descendants of Jacob(Israel) whom most of them were rebellious towards God. So God sent the prophets to warn the descendants of Jacob to bow to and faithful to God. So the prophets predicted the coming of Messiah who could lead the descendants of Jacob(Israel) living with full respect and faithful to God, not to dominate other mankind selfishly. Definitely, God is not selfish just to love the nation of Israel alone but to love the descendants of Jacob and other mankind/races.
Both Jews and Christians have to open their eyes and accept reincarnation, and also a higher reincarnation where Jesus is called the Son of Man, this in John 3:31 means that Israel is a man who has lived died and dwelt in Paradise then he Ascended, the Isaiah dialogues are Divine Councils in which Israel is being evangelised to accept another incarnation.
The righteous remnant of Israel!!! 🇮🇱
Please sit with rabbis and decide it's remnant or Israel 😂
As Jesus was (proven to be) not the messiah, Isaiah 53 and all other places where Christians want see him in in the Jewish scriptures, cannot possibly be about him. It's simple logic.
it is
Have to concur, stunning reasoning
Do you mind if I prove to you what Dr. brown is saying is false ?
Interesting how you didn’t finish reading the passage verse 10. Why dont you read the last sentence lol. It says clearly there is no other GOD but me looooool. You can read it when you bring up the passage. So why didnt you read the rest of the verse????? It proves you know it goes against your beliefs of the Man God other wise you would not have an issue finish reading it. Heres the full passage
Isaiah 43:10
10 Ye are my witnesses, saith the Lord, and my servant whom I have chosen: that ye may know and believe me, and understand that I am he: before me there was no God formed, neither shall there be after me.
I'm doing a series of videos to debunk Tovia Singer if you are interested. Isaiah 53 has already been posted on my channel.
Also the following verses make it clear that the Messiah would be born as a human and be called "God with Us". John 1::14 The word was made flesh and dwelled among us.
ISAIAH 9:6 - "A Child is born - will be called ALL MIGHTY GOD"
ISAIAH 7:14 - "Unto us a child is born - a SON is given, and his name shall be called Immanuel (GOD WITH US).
*God took on the form of a human, because people would die if they saw him as he is - Deuteronomy 18:15-19 told us he would do this *
Also to fulfill prophesy as per GENESIS 3:15, THE REDEEMER (GOD) had to be a human.
**Psalm 111:9 He (GOD) has SENT redemption to His people; He has ordained His covenant forever; Holy and awesome is His name.**
@רחבעם did any of those rabbis who taught it as messiah refer this to yeshu the nazarene? especially cause they were all after him you would think they would see that? if so why would u think they did not?
You have to go back to the renaming of Jacob to get it. When he identifies Jacob as Israel, it’s revealing something much deeper. He always referred to Israel in the singular because god only has one son on this earth at a time. He was Moses, the servant called out of Egypt then. Jacob still wrestles with god. So what you see in Isa 53 is the prodigal son repenting and seeing the light of day. He goes on to have children and live a long life. Who is it? Who else but Adam? So you see two separate lives described in Isa 53 and they’re both the same individual. It’s mostly describing this life for that suffering servant who is now cast out and shunned and lived the life described there. In prison just like Joseph cast there by his own family. Like David eluding his enemies and facing his own Goliaths. This was laid on that suffering servant in this life only it wasn’t over an Easter weekend. Adam has been suffering since the foundation and only he can unseal Rev and Daniel to vindicate the prophets and Jesus. It’s not all Israel but it’s also not just Jesus and the sacrifice he made. He was only the first Atonement goat. Adam lives in the wilderness the scapegoat. The caregiver set him free but the goat chooses to stay. He surrendered all rights to normalcy and been hated since birth. It pleased god to lay this on him for the sake of Israel. The truth will set them free once they see it was never on them to save the world. They were his witnesses preserving the prophets and that’s the extent of their contributions. We won’t be needing to grab their shirttails take us to Jerusalem. Because Adam is the apple of gods eye he’s paved the way for the rest of us. Israel no longer wrestles with god but that nation is now in peril and their future not so settled. Rabbinical Judaism is in part Mystery Babylon. It’s already been determined. Shiloh is the grandson of David but not through his son. The scepter will depart completely from Judah once the promises to David are fulfilled and a gentile king will be his heir. God literally named him so there would be no doubts anymore and the Jewish people can stop worshipping their own image. Blame Tovia and those wicked rabbis for their replacement theology trying to replace that suffering servant. It was always only about the redemption of Adam.
How does Isaiah 43:10 44:1-9 fit in I think you either accept Christ or you don’t Isaiah 53 uses the word MAN to refer to the nation of Israel according to Jews as well as the claim the Jewish Bible and the Christian Bible are rearranged following The Book of Isaiah and this is used as an important point because apparently the book after is supposed to be a continuation of the previous Book.
The fact of the matter is not whether Isaiah 53 is speaking of the Messiah or not, but rather that Tovia Singer is lying when he suggests that it isn't.
It is the Jewish nation's 'Big Lie' , in the Orwellian sense of that term !
Do you mind if I prove to you what Dr. brown is saying is false ?
I don't doubt it - but then again no-one, it seems to me, has a perfect handle on the truth anyway. @@jamilbiotech91
Tovia is pure lier 😂 he should be ashamed , even king David is decent 😂
Yeshua is His name, the Lord of Israel
There are things Tovia Singer says that are true, for example Jesus does not save you, if that were so Jesus would have to judge you, Jesus tells us *that He does not Judge* it is God the Son who is the Divine Word who judges and un doing so saves.
Judgement is a non-trinitarian event.
Nobody said it's talking about now..??
God's suffering servant is israel. Read the book of Isaiah in context.
Christians take chapters and verses from the bible out of context. Reading the bible out of context is Dangerous.
I my self am an ex Christian who was devoted in worshipping Christ. But When I saw rabbis videos and started reading the bible for myself i came to know the truth.
It says .ashiach, but not Yeshua! It doesn't say Yeshua. Oh my! Now he is quoting the commentaries of the sages...very different from Rabbi Singer that quoted from the Torah !
Thank you God for men like Dr. Brown who speak the truth