Your video was great inspiration to my life .. it’s brings peace and comfort … I’m fighting against principalities of darkness but my God is so mighty there is nothing that God can’t do .. blessings to you and family
God gives sound counsel which will lead in miraculous results, he is our warrior God who will fight our battles. God has provided everything for us to live victorious life. HALLELUJAH!
Thank you. This has definitely added value and clarity to this passage of scripture. I would love to hear you do the other two attributes of the Messiah, Everlasting Father and Prince of Peace.
Christ is the last Adam meaning He is the Everlasting Father of new divine-human race. True Believers are born again into this family when they have the sinless life of Christ via the Holy Spirit/ comforter
Below is a quote in both English and Hebrew from the Hebrew bible regarding Isaiah 9:6 in the KJV, which is actually Isaiah 9:5 in the Hebrew bible. 'For a child has been born to us, a son given to us, and the authority is upon his shoulder, and the wondrous adviser, the mighty God, the everlasting Father, called his name, "the prince of peace." הכִּי־יֶ֣לֶד יֻלַּד־לָ֗נוּ בֵּן נִתַּן־לָ֔נוּ וַתְּהִ֥י הַמִּשְׂרָ֖ה עַל־שִׁכְמ֑וֹ וַיִּקְרָ֨א שְׁמ֜וֹ פֶּ֠לֶא יוֹעֵץ֙ אֵ֣ל גִּבּ֔וֹר אֲבִי־עַ֖ד שַׂר־שָׁלֽוֹם: Notice the difference in the wording above from the Hebrew bible compared to the KJV, read it very carefully. Can you see how the wording in the KJV has been doctored & manipulated? This occurs quite a few times throughout the New Testament when quoting from the Hebrew bible, and this is just one example! Equally important, Isaiah is referring to a child that has already been born, (Past Tense). The Hebrew word ''יֻלַּד'' (Yulad) means ''was born'' (Past Tense) which shows this quite clearly and this word is used in other parts of the Hebrew bible to mean exactly that. See the following: Genesis 4:26, Genesis 35:26, Judges 18:29, Jeremiah 20:15, Psalms 87:5, Ruth 4:16-17 Also, the word ''וַיִּקְרָ֨א'' (Vayikra) means ''was called, or cried''. The word is used to refer to something that has already been named, Past Tense. See the following examples: Genesis 1:5, Genesis 3:20, Genesis 25:26, Isaiah 21:8, Isaiah 36:13 The New Testament tries to imply that the child mentioned in the verse is ''baby Jesus'', and is called ''Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.'', when in actual fact, the child is only called "the prince of peace" by the wondrous adviser, the mighty God, the everlasting Father. Just to clarify what the Hebrew bible actually says, the child being spoken about is not ''the wondrous adviser, the mighty God, the everlasting Father'', he is just "the prince of peace". In any case, even if the Christian translation of the verse were accurate, and that was the child's Divine name, it does not mean that the child is in fact G-d. There are quite a few examples in the Hebrew bible of people or things that are given Divine names but are obviously not G-d. See: Genesis 33:20, Exodus 17:15, Judges 6:24, Jeremiah 33:16, 1 Samuel 1:1, 1 Samuel 1:3, Judges 9:5, Exodus 21:6, Exodus 7:1. One has to read the whole of Isaiah chapter 9 in the correct context to understand it. So, who is the child (the prince of peace) that Isaiah is speaking about in chapter 9? Answer: King Hezekiah of Judah. He is the one who brings peace to the Jewish people with the miraculous help of G-d, (as of the day of Midian - Isaiah 9:3 & see 2 Kings 19:31-35 in Hebrew bible) by defeating the Assyrians who were threatening to destroy the kingdom of Judah.(the Jewish people) In conclusion, Isaiah chapter 9 is describing the miraculous victory of the Jewish people over the powerful Kingdom of Assyria at that time, similar to the miraculous victory of Gideon over the Midianites, alluded to in Isaiah 9:3 in the Hebrew bible. It is not speaking about a future event (Birth of Jesus)700 years later, it describes these events in the Past Tense. One does not speak about a future event in the Past Tense!
Thank you for your video. I just got a prayer journal & inside it Wonderful Counselor was written so I was excited to write the Hebrew word & I also added Mighty God in my journal.
Just was getting ready to lead a youth Bible Study on Isaiah 9:6-7. Thanks for the information. I'll be sharing the extended meanings of wonderful counselor and mighty God. Appreciate your teaching.
Thanks for the great information in this video! Are you well schooled in Biblical Hebrew? The reason I ask that is that I recently watched a video from Tovia Singer who is a Rabbi. He claims the Hebrew word wayqyiqra Strongs 7121 always is used in the past tense in the OT. I.e., Isaiah is saying all those grand titles are about God and the last one "Prince of Peace" is what the Mighty God is calling Hezekiah.
He is well schooled in the ''Art of Lying''. Below is a quote in both English and Hebrew from the Hebrew bible regarding Isaiah 9:6 in the KJV, which is actually Isaiah 9:5 in the Hebrew bible. 'For a child has been born to us, a son given to us, and the authority is upon his shoulder, and the wondrous adviser, the mighty God, the everlasting Father, called his name, "the prince of peace." הכִּי־יֶ֣לֶד יֻלַּד־לָ֗נוּ בֵּן נִתַּן־לָ֔נוּ וַתְּהִ֥י הַמִּשְׂרָ֖ה עַל־שִׁכְמ֑וֹ וַיִּקְרָ֨א שְׁמ֜וֹ פֶּ֠לֶא יוֹעֵץ֙ אֵ֣ל גִּבּ֔וֹר אֲבִי־עַ֖ד שַׂר־שָׁלֽוֹם: Notice the difference in the wording above from the Hebrew bible compared to the KJV, read it very carefully. Can you see how the wording in the KJV has been doctored & manipulated? This occurs quite a few times throughout the New Testament when quoting from the Hebrew bible, and this is just one example! Equally important, Isaiah is referring to a child that has already been born, (Past Tense). The Hebrew word ''יֻלַּד'' (Yulad) means ''was born'' (Past Tense) which shows this quite clearly and this word is used in other parts of the Hebrew bible to mean exactly that. See the following: Genesis 4:26, Genesis 35:26, Judges 18:29, Jeremiah 20:15, Psalms 87:5, Ruth 4:16-17 Also, the word ''וַיִּקְרָ֨א'' (Vayikra) means ''was called, or cried''. The word is used to refer to something that has already been named, Past Tense. See the following examples: Genesis 1:5, Genesis 3:20, Genesis 25:26, Isaiah 21:8, Isaiah 36:13 The New Testament tries to imply that the child mentioned in the verse is ''baby Jesus'', and is called ''Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.'', when in actual fact, the child is only called "the prince of peace" by the wondrous adviser, the mighty God, the everlasting Father. Just to clarify what the Hebrew bible actually says, the child being spoken about is not ''the wondrous adviser, the mighty God, the everlasting Father'', he is just "the prince of peace". In any case, even if the Christian translation of the verse were accurate, and that was the child's Divine name, it does not mean that the child is in fact G-d. There are quite a few examples in the Hebrew bible of people or things that are given Divine names but are obviously not G-d. See: Genesis 33:20, Exodus 17:15, Judges 6:24, Jeremiah 33:16, 1 Samuel 1:1, 1 Samuel 1:3, Judges 9:5, Exodus 21:6, Exodus 7:1. One has to read the whole of Isaiah chapter 9 in the correct context to understand it. So, who is the child (the prince of peace) that Isaiah is speaking about in chapter 9? Answer: King Hezekiah of Judah. He is the one who brings peace to the Jewish people with the miraculous help of G-d, (as of the day of Midian - Isaiah 9:3 & see 2 Kings 19:31-35 in Hebrew bible) by defeating the Assyrians who were threatening to destroy the kingdom of Judah.(the Jewish people) In conclusion, Isaiah chapter 9 is describing the miraculous victory of the Jewish people over the powerful Kingdom of Assyria at that time, similar to the miraculous victory of Gideon over the Midianites, alluded to in Isaiah 9:3 in the Hebrew bible. It is not speaking about a future event (Birth of Jesus)700 years later, it describes these events in the Past Tense. One does not speak about a future event in the Past Tense!
@@robmancuso964 Here something you can read from the book of life. The temple is destroyed. The the Leviticus high priest, is cut off. The Sadducee's, are gone. There is no more, animal sacrifice. Major changes to the covenant with israel. All these things happened after those days. After Jesus The Messiah was murdered and raised from the dead. These thing only could take place after Jesus was risen from the dead. So long as he was alive on earth, he himself was under the law, in which he came to fulfill. That's why Jerimiah 31 : 31- 34 said after those days, Now let go to Zachariah 6 : 11-13; this shows messiah taking his throne, so where does he take his throne? There is no temple. now lets go to the house of Judah, where Jerimiah said, God would make new covenant with the house of Judah, also. In psalms 110, we see major changes in house of Judah, not only will messiah be a eternal lord over the throne of David, he also will be a eternal priest of the most high god, given the highest honor ever given to any man not just any priest. Zachariah 6 : 11-13, shows him taking his throne as priest, psalms 110, shows us where he takes his throne. This makes messiah, both lord and high priest, of the tribe of Judah, it also shows messiah alive and well ruling in the mist of his enemies. Why? because God new he was going to eliminate the Leviticus high priest office. The truth comes out, it is not the Melchizedec priesthood that has been taken a way, it the Leviticus high priest that has been cut off. Daniel 9 : 26. all these things happened after Jesus was risen after those days. i want you to understand, the Masorites, added notes in the Masoretic text and the vowels, after the new testament was written. the old covenant, in the most Christian bibles, is the Masoretic text, with out the notes. these are facts. If you can't see the changes in the house of Judah, then look @ the changes, that have happened in the house of israel, they can not be denied. The things that happened in the house of israel, were a major part of their covenant, and they have been eliminated. 31Behold, the days come, saith the LORD, that I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah: 32Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt; which my covenant they brake, although I was an husband unto them, saith the LORD: 33But this the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the LORD, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their God, and they shall be my people. 34And they shall teach no more every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the LORD: for they shall all know me, from the least of them unto the greatest of them, saith the LORD: for I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more In the gospel of John 1 : 14, God defines the new covenant, this is how he words it, and the word was made flesh and dwelt among us, full of grace and truth. Isn't that what it means when God says, he will write his word on are hearts, put his thoughts into are minds and cause us to walk in his ways. He changes are whole nature putting the old one to death, by the cross, raising up his new nature with in us by means of the resurrection through the spirit of Jesus The Christ, that God raised from the dead. Here we see changes in both covenants, that were prophesized. Neither one of these things took place until Jesus was risen, after those days.
@@jamesjames-ld6cy WOW, I am so very impressed! I think you could seriously teach orthodox rabbis all about Judaism and how it works, because they obviously don't know how to understand their own Hebrew Bible or religion. Next time I want to know anything about Judaism I won't waste my time asking an orthodox rabbi, I'll just ask you, seeing as you are so incredibly knowledgeable about Judaism and how it works. 🤩
@@robmancuso964 hey i didn't mean to offend you, but those are facts, that happened in reality. The destruction of the temple, in 70 Ad, eliminated over 213 laws, that can no longer be observed. those are major changes in the covenant with Israel. if you look @ zachariah 6: 11-13, clearly shows messiah taking his throne as priest, there is a eternal priest in psalms 110. i now that it is Jesus. if it was talking about the leviticus highpriest office, it would still be here to this day. i looked up some of the words, that you posted, to see if they were used differently in other passages, unfortunately I couldn't find a good concordance online, so i'm going to buy a strongs concordance, see what i come with. i let you know if the word "was" is translated as "is" in other place.
@@jamesjames-ld6cy Firstly, you need to understand that messiah is a Jewish concept that originated with Judaism, not Christianity. A messiah was anyone that was anointed in the service of God, such as a king, a priest or a prophet. Jesus was none of those, therefore he could not be The Messiah, just as a basic starting point. When I have asked Christians what the purpose of The Messiah is according to Judaism, they tell me a load of rubbish about the ''anti-christ'' - a false messiah whom Jews are supposedly waiting for, that Christians believe will be defeated by Jesus when he supposedly comes back. So let me enlighten you a little, yes the Temple was destroyed by the Romans in 70AD approximately 20 years after Jesus was executed by crucifixion. However, ONE of the criteria that The Messiah has to fulfil, is the rebuilding of the Temple in Jerusalem, where animal sacrifices will once again resume for unintentional sins and all the commandments that pertain to the Temple will once again come into full affect. Clearly Jesus did not achieve that during his lifetime, amongst all the other criteria that have to be fulfilled by The Messiah.
Hello! This is so good! And I have a question. I am trying to understand Isaiah 9:6 and I listened to a Hebrew or Jewish guy talk about from a rabbinic orthodox perspective that they read the Hebrew in this part as saying that God who is wonderful counselor mighty God calls or names the Prince of peace and so saying that He's going to name somebody the Prince of peace. What do you think of this? I am a strong believer in Jesus as Messiah & I also want to be able to backup what I believe. I'm wondering your thoughts...😊
What's there to think about it? The standard Christian bible translates it wrong like always. This is done throughout the ot in order to justify their preconceived agenda. Don't forget that it's also in the past tense so it obviously can't mean jesus. It is referring to Hezekiah. The sad part is the translators did this on purpose despite being deceptive.
Below is a quote in both English and Hebrew from the Hebrew bible regarding Isaiah 9:6 in the KJV, which is actually Isaiah 9:5 in the Hebrew bible. 'For a child has been born to us, a son given to us, and the authority is upon his shoulder, and the wondrous adviser, the mighty God, the everlasting Father, called his name, "the prince of peace." הכִּי־יֶ֣לֶד יֻלַּד־לָ֗נוּ בֵּן נִתַּן־לָ֔נוּ וַתְּהִ֥י הַמִּשְׂרָ֖ה עַל־שִׁכְמ֑וֹ וַיִּקְרָ֨א שְׁמ֜וֹ פֶּ֠לֶא יוֹעֵץ֙ אֵ֣ל גִּבּ֔וֹר אֲבִי־עַ֖ד שַׂר־שָׁלֽוֹם: Notice the difference in the wording above from the Hebrew bible compared to the KJV, read it very carefully. Can you see how the wording in the KJV has been doctored & manipulated? This occurs quite a few times throughout the New Testament when quoting from the Hebrew bible, and this is just one example! Equally important, Isaiah is referring to a child that has already been born, (Past Tense). The Hebrew word ''יֻלַּד'' (Yulad) means ''was born'' (Past Tense) which shows this quite clearly and this word is used in other parts of the Hebrew bible to mean exactly that. See the following: Genesis 4:26, Genesis 35:26, Judges 18:29, Jeremiah 20:15, Psalms 87:5, Ruth 4:16-17 Also, the word ''וַיִּקְרָ֨א'' (Vayikra) means ''was called, or cried''. The word is used to refer to something that has already been named, Past Tense. See the following examples: Genesis 1:5, Genesis 3:20, Genesis 25:26, Isaiah 21:8, Isaiah 36:13 The New Testament tries to imply that the child mentioned in the verse is ''baby Jesus'', and is called ''Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.'', when in actual fact, the child is only called "the prince of peace" by the wondrous adviser, the mighty God, the everlasting Father. Just to clarify what the Hebrew bible actually says, the child being spoken about is not ''the wondrous adviser, the mighty God, the everlasting Father'', he is just "the prince of peace". In any case, even if the Christian translation of the verse were accurate, and that was the child's Divine name, it does not mean that the child is in fact G-d. There are quite a few examples in the Hebrew bible of people or things that are given Divine names but are obviously not G-d. See: Genesis 33:20, Exodus 17:15, Judges 6:24, Jeremiah 33:16, 1 Samuel 1:1, 1 Samuel 1:3, Judges 9:5, Exodus 21:6, Exodus 7:1. One has to read the whole of Isaiah chapter 9 in the correct context to understand it. So, who is the child (the prince of peace) that Isaiah is speaking about in chapter 9? Answer: King Hezekiah of Judah. He is the one who brings peace to the Jewish people with the miraculous help of G-d, (as of the day of Midian - Isaiah 9:3 & see 2 Kings 19:31-35 in Hebrew bible) by defeating the Assyrians who were threatening to destroy the kingdom of Judah.(the Jewish people) In conclusion, Isaiah chapter 9 is describing the miraculous victory of the Jewish people over the powerful Kingdom of Assyria at that time, similar to the miraculous victory of Gideon over the Midianites, alluded to in Isaiah 9:3 in the Hebrew bible. It is not speaking about a future event (Birth of Jesus)700 years later, it describes these events in the Past Tense. One does not speak about a future event in the Past Tense!
Jesus is not God . He is the son of God just like Adam. 1cor. 15: 45. Mighty God, should be transllated , divine hero, or mighty warrior. Jesus has a God just like you and me. Joh. 20:17.
Is it possible this verse, Isaiah 9:6, is discussing more than one event. The child of light is born during a period of war. "Every boot of the warrior in commotion..." What in Isaiah 9 applies to Jesus and what doesn't apply? Was Jesus born during a time of war? Could this be referring to a second event, a second birth?
Trinitarians love to use this verse to promote the Trinity. “His name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, the mighty God, the everlasting Father, the Prince of Peace.” Isaiah 9:6 The problem is: this translation comes from an Alexandrian manuscript from Egypt which was found in a trash can with a lot of words blacked out! The Septuagint notes that the Alexandrian manuscript added the following: “Wonderful, Counsellor, Mighty One, Potentate, Prince of Peace.” All of these names but one are gone in the NEB. “His name is called the Messenger of Great Counsel: for I will bring peace upon the princes and health to him.” Isaiah 9:6 NEB
@@DEPoole-me3mfis God not greater then us, there are 18,000 gods, every one of them are the same one person one God, there is only one Triune God there is none like him, your version there are 18,000 like him... Isaiah 46:9-10 9 Remember the former things of old, FOR I AM GOD, AND THERE IS NO OTHER; I AM GOD, AND THERE IS NONE LIKE ME, 10 Declaring the end from the beginning, And from ancient times things that are not yet done, Saying, ‘My counsel shall stand, And I will do all My pleasure,’ THERE IS NO GOD THAT IS THREE PERSONS, ONE GOD... MAN IS THREE PARTS ONE MAN..
EL GIBBOR ma'am we have the original dead sea scrolls and the "El Gibbor" is there you can read the actual Hebrew... And here you are talking nonsense... Bringing a translationfrom the NEB that was published in the 1970s, and we can go directly to the Hebrew scriptures... 🙄😳🤣
As many have requested addressing “everlasting Father” would be good. As many know the Septuagint, the Greek translation, completely leaves out the titles except Counselor. The Masoretic text , the scribal copy of the Hebrew text does not. Definitely some strange things going on in the translation/interpretation process of the Septuagint. Can you address all of that?
You just posted your comment 3 weeks ago, this is a four-year-old video he's never going to make it because he doesn't know what everlasting father means, he can't exegete the passage properly because he doesn't have the knowledge
@@mazzaroth2667 i take it you don’t agree with his discussion on “wonderful” and “mighty” from their Hebrew . What are your thoughts on everlasting father?
Isaiah 9:6 כִּי־יֶ֣לֶד יֻלַּד־לָ֗נוּ בֵּ֚ן נִתַּן־לָ֔נוּ וַתְּהִ֥י הַמִּשְׂרָ֖ה עַל־שִׁכְמ֑וֹ וַיִּקְרָ֨א שְׁמ֜וֹ פֶּ֠לֶא יוֹעֵץ֙ אֵ֣ל גִּבּ֔וֹר אֲבִיעַ֖ד שַׂר־שָׁלֽוֹם׃ For a child had been born to us, a son had been given to us, and the dominion is upon his shoulder; and he called his name (who called the child’s name?); the Wonderous Advisor, Mighty God, Eternal Father (God called his name), (and what did he call him?) Prince of peace (who is it being called? Hezekiah). This is the correct translation taking into consideration the context, tense, coherence, and cantillation. Context: The כי, which is “because” in Hebrew, at the beginning of the verse indicates that the child’s birth is related and connected to the preceding verses or verse, and is providing a reason for the aforementioned content. What was previously discussed ? Victory over the enemy? Which enemy ? Sennacherib and his failure to conquer Jerusalem. His presence is clearly alluded to in chapter 8. The only candidate to be present and connected to Sennacherib’s failure, and worthy of being characterized with distinction is none other than King Hezekiah. His presence, and only his presence, makes logical sense with Sennacherib. Why was there victory? “For a child had been to us (to protect us) A “prince of peace”, for Sennacherib lost without a fight ! A miraculous victory that brought peace. (This objection completely eliminates the introduction of Jesus into the context. This is true no matter how you interpret these appellations. For even if all the appellations of the verse refer to one entity, they would still be designations reserved only for whom is relevant contextually, namely, King Hezekiah) Context 2: Furthermore, “…and the dominion is upon his shoulder…” (Isaiah 9:6) Hezekiah was an actual King, with an actual kingdom, he had genuine authority and great responsibilities (Historical Jesus had no authority other than over his small following, no actual dominion) Context 3: Also, “…Prince of Peace.” (Isaiah 9:6) Jesus certainly did not not have any peace in his days, at any time, only war and conflict ! Tense: Furthermore, The “past perfect tense” regarding the child’s birth indicates that the prophecy cannot be something far into the future. Rather, it must be referring to a birth relevant to the times at which it is being uttered, namely the birth of Hezekiah. Textual Coherence: The next point is very important, according to the Christian interpretation, the verse says “and he will call his name”, then the verse goes on to call his name, all appellations that follow included, however, the verse is utterly lacking, for who is calling his name? The verse is fundamentally lacking. Rather, it must be correctly interpreted as we’ve elucidated, being that the verse lacks who is doing the “name calling” (according to the Christian understanding), the verse should actually be read, “God, who is the deep advisor, powerful mighty one, everlasting father, called him. What did he call him, that child ? A “prince of peace” For his victory over Sennacherib brought peace, as explained above. (Now, although some verses speak poetically at times, and a lack, although rare, can occur, when one has a viable possibility solution to avoid it, it’s unambiguously more reasonable and preferable to assume the more coherent interpretation. Moreover, when combined with the other objections, the coherent interpretation is rendered inevitably as the accurate exegesis) Cantillation: Furthermore, the cantillation very clearly indicates that the term “prince of peace”, stands alone, for the words are preceded by the musical note called “tarcha” which indicates a separation, a different application and distinction. (Those meticulous of Hebrew grammar understand the importance of these subtleties) Conclusion: Inserting Jesus into the text is most definitely an attempt of eisegesis, a distortion.
Some intersting comments. It is a shame that time prevented a look at the entire chapter and indeed the entire context. Originally, this seems to be a reference to Hezekiah. However, Christians see it as a messianic prophecy with reference to Jesus. However, given that the word 'God' has a much broader shade of meaning in the Hebrew Bible and that El Gibbohr can be applied to other mighty ones, the verse cannot be used as a proof text for Christian Trinitarianism. Indeed, the passage calls the child 'Father' and in Trinitarianism, the Person of the Father is not the Person of the Son. To so so would be modalism, which is viewed as heresy.
"and he will be called. . ." The Hebrew says "his name . . . will be called"???? If this is in the future tense, it's the only place in the entire Tanakh that it's translated this way. The Hebrew word "vayikra" appears DOZENS of times, and EVERY time but here, it's translated "he WAS called." Either the translators knew less Hebrew than I do (which is unlikely) or they had an agenda to misinterpret this verse in order to promote the idea that this applies to Jesus in the future. In any case, if it's intentional, it's a LIE.
so Isaiah chapt 9 is calling a child god.....if the christian bible cant even translate God s name correctly how can they translate anything else correct....
PEACE IN JESUS EVERYONE GREAT WATCH HERE FOR EVERYONE..."FROM EVOLUTIONIST TO CREATIONIST "BY PASTOR/PROF WALTER VEITH POWERFUL POWERFUL WATCH TRUTH ALWAYS WINS GOD SEES EVERYTHING KNOWS EVERYTHING ABOUT US AND STILL HE LOVES US SO MUCH ALLELUIA THANK YOU LORD JESUS FOR EVERYTHING YOU HAVE DONE FOR ME US ALLELUIA ❤
@@tonyroque8262 Ephesians 3:9 (NKJV) and to make all see what [is] the fellowship of the mystery, which from the beginning of the ages has been hidden in God who created all things through Jesus Christ; Colossians 1:16 (NKJV) For by Him all things were created that are in heaven and that are on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or principalities or powers. All things were created through Him and for Him. John 1:3 (NKJV) All things were made through Him, and without Him nothing was made that was made. The Him in these verses is Jesus.
Sorry to disapoint folks but it past tense i.e Yulad was born viyikra shmo was called;I know dont take my word for it check it out.yulad Gen 4.26 35.26 judges 18.29 jeremiah20.15 psalms 87.5 ruth 4.16 and on and on and on. vayikra gen 1.5 3.20 and so on.
this is a bit stretch...2 major christian bibles disagree with each other.... King james and NIV.. Niv leaves out the name.... Your describing Hezakiah...the mighty king....jesus not even his real name the christian religion got that wrong too...... Where did you study hebrew.. 99% of christian pastors cant even read basic hebrew.... They will learn latin and spanish though and some greek.... this was a weak short video....
Exactly what I was thinking of writing before I saw ur comment. It’s as if he was like ehh I don’t want to talk about what everlasting means in Hebrew because it might appose my theology
Below is a quote in both English and Hebrew from the Hebrew bible regarding Isaiah 9:6 in the KJV, which is actually Isaiah 9:5 in the Hebrew bible. 'For a child has been born to us, a son given to us, and the authority is upon his shoulder, and the wondrous adviser, the mighty God, the everlasting Father, called his name, "the prince of peace." הכִּי־יֶ֣לֶד יֻלַּד־לָ֗נוּ בֵּן נִתַּן־לָ֔נוּ וַתְּהִ֥י הַמִּשְׂרָ֖ה עַל־שִׁכְמ֑וֹ וַיִּקְרָ֨א שְׁמ֜וֹ פֶּ֠לֶא יוֹעֵץ֙ אֵ֣ל גִּבּ֔וֹר אֲבִי־עַ֖ד שַׂר־שָׁלֽוֹם: Notice the difference in the wording above from the Hebrew bible compared to the KJV, read it very carefully. Can you see how the wording in the KJV has been doctored & manipulated? This occurs quite a few times throughout the New Testament when quoting from the Hebrew bible, and this is just one example! Equally important, Isaiah is referring to a child that has already been born, (Past Tense). The Hebrew word ''יֻלַּד'' (Yulad) means ''was born'' (Past Tense) which shows this quite clearly and this word is used in other parts of the Hebrew bible to mean exactly that. See the following: Genesis 4:26, Genesis 35:26, Judges 18:29, Jeremiah 20:15, Psalms 87:5, Ruth 4:16-17 Also, the word ''וַיִּקְרָ֨א'' (Vayikra) means ''was called, or cried''. The word is used to refer to something that has already been named, Past Tense. See the following examples: Genesis 1:5, Genesis 3:20, Genesis 25:26, Isaiah 21:8, Isaiah 36:13 The New Testament tries to imply that the child mentioned in the verse is ''baby Jesus'', and is called ''Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.'', when in actual fact, the child is only called "the prince of peace" by the wondrous adviser, the mighty God, the everlasting Father. Just to clarify what the Hebrew bible actually says, the child being spoken about is not ''the wondrous adviser, the mighty God, the everlasting Father'', he is just "the prince of peace". In any case, even if the Christian translation of the verse were accurate, and that was the child's Divine name, it does not mean that the child is in fact G-d. There are quite a few examples in the Hebrew bible of people or things that are given Divine names but are obviously not G-d. See: Genesis 33:20, Exodus 17:15, Judges 6:24, Jeremiah 33:16, 1 Samuel 1:1, 1 Samuel 1:3, Judges 9:5, Exodus 21:6, Exodus 7:1. One has to read the whole of Isaiah chapter 9 in the correct context to understand it. So, who is the child (the prince of peace) that Isaiah is speaking about in chapter 9? Answer: King Hezekiah of Judah. He is the one who brings peace to the Jewish people with the miraculous help of G-d, (as of the day of Midian - Isaiah 9:3 & see 2 Kings 19:31-35 in Hebrew bible) by defeating the Assyrians who were threatening to destroy the kingdom of Judah.(the Jewish people) In conclusion, Isaiah chapter 9 is describing the miraculous victory of the Jewish people over the powerful Kingdom of Assyria at that time, similar to the miraculous victory of Gideon over the Midianites, alluded to in Isaiah 9:3 in the Hebrew bible. It is not speaking about a future event (Birth of Jesus)700 years later, it describes these events in the Past Tense. One does not speak about a future event in the Past Tense!
@@TWODEEP25 It is your right to disagree, however, there is no proof in the Hebrew bible for Jesus. As a Christian you are forced to believe what is written in the New Testament to justify your belief in Jesus. Without the NT, you cannot prove anything regarding Jesus, and that is a fact! Judaism and Christianity are two completely different religions. Judaism does not need Christianity, but Christianity needs Judaism. Christianity does not complete Judaism, it contradicts it!
FYI: Christians use Isaiah 9:6 to prove that the holy messiah was/is divine BUT they do so by using dishonest translations of the original Hebrew.. In Christian bibles the verse is translated as: For a child shall be born to us, a son shall be given to us; and the government shall rest on his shoulders; and his name will be called Wonderful counselor, mighty God, eternal father, Prince of Peace. This is a dishonest translation of the original Hebrew. All the verbs in this passage have been changed from the perfect tense to the future tense. Every other occurrence of these same verbs in these same forms in the Christian Bible are translated in the perfect tense. This is but one instance where dishonest translations of the Hebrew bible have been done to correspond to make people belive that these passages are saying something they are not. There are many more such examples: Psalm 2:12 (kiss the son); Psalm 22:16 (pierced my hand and my feet); Isaiah 7:14 (a virgin shall be with child); Zechariah 8:23 ( you, singular vs, you plural); Micah 9:2 (Kumei Olum) etc…
This is the original Hebrew Bible not the tampered with Christian OT. Yeshayahu (Isaiah) - Chapter 9:5 For a child has been born to us, a son given to us, and the authority is upon his shoulder, and the wondrous adviser, the mighty God, the everlasting Father, called his name, "the prince of peace." הכִּי־יֶ֣לֶד יֻלַּד־לָ֗נוּ בֵּן נִתַּן־לָ֔נוּ וַתְּהִ֥י הַמִּשְׂרָ֖ה עַל־שִׁכְמ֑וֹ וַיִּקְרָ֨א שְׁמ֜וֹ פֶּ֠לֶא יוֹעֵץ֙ אֵ֣ל גִּבּ֔וֹר אֲבִי־עַ֖ד שַׂר־שָׁלֽוֹם: For a child has been born to us: Although Ahaz is wicked, his son who was born to him many years ago [nine years prior to his assuming the throne] to be our king in his stead, shall be a righteous man, and the authority of the Holy One, blessed be He, and His yoke shall be on his shoulder, for he shall engage in the Torah and observe the commandments, and he shall bend his shoulder to bear the burden of the Holy One, blessed be He.
כי ילד יולד לנו: אע"פ שאחז רשע הוא בנו הנולד לו זה כמה שנים להיות לנו תחתיו למלך צדיק יהיה ותהיה משרת הקב"ה ועולו על שכמו שיהיה עוסק בתורה ושומר מצות ויטה שכם למשאו של הקב"ה: and… called his name: The Holy One, blessed be He, Who gives wondrous counsel, is a mighty God and an everlasting Father, called Hezekiah’s name, “the prince of peace,” since peace and truth will be in his days.
ויקרא שמו: הקב"ה שהוא מפליא עצה ואל גבור ואבי עד, קרא שמו של חזקיהו שר שלום כי שלום ואמת יהיה בימיו online Hebrew Bible www.chabad.org/library/bible_cdo/aid/15940/showrashi/true
Does isaiah 9 v 6 say Jesus is mighty God?? Bible scholars say corruptions crept into the hebrew text between the 6th and 7th centuries . But the SEPTUAGINT that Jesus and the apostles quoted from was translated by Jewish scholars around 300-200 BC, and came from the most ancient and reliable manuscripts available . Please note what the septuagint says and what it does not say. " for a child is born to us, and a Son is given to us, whose government is upon his shoulders; and his name is called the messenger of great council; for I will bring peace upon the princes, and health to him ". If Jesus is the Almighty God( himself), then how can he....give life to himself? " for as the Father has life in himself; so has he goven to the Son to have life in himself". John 5 v 26. Have his own God? " i ascend to my Father and your Father, and my God and your God". John 20 v 17. Give to himself what he already has? " the Father loves the Son, and has given all things into his hand". John 3 v 35. Jesus inherited his Fathers name, character and devine nature in the same way a human son inherits the human nature and name of his parents. So Jesus is God because he is the SON of God. But he is not "a" god or " the" God. He is the Son of God!! Much weight is put on this text, and a half dozen others to provide for Romes false trinitas, but is it there, is it biblically based, i would say most definitely Not!! 1 cor 8 v 6
The correct translation in english is... the wonderful councilor, Mighty God, The eternal father called his name ruler of peace.. The first three are real God's attributes becoz Jesus in any chapter in the bible never ever was called by his apostles as mighty god, and eternal father..
You guys mistranlate the Bible. 1) This paragraph talks about Hezekiah. Strong God is the synanom for Hezekiah 2) This is past tense he WAS called not will be called.
HOW CHRISTIANS YOU CONFUSE YOURSELF A CHILD IS BORN AND WILL CALLED GOD IS CHILD A GOD?IS GOD BORN?IS GOD HUMAN?IS GOD CALLED HIS NAME AT THE FUTURE ? HOW YOU TRY TO TEACH NONSENSE BLASPHEMY IS WHY ALL THE TITLE YOUR MENTIONED DOESN'T GIVEN TO JESUS AS YOU IF THIS VERSE TALK ABOUT HIM AS YOU CLAIM? BEFORE YOU LIE TO ANYONE KNOW THAT EVER ONE HAVE A REASON IN MIND
I love how out of nowhere Jesus just gets thrown in there. If Jesus prayed to the eternal father and, according to Christians, was the lamb that opens the scroll in the eternal fathers hands, then he can't be the eternal father. HUGE gap in this analysis.
With respect I have to say right of the bat that what you are professing to be prophetic of the coming of Jesus is not correct. This needs to be explained by a Jewish sage like rabbi Tovia Singer who knows and understands the real meaning of the Bible. To extrapolate a verse here and there is the opposite of what the Bible says. Even if you’re reading it in Hebrew you’re still misguided and so you’re passing this miss guiding to others who are conditioned to accept such interpretations. On another note and I think this is really important is that by changing the meaning of to justify your theology you are in fact ‘disrespecting’ what the prophet who lived the occurrences of his time and by divine inspiration gave prophecy shows the outrageous maneuver of changing history. It’s like any such maneuver whether it is biblical or changing any event that actually happened and then changing its validity as it was meant to be.
This person has a flamboyant language speaking skills no doubt about it but his lecture to doesn't prove anything he has spoken in a very beautiful language proving nothing that this has anything to do with Jesus at all
How about sharing the TRUTH and tell everyone how the Christians changed the verbs to future instead of original Hebrew of Past tense MEANING THE EVENT YOU ARE SHARING IS PAST TENSE ALREADY HAPPENED if anyone needs proof look at the HEBREW original for those same verbs used elsewhere and see that the Christian bible uses them correct anywhere else just not here .....hmmmm. that should make anyone curious and it should make you mr.teacher correct the partial truth your sharing and speak the real WHOLE TRUTH praise the FATHER
It's the prophetic perfect tense...Utilized often in the Old Testament... Next... Isaiah 53:6 All of us [Jews], like sheep, have strayed away. We [Jews] have left God’s paths to follow our own. Yet the LORD laid on him [Jesus] the sins of us all. If Isaiah is claiming WE have gone astray, he and his Jewish brethren CANNOT be the Suffering Servant!!...Laid the sins of us all on HIM [singular male pronoun] referencing Jesus!! Come to Jesus!!
@Strelec John David Hello Strelec, I said that Jesus himself never claimed the most fundamental belief of Christianity that he is God. The Isaiah 9:6 are not the words of Jesus. Bible has been written by many people according to their understanding and thus is no longer the original word of God. But if you believe that today's Bible is the original word of God the what do you say about Acts 2:22 “Fellow Israelites, listen to this: Jesus of Nazareth(A) was a *_man_* accredited by God to you by miracles, wonders and signs,(B) which God did among you through him,(C) as you yourselves know. My brother Strelec, here Peter clearly refers to Jews that Jesus is a man not holy spirit and not God ot son of God Hope my Christian brothers and sisters di analyse that Jesus is being mentioned as MAN who had power from God as prophetic miracle to ressurect dead people and cure leprosy, turned water into wine, etc. He was a man prophet with miracle of being born without father and this is why people believed the rumours that he son of God without carefully reading Bible
I’ll tell you where it says that in the Bible as soon as you show me in your Quran where Jesus says these exact words,”I am not God, do not worship me “. Those exact words. You’re clearly a Muslim and I see exactly what you’re doing😉
@Strelec John David John 10:30 IF JESUS IS GOD BECAUSE HE CLAIMS TO BE ONE WITH THE FATHER. THEN HOW DO YOU EXPAIN VERSES WHERE BELIEVERS ARE SAID TO BE ONE IN THE SAME WAY AS THEY ARE???
Glory Yaweh! Our Wonderful Counselor
Your video was great inspiration to my life .. it’s brings peace and comfort … I’m fighting against principalities of darkness but my God is so mighty there is nothing that God can’t do .. blessings to you and family
Jesus created only EVERYTHING (the heavens and the Earth)...He has superexceeded all my expectations.
please continue with Everlasting Father
He never made it because he doesn't know the video was posted 4 years ago man
He will not says this because never found this name found in Jesus to create lie is very difficult
God gives sound counsel which will lead in miraculous results, he is our warrior God who will fight our battles. God has provided everything for us to live victorious life. HALLELUJAH!
Thanks for the teaching.
Thank you for sharing your revelation. Very insightful.
Thank you for covering this subject
Hey Dr Escobedo, what about "the everlasting Father?" Do you have a part 2?
He never made it because he doesn't know
Excellent work!
This video helped me a ton for an upcoming message. Thanks so much.
Thank you! Hallelujah!
Great message. Definitely a learning experience for me. Thank you soo much. May God continue to bless you ministry.
Thank you. This has definitely added value and clarity to this passage of scripture. I would love to hear you do the other two attributes of the Messiah, Everlasting Father and Prince of Peace.
I would too, about Everlasting Father and Prince of Peace
Christ is the last Adam meaning He is the Everlasting Father of new divine-human race. True Believers are born again into this family when they have the sinless life of Christ via the Holy Spirit/ comforter
@@selalmng not
He doesn't know what everlasting father means he can't do the subject because he doesn't have that knowledge
@@selalmngNothing is called Divine human this is polytheism teaching
I was blessed so much.
Wonderful teaching
This is great, offering a truer and more wonderful andpowerfulunderstanding if Scripture!!! Very rich, comforting, and helpful!
Below is a quote in both English and Hebrew from the Hebrew bible regarding Isaiah 9:6 in the KJV, which is actually Isaiah 9:5 in the Hebrew bible.
'For a child has been born to us, a son given to us, and the authority is upon his shoulder, and the wondrous adviser, the mighty God, the everlasting Father, called his name, "the prince of peace." הכִּי־יֶ֣לֶד יֻלַּד־לָ֗נוּ בֵּן נִתַּן־לָ֔נוּ וַתְּהִ֥י הַמִּשְׂרָ֖ה עַל־שִׁכְמ֑וֹ וַיִּקְרָ֨א שְׁמ֜וֹ פֶּ֠לֶא יוֹעֵץ֙ אֵ֣ל גִּבּ֔וֹר אֲבִי־עַ֖ד שַׂר־שָׁלֽוֹם:
Notice the difference in the wording above from the Hebrew bible compared to the KJV, read it very carefully. Can you see how the wording in the KJV has been doctored & manipulated? This occurs quite a few times throughout the New Testament when quoting from the Hebrew bible, and this is just one example! Equally important, Isaiah is referring to a child that has already been born, (Past Tense). The Hebrew word ''יֻלַּד'' (Yulad) means ''was born'' (Past Tense) which shows this quite clearly and this word is used in other parts of the Hebrew bible to mean exactly that. See the following: Genesis 4:26, Genesis 35:26, Judges 18:29, Jeremiah 20:15, Psalms 87:5, Ruth 4:16-17
Also, the word ''וַיִּקְרָ֨א'' (Vayikra) means ''was called, or cried''. The word is used to refer to something that has already been named, Past Tense. See the following examples: Genesis 1:5, Genesis 3:20, Genesis 25:26, Isaiah 21:8, Isaiah 36:13
The New Testament tries to imply that the child mentioned in the verse is ''baby Jesus'', and is called ''Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.'', when in actual fact, the child is only called "the prince of peace" by the wondrous adviser, the mighty God, the everlasting Father. Just to clarify what the Hebrew bible actually says, the child being spoken about is not ''the wondrous adviser, the mighty God, the everlasting Father'', he is just "the prince of peace".
In any case, even if the Christian translation of the verse were accurate, and that was the child's Divine name, it does not mean that the child is in fact G-d. There are quite a few examples in the Hebrew bible of people or things that are given Divine names but are obviously not G-d. See: Genesis 33:20, Exodus 17:15, Judges 6:24, Jeremiah 33:16, 1 Samuel 1:1, 1 Samuel 1:3, Judges 9:5, Exodus 21:6, Exodus 7:1.
One has to read the whole of Isaiah chapter 9 in the correct context to understand it. So, who is the child (the prince of peace) that Isaiah is speaking about in chapter 9? Answer: King Hezekiah of Judah. He is the one who brings peace to the Jewish people with the miraculous help of G-d, (as of the day of Midian - Isaiah 9:3 & see 2 Kings 19:31-35 in Hebrew bible) by defeating the Assyrians who were threatening to destroy the kingdom of Judah.(the Jewish people)
In conclusion, Isaiah chapter 9 is describing the miraculous victory of the Jewish people over the powerful Kingdom of Assyria at that time, similar to the miraculous victory of Gideon over the Midianites, alluded to in Isaiah 9:3 in the Hebrew bible. It is not speaking about a future event (Birth of Jesus)700 years later, it describes these events in the Past Tense.
One does not speak about a future event in the Past Tense!
Phenomenal anointed video! Thanks so much! 🙏🙌😊
Thank you
Awesome interpretation!!
Blessed beyond measures
Thank you for your video. I just got a prayer journal & inside it Wonderful Counselor was written so I was excited to write the Hebrew word & I also added Mighty God in my journal.
Thank you❤Amazing 🎉
Good stuff
Thank u & god bless 🙏🏽
Very helpful thank you. Now I have subscribed I'm looking forward to future teaching and catching up with previous ones. Happy Hanukkah and Christmas
Thank you for this video!
AMEN, AMEN, AMEN
Awesome
That was great.
Can you break down the other 2 titles for Christ? You did an amazing job. Thank you!
😂😂💀
Excellent teaching . Lifted my spirit .
Just was getting ready to lead a youth Bible Study on Isaiah 9:6-7. Thanks for the information. I'll be sharing the extended meanings of wonderful counselor and mighty God. Appreciate your teaching.
The name of the channel...
...I'm subscribed already.
Thank you bro!!!
great
Excellent Teaching! "MIGHTY COUNSELOR" translates to miraculously militant Counselor!!!
JC wasnt militant at all. He got his but kicked
Did He tho?
"THE BATTLE OVER BRITAIN "BY PASTOR/PROF WALTER VEITH POWERFUL POWERFUL WATCH TRUTH ALWAYS WINS GOD SEES EVERYTHING KNOWS EVERYTHING ❤
I enjoyed watching thank you the lord give me this word.
Thanks for the great information in this video! Are you well schooled in Biblical Hebrew? The reason I ask that is that I recently watched a video from Tovia Singer who is a Rabbi. He claims the Hebrew word wayqyiqra Strongs 7121 always is used in the past tense in the OT. I.e., Isaiah is saying all those grand titles are about God and the last one "Prince of Peace" is what the Mighty God is calling Hezekiah.
He is well schooled in the ''Art of Lying''.
Below is a quote in both English and Hebrew from the Hebrew bible regarding Isaiah 9:6 in the KJV, which is actually Isaiah 9:5 in the Hebrew bible.
'For a child has been born to us, a son given to us, and the authority is upon his shoulder, and the wondrous adviser, the mighty God, the everlasting Father, called his name, "the prince of peace." הכִּי־יֶ֣לֶד יֻלַּד־לָ֗נוּ בֵּן נִתַּן־לָ֔נוּ וַתְּהִ֥י הַמִּשְׂרָ֖ה עַל־שִׁכְמ֑וֹ וַיִּקְרָ֨א שְׁמ֜וֹ פֶּ֠לֶא יוֹעֵץ֙ אֵ֣ל גִּבּ֔וֹר אֲבִי־עַ֖ד שַׂר־שָׁלֽוֹם:
Notice the difference in the wording above from the Hebrew bible compared to the KJV, read it very carefully. Can you see how the wording in the KJV has been doctored & manipulated? This occurs quite a few times throughout the New Testament when quoting from the Hebrew bible, and this is just one example! Equally important, Isaiah is referring to a child that has already been born, (Past Tense). The Hebrew word ''יֻלַּד'' (Yulad) means ''was born'' (Past Tense) which shows this quite clearly and this word is used in other parts of the Hebrew bible to mean exactly that. See the following: Genesis 4:26, Genesis 35:26, Judges 18:29, Jeremiah 20:15, Psalms 87:5, Ruth 4:16-17
Also, the word ''וַיִּקְרָ֨א'' (Vayikra) means ''was called, or cried''. The word is used to refer to something that has already been named, Past Tense. See the following examples: Genesis 1:5, Genesis 3:20, Genesis 25:26, Isaiah 21:8, Isaiah 36:13
The New Testament tries to imply that the child mentioned in the verse is ''baby Jesus'', and is called ''Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.'', when in actual fact, the child is only called "the prince of peace" by the wondrous adviser, the mighty God, the everlasting Father. Just to clarify what the Hebrew bible actually says, the child being spoken about is not ''the wondrous adviser, the mighty God, the everlasting Father'', he is just "the prince of peace".
In any case, even if the Christian translation of the verse were accurate, and that was the child's Divine name, it does not mean that the child is in fact G-d. There are quite a few examples in the Hebrew bible of people or things that are given Divine names but are obviously not G-d. See: Genesis 33:20, Exodus 17:15, Judges 6:24, Jeremiah 33:16, 1 Samuel 1:1, 1 Samuel 1:3, Judges 9:5, Exodus 21:6, Exodus 7:1.
One has to read the whole of Isaiah chapter 9 in the correct context to understand it. So, who is the child (the prince of peace) that Isaiah is speaking about in chapter 9? Answer: King Hezekiah of Judah. He is the one who brings peace to the Jewish people with the miraculous help of G-d, (as of the day of Midian - Isaiah 9:3 & see 2 Kings 19:31-35 in Hebrew bible) by defeating the Assyrians who were threatening to destroy the kingdom of Judah.(the Jewish people)
In conclusion, Isaiah chapter 9 is describing the miraculous victory of the Jewish people over the powerful Kingdom of Assyria at that time, similar to the miraculous victory of Gideon over the Midianites, alluded to in Isaiah 9:3 in the Hebrew bible. It is not speaking about a future event (Birth of Jesus)700 years later, it describes these events in the Past Tense.
One does not speak about a future event in the Past Tense!
@@robmancuso964 Here something you can read from the book of life. The temple is destroyed. The the Leviticus high priest, is cut off. The Sadducee's, are gone. There is no more, animal sacrifice. Major changes to the covenant with israel. All these things happened after those days. After Jesus The Messiah was murdered and raised from the dead.
These thing only could take place after Jesus was risen from the dead. So long as he was alive on earth, he himself was under the law, in which he came to fulfill. That's why Jerimiah 31 : 31- 34 said after those days,
Now let go to Zachariah 6 : 11-13; this shows messiah taking his throne, so where does he take his throne? There is no temple. now lets go to the house of Judah, where Jerimiah said, God would make new covenant with the house of Judah, also.
In psalms 110, we see major changes in house of Judah, not only will messiah be a eternal lord over the throne of David, he also will be a eternal priest of the most high god, given the highest honor ever given to any man not just any priest. Zachariah 6 : 11-13, shows him taking his throne as priest, psalms 110, shows us where he takes his throne. This makes messiah, both lord and high priest, of the tribe of Judah, it also shows messiah alive and well ruling in the mist of his enemies. Why? because God new he was going to eliminate the Leviticus high priest office. The truth comes out, it is not the Melchizedec priesthood that has been taken a way,
it the Leviticus high priest that has been cut off. Daniel 9 : 26. all these things happened after Jesus was risen after those days.
i want you to understand, the Masorites, added notes in the Masoretic text and the vowels, after the new testament was written. the old covenant, in the most Christian bibles, is the Masoretic text, with out the notes. these are facts.
If you can't see the changes in the house of Judah, then look @ the changes, that have happened in the house of israel, they can not be denied. The things that happened in the house of israel, were a major part of their covenant, and they have been eliminated.
31Behold, the days come, saith the LORD, that I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah: 32Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt; which my covenant they brake, although I was an husband unto them, saith the LORD: 33But this the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the LORD, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their God, and they shall be my people. 34And they shall teach no more every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the LORD: for they shall all know me, from the least of them unto the greatest of them, saith the LORD: for I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more
In the gospel of John 1 : 14, God defines the new covenant, this is how he words it, and the word was made flesh and dwelt among us, full of grace and truth. Isn't that what it means when God says, he will write his word on are hearts, put his thoughts into are minds and cause us to walk in his ways. He changes are whole nature putting the old one to death, by the cross, raising up his new nature with in us by means of the resurrection through the spirit of Jesus The Christ, that God raised from the dead.
Here we see changes in both covenants, that were prophesized. Neither one of these things took place until Jesus was risen, after those days.
@@jamesjames-ld6cy WOW, I am so very impressed! I think you could seriously teach orthodox rabbis all about Judaism and how it works, because they obviously don't know how to understand their own Hebrew Bible or religion.
Next time I want to know anything about Judaism I won't waste my time asking an orthodox rabbi, I'll just ask you, seeing as you are so incredibly knowledgeable about Judaism and how it works. 🤩
@@robmancuso964 hey i didn't mean to offend you, but those are facts, that happened in reality. The destruction of the temple, in 70 Ad, eliminated over 213 laws, that can no longer be observed. those are major changes in the covenant with Israel. if you look @ zachariah 6: 11-13, clearly shows messiah taking his throne as priest, there is a eternal priest in psalms 110. i now that it is Jesus. if it was talking about the leviticus highpriest office, it would still be here to this day.
i looked up some of the words, that you posted, to see if they were used differently in other passages, unfortunately I couldn't find a good concordance online, so i'm going to buy a strongs concordance, see what i come with. i let you know if the word "was" is translated as "is" in other place.
@@jamesjames-ld6cy Firstly, you need to understand that messiah is a Jewish concept that originated with Judaism, not Christianity. A messiah was anyone that was anointed in the service of God, such as a king, a priest or a prophet. Jesus was none of those, therefore he could not be The Messiah, just as a basic starting point.
When I have asked Christians what the purpose of The Messiah is according to Judaism, they tell me a load of rubbish about the ''anti-christ'' - a false messiah whom Jews are supposedly waiting for, that Christians believe will be defeated by Jesus when he supposedly comes back. So let me enlighten you a little, yes the Temple was destroyed by the Romans in 70AD approximately 20 years after Jesus was executed by crucifixion. However, ONE of the criteria that The Messiah has to fulfil, is the rebuilding of the Temple in Jerusalem, where animal sacrifices will once again resume for unintentional sins and all the commandments that pertain to the Temple will once again come into full affect. Clearly Jesus did not achieve that during his lifetime, amongst all the other criteria that have to be fulfilled by The Messiah.
Great teaching here. God bless
Hello! This is so good! And I have a question. I am trying to understand Isaiah 9:6 and I listened to a Hebrew or Jewish guy talk about from a rabbinic orthodox perspective that they read the Hebrew in this part as saying that God who is wonderful counselor mighty God calls or names the Prince of peace and so saying that He's going to name somebody the Prince of peace. What do you think of this? I am a strong believer in Jesus as Messiah & I also want to be able to backup what I believe. I'm wondering your thoughts...😊
What's there to think about it? The standard Christian bible translates it wrong like always. This is done throughout the ot in order to justify their preconceived agenda. Don't forget that it's also in the past tense so it obviously can't mean jesus. It is referring to Hezekiah. The sad part is the translators did this on purpose despite being deceptive.
Below is a quote in both English and Hebrew from the Hebrew bible regarding Isaiah 9:6 in the KJV, which is actually Isaiah 9:5 in the Hebrew bible.
'For a child has been born to us, a son given to us, and the authority is upon his shoulder, and the wondrous adviser, the mighty God, the everlasting Father, called his name, "the prince of peace." הכִּי־יֶ֣לֶד יֻלַּד־לָ֗נוּ בֵּן נִתַּן־לָ֔נוּ וַתְּהִ֥י הַמִּשְׂרָ֖ה עַל־שִׁכְמ֑וֹ וַיִּקְרָ֨א שְׁמ֜וֹ פֶּ֠לֶא יוֹעֵץ֙ אֵ֣ל גִּבּ֔וֹר אֲבִי־עַ֖ד שַׂר־שָׁלֽוֹם:
Notice the difference in the wording above from the Hebrew bible compared to the KJV, read it very carefully. Can you see how the wording in the KJV has been doctored & manipulated? This occurs quite a few times throughout the New Testament when quoting from the Hebrew bible, and this is just one example! Equally important, Isaiah is referring to a child that has already been born, (Past Tense). The Hebrew word ''יֻלַּד'' (Yulad) means ''was born'' (Past Tense) which shows this quite clearly and this word is used in other parts of the Hebrew bible to mean exactly that. See the following: Genesis 4:26, Genesis 35:26, Judges 18:29, Jeremiah 20:15, Psalms 87:5, Ruth 4:16-17
Also, the word ''וַיִּקְרָ֨א'' (Vayikra) means ''was called, or cried''. The word is used to refer to something that has already been named, Past Tense. See the following examples: Genesis 1:5, Genesis 3:20, Genesis 25:26, Isaiah 21:8, Isaiah 36:13
The New Testament tries to imply that the child mentioned in the verse is ''baby Jesus'', and is called ''Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.'', when in actual fact, the child is only called "the prince of peace" by the wondrous adviser, the mighty God, the everlasting Father. Just to clarify what the Hebrew bible actually says, the child being spoken about is not ''the wondrous adviser, the mighty God, the everlasting Father'', he is just "the prince of peace".
In any case, even if the Christian translation of the verse were accurate, and that was the child's Divine name, it does not mean that the child is in fact G-d. There are quite a few examples in the Hebrew bible of people or things that are given Divine names but are obviously not G-d. See: Genesis 33:20, Exodus 17:15, Judges 6:24, Jeremiah 33:16, 1 Samuel 1:1, 1 Samuel 1:3, Judges 9:5, Exodus 21:6, Exodus 7:1.
One has to read the whole of Isaiah chapter 9 in the correct context to understand it. So, who is the child (the prince of peace) that Isaiah is speaking about in chapter 9? Answer: King Hezekiah of Judah. He is the one who brings peace to the Jewish people with the miraculous help of G-d, (as of the day of Midian - Isaiah 9:3 & see 2 Kings 19:31-35 in Hebrew bible) by defeating the Assyrians who were threatening to destroy the kingdom of Judah.(the Jewish people)
In conclusion, Isaiah chapter 9 is describing the miraculous victory of the Jewish people over the powerful Kingdom of Assyria at that time, similar to the miraculous victory of Gideon over the Midianites, alluded to in Isaiah 9:3 in the Hebrew bible. It is not speaking about a future event (Birth of Jesus)700 years later, it describes these events in the Past Tense.
One does not speak about a future event in the Past Tense!
The rabbis and Jews know the true interpretation but keep interpreting it wrongly.
@@princewill4355 what in the world are you talking about ?
Jesus is not God . He is the son of God just like Adam. 1cor. 15: 45. Mighty God, should be transllated , divine hero, or mighty warrior. Jesus has a God just like you and me. Joh. 20:17.
A King is coming...
Is that kids drawings on the chalk board?
Ha ha! Yes!
Subscribed...very insightful. Thank you, sir Mario.
Is it possible this verse, Isaiah 9:6, is discussing more than one event.
The child of light is born during a period of war. "Every boot of the warrior in commotion..."
What in Isaiah 9 applies to Jesus and what doesn't apply?
Was Jesus born during a time of war?
Could this be referring to a second event, a second birth?
I just find your channel I subscribe
You never made clear , does it actually in Hebrew Mighty (God ) ?
Trinitarians love to use this verse to promote the Trinity. “His name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, the mighty God, the everlasting Father, the Prince of Peace.” Isaiah 9:6
The problem is: this translation comes from an Alexandrian manuscript from Egypt which was found in a trash can with a lot of words blacked out!
The Septuagint notes that the Alexandrian manuscript added the following: “Wonderful, Counsellor, Mighty One, Potentate, Prince of Peace.”
All of these names but one are gone in the NEB. “His name is called the Messenger of Great Counsel: for I will bring peace upon the princes and health to him.” Isaiah 9:6 NEB
The God of the Bible is Trinity who created you in his image as being three in one - a body, a soul, and a spirit.
@@Viral_Christology Is each one a person?
@@DEPoole-me3mfis God not greater then us, there are 18,000 gods, every one of them are the same one person one God, there is only one Triune God there is none like him, your version there are 18,000 like him...
Isaiah 46:9-10
9 Remember the former things of old,
FOR I AM GOD, AND THERE IS NO OTHER;
I AM GOD, AND THERE IS NONE LIKE ME,
10 Declaring the end from the beginning,
And from ancient times things that are not yet done,
Saying, ‘My counsel shall stand,
And I will do all My pleasure,’
THERE IS NO GOD THAT IS THREE PERSONS, ONE GOD...
MAN IS THREE PARTS ONE MAN..
@@Viral_Christologycareful friend they can't handle the truth...
EL GIBBOR ma'am we have the original dead sea scrolls and the "El Gibbor" is there you can read the actual Hebrew...
And here you are talking nonsense...
Bringing a translationfrom the NEB that was published in the 1970s, and we can go directly to the Hebrew scriptures...
🙄😳🤣
As many have requested addressing “everlasting Father” would be good. As many know the Septuagint, the Greek translation, completely leaves out the titles except Counselor. The Masoretic text , the scribal copy of the Hebrew text does not. Definitely some strange things going on in the translation/interpretation process of the Septuagint. Can you address all of that?
You just posted your comment 3 weeks ago, this is a four-year-old video he's never going to make it because he doesn't know what everlasting father means, he can't exegete the passage properly because he doesn't have the knowledge
@@mazzaroth2667 i take it you don’t agree with his discussion on “wonderful” and “mighty” from their Hebrew . What are your thoughts on everlasting father?
Yeah, you and I both know that that verse was predicated for past tense with the verb
That verse is referring to Isaiah‘s son
Not the Messiah
So wrong... Isaiahs son is mighty God?
Isaiah 9:6
כִּי־יֶ֣לֶד יֻלַּד־לָ֗נוּ בֵּ֚ן נִתַּן־לָ֔נוּ וַתְּהִ֥י הַמִּשְׂרָ֖ה עַל־שִׁכְמ֑וֹ וַיִּקְרָ֨א שְׁמ֜וֹ פֶּ֠לֶא יוֹעֵץ֙ אֵ֣ל גִּבּ֔וֹר אֲבִיעַ֖ד שַׂר־שָׁלֽוֹם׃
For a child had been born to us, a son had been given to us, and the dominion is upon his shoulder; and he called his name (who called the child’s name?); the Wonderous Advisor, Mighty God, Eternal Father (God called his name), (and what did he call him?) Prince of peace (who is it being called? Hezekiah).
This is the correct translation taking into consideration the context, tense, coherence, and cantillation.
Context:
The כי, which is “because” in Hebrew, at the beginning of the verse indicates that the child’s birth is related and connected to the preceding verses or verse, and is providing a reason for the aforementioned content.
What was previously discussed ? Victory over the enemy? Which enemy ? Sennacherib and his failure to conquer Jerusalem. His presence is clearly alluded to in chapter 8.
The only candidate to be present and connected to Sennacherib’s failure, and worthy of being characterized with distinction is none other than King Hezekiah.
His presence, and only his presence, makes logical sense with Sennacherib.
Why was there victory? “For a child had been to us (to protect us)
A “prince of peace”, for Sennacherib lost without a fight ! A miraculous victory that brought peace.
(This objection completely eliminates the introduction of Jesus into the context.
This is true no matter how you interpret these appellations. For even if all the appellations of the verse refer to one entity, they would still be designations reserved only for whom is relevant contextually, namely, King Hezekiah)
Context 2:
Furthermore, “…and the dominion is upon his shoulder…” (Isaiah 9:6)
Hezekiah was an actual King, with an actual kingdom, he had genuine authority and great responsibilities (Historical Jesus had no authority other than over his small following, no actual dominion)
Context 3:
Also, “…Prince of Peace.” (Isaiah 9:6)
Jesus certainly did not not have any peace in his days, at any time, only war and conflict !
Tense:
Furthermore, The “past perfect tense” regarding the child’s birth indicates that the prophecy cannot be something far into the future. Rather, it must be referring to a birth relevant to the times at which it is being uttered, namely the birth of Hezekiah.
Textual Coherence:
The next point is very important, according to the Christian interpretation, the verse says “and he will call his name”, then the verse goes on to call his name, all appellations that follow included, however, the verse is utterly lacking, for who is calling his name?
The verse is fundamentally lacking.
Rather, it must be correctly interpreted as we’ve elucidated, being that the verse lacks who is doing the “name calling” (according to the Christian understanding), the verse should actually be read, “God, who is the deep advisor, powerful mighty one, everlasting father, called him.
What did he call him, that child ? A “prince of peace”
For his victory over Sennacherib brought peace, as explained above.
(Now, although some verses speak poetically at times, and a lack, although rare, can occur, when one has a viable possibility solution to avoid it, it’s unambiguously more reasonable and preferable to assume the more coherent interpretation. Moreover, when combined with the other objections, the coherent interpretation is rendered inevitably as the accurate exegesis)
Cantillation:
Furthermore, the cantillation very clearly indicates that the term “prince of peace”, stands alone, for the words are preceded by the musical note called “tarcha” which indicates a separation, a different application and distinction. (Those meticulous of Hebrew grammar understand the importance of these subtleties)
Conclusion:
Inserting Jesus into the text is most definitely an attempt of eisegesis, a distortion.
Check Chabad.
Chabad is a joke.
So good brother!!
Praise God!
great video SIR!!!!
Jesus is a mighty not the all
How many gods do you have, pagan?
@@Viral_Christologyand yet that's what the scriptures say
King moshiach 4:21
Some intersting comments. It is a shame that time prevented a look at the entire chapter and indeed the entire context. Originally, this seems to be a reference to Hezekiah. However, Christians see it as a messianic prophecy with reference to Jesus. However, given that the word 'God' has a much broader shade of meaning in the Hebrew Bible and that El Gibbohr can be applied to other mighty ones, the verse cannot be used as a proof text for Christian Trinitarianism. Indeed, the passage calls the child 'Father' and in Trinitarianism, the Person of the Father is not the Person of the Son. To so so would be modalism, which is viewed as heresy.
"and he will be called. . ."
The Hebrew says "his name . . . will be called"???? If this is in the future tense, it's the only place in the entire Tanakh that it's translated this way. The Hebrew word "vayikra" appears DOZENS of times, and EVERY time but here, it's translated "he WAS called." Either the translators knew less Hebrew than I do (which is unlikely) or they had an agenda to misinterpret this verse in order to promote the idea that this applies to Jesus in the future. In any case, if it's intentional, it's a LIE.
so Isaiah chapt 9 is calling a child god.....if the christian bible cant even translate God s name correctly how can they translate anything else correct....
PEACE IN JESUS EVERYONE GREAT WATCH HERE FOR EVERYONE..."FROM EVOLUTIONIST TO CREATIONIST "BY PASTOR/PROF WALTER VEITH POWERFUL POWERFUL WATCH TRUTH ALWAYS WINS GOD SEES EVERYTHING KNOWS EVERYTHING ABOUT US AND STILL HE LOVES US SO MUCH ALLELUIA THANK YOU LORD JESUS FOR EVERYTHING YOU HAVE DONE FOR ME US ALLELUIA ❤
Jesus can be our everlasting Father in the sense that He created us.
What? Jesus created us! The Father created everything!
@@tonyroque8262
Ephesians 3:9 (NKJV)
and to make all see what [is] the fellowship of the mystery, which from the beginning of the ages has been hidden in God who created all things through Jesus Christ;
Colossians 1:16 (NKJV)
For by Him all things were created that are in heaven and that are on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or principalities or powers. All things were created through Him and for Him.
John 1:3 (NKJV)
All things were made through Him, and without Him nothing was made that was made.
The Him in these verses is Jesus.
@@KingArtexerxesall things were created THROUGH him. Meaning God Almighty (Jehovah) used a mighty God (Jesus) to create.
Vayikra is not he will be called it means and was named
SONG FROM ISAIAH 9:6- ruclips.net/video/xiFnN5FkbCA/видео.html
Sorry to disapoint folks but it past tense i.e Yulad was born viyikra shmo was called;I know dont take my word for it check it out.yulad Gen 4.26 35.26 judges 18.29 jeremiah20.15 psalms 87.5 ruth 4.16 and on and on and on. vayikra gen 1.5 3.20 and so on.
this is a bit stretch...2 major christian bibles disagree with each other.... King james and NIV.. Niv leaves out the name.... Your describing Hezakiah...the mighty king....jesus not even his real name the christian religion got that wrong too...... Where did you study hebrew.. 99% of christian pastors cant even read basic hebrew.... They will learn latin and spanish though and some greek.... this was a weak short video....
So you mean the word of God in Torah is a lie and fake when it says there is no God besides him and that God is not a man? Thats revolutionary.
Stop using the word of God, logic, and rationale Raffi! We're talking Christianity here. ;)
@@leelariviere555 lol
I see the Holy trinity.
There is NO trinity in the Bible, to understand the Bible is to understand the trinity is Babylonian wine.
I literally searched for everlasting father in hebrew, and then he says "I'm not going to get into those" lol
Exactly what I was thinking of writing before I saw ur comment. It’s as if he was like ehh I don’t want to talk about what everlasting means in Hebrew because it might appose my theology
Below is a quote in both English and Hebrew from the Hebrew bible regarding Isaiah 9:6 in the KJV, which is actually Isaiah 9:5 in the Hebrew bible.
'For a child has been born to us, a son given to us, and the authority is upon his shoulder, and the wondrous adviser, the mighty God, the everlasting Father, called his name, "the prince of peace." הכִּי־יֶ֣לֶד יֻלַּד־לָ֗נוּ בֵּן נִתַּן־לָ֔נוּ וַתְּהִ֥י הַמִּשְׂרָ֖ה עַל־שִׁכְמ֑וֹ וַיִּקְרָ֨א שְׁמ֜וֹ פֶּ֠לֶא יוֹעֵץ֙ אֵ֣ל גִּבּ֔וֹר אֲבִי־עַ֖ד שַׂר־שָׁלֽוֹם:
Notice the difference in the wording above from the Hebrew bible compared to the KJV, read it very carefully. Can you see how the wording in the KJV has been doctored & manipulated? This occurs quite a few times throughout the New Testament when quoting from the Hebrew bible, and this is just one example! Equally important, Isaiah is referring to a child that has already been born, (Past Tense). The Hebrew word ''יֻלַּד'' (Yulad) means ''was born'' (Past Tense) which shows this quite clearly and this word is used in other parts of the Hebrew bible to mean exactly that. See the following: Genesis 4:26, Genesis 35:26, Judges 18:29, Jeremiah 20:15, Psalms 87:5, Ruth 4:16-17
Also, the word ''וַיִּקְרָ֨א'' (Vayikra) means ''was called, or cried''. The word is used to refer to something that has already been named, Past Tense. See the following examples: Genesis 1:5, Genesis 3:20, Genesis 25:26, Isaiah 21:8, Isaiah 36:13
The New Testament tries to imply that the child mentioned in the verse is ''baby Jesus'', and is called ''Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.'', when in actual fact, the child is only called "the prince of peace" by the wondrous adviser, the mighty God, the everlasting Father. Just to clarify what the Hebrew bible actually says, the child being spoken about is not ''the wondrous adviser, the mighty God, the everlasting Father'', he is just "the prince of peace".
In any case, even if the Christian translation of the verse were accurate, and that was the child's Divine name, it does not mean that the child is in fact G-d. There are quite a few examples in the Hebrew bible of people or things that are given Divine names but are obviously not G-d. See: Genesis 33:20, Exodus 17:15, Judges 6:24, Jeremiah 33:16, 1 Samuel 1:1, 1 Samuel 1:3, Judges 9:5, Exodus 21:6, Exodus 7:1.
One has to read the whole of Isaiah chapter 9 in the correct context to understand it. So, who is the child (the prince of peace) that Isaiah is speaking about in chapter 9? Answer: King Hezekiah of Judah. He is the one who brings peace to the Jewish people with the miraculous help of G-d, (as of the day of Midian - Isaiah 9:3 & see 2 Kings 19:31-35 in Hebrew bible) by defeating the Assyrians who were threatening to destroy the kingdom of Judah.(the Jewish people)
In conclusion, Isaiah chapter 9 is describing the miraculous victory of the Jewish people over the powerful Kingdom of Assyria at that time, similar to the miraculous victory of Gideon over the Midianites, alluded to in Isaiah 9:3 in the Hebrew bible. It is not speaking about a future event (Birth of Jesus)700 years later, it describes these events in the Past Tense.
One does not speak about a future event in the Past Tense!
@@robmancuso964 I dont agree with this essay of yours , and there are more than just one verses that prove Jesus is the messiah
@@TWODEEP25 It is your right to disagree, however, there is no proof in the Hebrew bible for Jesus. As a Christian you are forced to believe what is written in the New Testament to justify your belief in Jesus. Without the NT, you cannot prove anything regarding Jesus, and that is a fact! Judaism and Christianity are two completely different religions. Judaism does not need Christianity, but Christianity needs Judaism. Christianity does not complete Judaism, it contradicts it!
@@robmancuso964 I believe the old testament , and all prophecies which speak of Jesus
FYI: Christians use Isaiah 9:6 to prove that the holy messiah was/is divine BUT they do so by using dishonest translations of the original Hebrew..
In Christian bibles the verse is translated as:
For a child shall be born to us, a son shall be given to us; and the government shall rest on his shoulders; and his name will be called Wonderful counselor, mighty God, eternal father, Prince of Peace.
This is a dishonest translation of the original Hebrew. All the verbs in this passage have been changed from the perfect tense to the future tense. Every other occurrence of these same verbs in these same forms in the Christian Bible are translated in the perfect tense. This is but one instance where dishonest translations of the Hebrew bible have been done to correspond to make people belive that these passages are saying something they are not. There are many more such examples: Psalm 2:12 (kiss the son); Psalm 22:16 (pierced my hand and my feet); Isaiah 7:14 (a virgin shall be with child); Zechariah 8:23 ( you, singular vs, you plural); Micah 9:2 (Kumei Olum) etc…
This is the original Hebrew Bible not the tampered with Christian OT. Yeshayahu (Isaiah) - Chapter 9:5 For a child has been born to us, a son given to us, and the authority is upon his shoulder, and the wondrous adviser, the mighty God, the everlasting Father, called his name, "the prince of peace." הכִּי־יֶ֣לֶד יֻלַּד־לָ֗נוּ בֵּן נִתַּן־לָ֔נוּ וַתְּהִ֥י הַמִּשְׂרָ֖ה עַל־שִׁכְמ֑וֹ וַיִּקְרָ֨א שְׁמ֜וֹ פֶּ֠לֶא יוֹעֵץ֙ אֵ֣ל גִּבּ֔וֹר אֲבִי־עַ֖ד שַׂר־שָׁלֽוֹם:
For a child has been born to us: Although Ahaz is wicked, his son who was born to him many years ago [nine years prior to his assuming the throne] to be our king in his stead, shall be a righteous man, and the authority of the Holy One, blessed be He, and His yoke shall be on his shoulder, for he shall engage in the Torah and observe the commandments, and he shall bend his shoulder to bear the burden of the Holy One, blessed be He.
כי ילד יולד לנו: אע"פ שאחז רשע הוא בנו הנולד לו זה כמה שנים להיות לנו תחתיו למלך צדיק יהיה ותהיה משרת הקב"ה ועולו על שכמו שיהיה עוסק בתורה ושומר מצות ויטה שכם למשאו של הקב"ה:
and… called his name: The Holy One, blessed be He, Who gives wondrous counsel, is a mighty God and an everlasting Father, called Hezekiah’s name, “the prince of peace,” since peace and truth will be in his days.
ויקרא שמו: הקב"ה שהוא מפליא עצה ואל גבור ואבי עד, קרא שמו של חזקיהו שר שלום כי שלום ואמת יהיה בימיו online Hebrew Bible www.chabad.org/library/bible_cdo/aid/15940/showrashi/true
Its about Hezekiah. That verse is in PAST TENSE
Does isaiah 9 v 6 say Jesus is mighty God??
Bible scholars say corruptions crept into the hebrew text between the 6th and 7th centuries . But the SEPTUAGINT that Jesus and the apostles quoted from was translated by Jewish scholars around 300-200 BC, and came from the most ancient and reliable manuscripts available . Please note what the septuagint says and what it does not say.
" for a child is born to us, and a Son is given to us, whose government is upon his shoulders; and his name is called the messenger of great council; for I will bring peace upon the princes, and health to him ".
If Jesus is the Almighty God( himself), then how can he....give life to himself? " for as the Father has life in himself; so has he goven to the Son to have life in himself". John 5 v 26.
Have his own God? " i ascend to my Father and your Father, and my God and your God". John 20 v 17.
Give to himself what he already has? " the Father loves the Son, and has given all things into his hand". John 3 v 35.
Jesus inherited his Fathers name, character and devine nature in the same way a human son inherits the human nature and name of his parents.
So Jesus is God because he is the SON of God. But he is not "a" god or " the" God. He is the Son of God!!
Much weight is put on this text, and a half dozen others to provide for Romes false trinitas, but is it there, is it biblically based, i would say most definitely Not!!
1 cor 8 v 6
The correct translation in english is... the wonderful councilor, Mighty God, The eternal father called his name ruler of peace.. The first three are real God's attributes becoz Jesus in any chapter in the bible never ever was called by his apostles as mighty god, and eternal father..
You guys mistranlate the Bible.
1) This paragraph talks about Hezekiah. Strong God is the synanom for Hezekiah
2) This is past tense he WAS called not will be called.
Hezekiah was never a prince of peace. He fought many wars. Not about him at all or the chapter
HOW CHRISTIANS YOU CONFUSE YOURSELF A CHILD IS BORN AND WILL CALLED GOD IS CHILD A GOD?IS GOD BORN?IS GOD HUMAN?IS GOD CALLED HIS NAME AT THE FUTURE ? HOW YOU TRY TO TEACH NONSENSE BLASPHEMY IS WHY ALL THE TITLE YOUR MENTIONED DOESN'T GIVEN TO JESUS AS YOU IF THIS VERSE TALK ABOUT HIM AS YOU CLAIM? BEFORE YOU LIE TO ANYONE KNOW THAT EVER ONE HAVE A REASON IN MIND
I love how out of nowhere Jesus just gets thrown in there. If Jesus prayed to the eternal father and, according to Christians, was the lamb that opens the scroll in the eternal fathers hands, then he can't be the eternal father. HUGE gap in this analysis.
With respect I have to say right of the bat that what you are professing to be prophetic of the coming of Jesus is not correct. This needs to be explained by a Jewish sage like rabbi Tovia Singer who knows and understands the real meaning of the Bible. To extrapolate a verse here and there is the opposite of what the Bible says. Even if you’re reading it in Hebrew you’re still misguided and so you’re passing this miss guiding to others who are conditioned to accept such interpretations.
On another note and I think this is really important is that by changing the meaning of to justify your theology you are in fact ‘disrespecting’ what the prophet who lived the occurrences of his time and by divine inspiration gave prophecy shows the outrageous maneuver of changing history. It’s like any such maneuver whether it is biblical or changing any event that actually happened and then changing its validity as it was meant to be.
Hezekiah was never a prince of peace, he fought many wars, he was never everlasting eternal Father.
If Jesus prayed to the eternal father and is the lamb that opens the scroll, then neither was he...
This person has a flamboyant language speaking skills no doubt about it but his lecture to doesn't prove anything he has spoken in a very beautiful language proving nothing that this has anything to do with Jesus at all
How about sharing the TRUTH and tell everyone how the Christians changed the verbs to future instead of original Hebrew of Past tense MEANING THE EVENT YOU ARE SHARING IS PAST TENSE ALREADY HAPPENED if anyone needs proof look at the HEBREW original for those same verbs used elsewhere and see that the Christian bible uses them correct anywhere else just not here .....hmmmm. that should make anyone curious and it should make you mr.teacher correct the partial truth your sharing and speak the real WHOLE TRUTH praise the FATHER
Not past tense but present perfect tense.
There’s no such thing as past tense in Biblical Hebrew
Stop embarrassing yourself, pagan.
It's the prophetic perfect tense...Utilized often in the Old Testament...
Next...
Isaiah 53:6
All of us [Jews], like sheep, have strayed away. We [Jews] have left God’s paths to follow our own. Yet the LORD laid on him [Jesus] the sins of us all.
If Isaiah is claiming WE have gone astray, he and his Jewish brethren CANNOT be the Suffering Servant!!...Laid the sins of us all on HIM [singular male pronoun] referencing Jesus!!
Come to Jesus!!
Hello are u Muslim
Just to let you know jesus Christ is god rather then Mohamed
The Christianety make from this Verses a false Proof of GOD. what Jesus is! Jesus is Lord . BUT NOT GOD ! ❤Shalom
You can not be Lord and not God at the same time
@@benjaminsiegel3369read Ps. 110:1 from the KJV
Now read it from the American Standard Version
All these unbelievers in here 🤦🏽♂️
This is false ❤️✌️
In the entire Bible, Jesus never validated the most fundamental belief of Christianity. Specifically Jesus never claimed that I am God or worship me 😊
@Strelec John David
Hello Strelec,
I said that Jesus himself never claimed the most fundamental belief of Christianity that he is God.
The Isaiah 9:6 are not the words of Jesus. Bible has been written by many people according to their understanding and thus is no longer the original word of God.
But if you believe that today's Bible is the original word of God the what do you say about Acts 2:22
“Fellow Israelites, listen to this: Jesus of Nazareth(A) was a *_man_* accredited by God to you by miracles, wonders and signs,(B) which God did among you through him,(C) as you yourselves know.
My brother Strelec, here Peter clearly refers to Jews that Jesus is a man not holy spirit and not God ot son of God
Hope my Christian brothers and sisters di analyse that Jesus is being mentioned as MAN who had power from God as prophetic miracle to ressurect dead people and cure leprosy, turned water into wine, etc.
He was a man prophet with miracle of being born without father and this is why people believed the rumours that he son of God without carefully reading Bible
I’ll tell you where it says that in the Bible as soon as you show me in your Quran where Jesus says these exact words,”I am not God, do not worship me “. Those exact words. You’re clearly a Muslim and I see exactly what you’re doing😉
@Strelec John David LUKE 4:8
@Strelec John David John 10:30 IF JESUS IS GOD BECAUSE HE CLAIMS TO BE ONE WITH THE FATHER. THEN HOW DO YOU EXPAIN VERSES WHERE BELIEVERS ARE SAID TO BE ONE IN THE SAME WAY AS THEY ARE???
@Strelec John David Psalm 82.6 YOUR ARE GOD'S AND ALL OF YOU ARE SONS OF THE MOST HIGH