Awesome! Everything we do in Christ is by faith, so don’t let what you see/hear/don’t understand get in the way of walking by faith in this area! Tongues is free along with all the other Spiritual gifts. It just might cost us dying to ourselves a little bit more! Dying to myself and living for Christ isn’t much of a price to pay though! Thanks Bro. Kenneth
There is absolutely nothing mysterious about Biblical "tongues" - and there is only *one* type - when referring to something spoken, they are nothing more than real, rational language(s); usually, but not always, unknown to those listening to them, but always known by the speaker(s) - it’s their native language (in some cases, it is a language the speaker has learned). Indeed, there are absolutely _no_ Biblical references to “tongues” that do not refer to, and cannot be explained in light of, real rational language(s), ‘Tongues’ (read, *‘languages’* ) - the divine gift, is the God/Holy Spirit given ability to effortlessly learn to speak and be understood through real-language barriers. It is not xenoglossy (as many people incorrectly assume), nor is it the self-created non-cognitive non-language utterance of what certain Christian denominations are producing today (modern tongues-speech). _Nowhere_ in the Bible is modern tongues-speech advocated or evidenced. 1Cor. 14:2 is perhaps *the* quintessential verse used by many to “evidence” modern tongues-speech in the Bible. The whole passage is talking about real, rational language. Let me use an analogy - If I attend a worship service in “East Haystack”, some remote town in the US out in the middle of nowhere, two things are going to be evident: one; there’s only going to be so many people at that service (i.e. there will be a finite given amount of people there) and two; the chances that anyone speaks anything *but* English is pretty slim to nil. If I start praying aloud in say Lithuanian, there’s no one at that service that’s going to understand a single word I’m saying. Even though I’m speaking a real language, no one _there_ will understand my “tongue”. That does not mean or imply that no one else understands Lithuanian; just no one at _that particular service._ In this sense, therefore, I am speaking _only to God,_ since he understands all languages. To everyone at the service, even though I’m praying in the Spirit (as defined further below), to the people listening to me, I’m still speaking “mysteries” - i.e. even though I’m praying as I ought, no one understands me. An idiomatic expression to say that no one has a clue what I’m saying as no one speaks my language. When one looks at the original Greek, the verb which is usually translated as “understandeth/understands” is actually the verb “to hear” in the sense of understanding what you’re hearing someone say. The verb is *not* “to understand”. That part of the verse is more properly “no one hears [him] with understanding”, i.e. no one listening to him understands what he’s saying. There is _nothing_ in this passage that suggests modern tongues-speech nor is there anything that even _remotely_ suggests that the speaker does not understand what he himself is saying. The Greek bears this out; it is the _listeners_ who do not understand, *not* the speaker - no matter how hard modern tongues-speakers want the speaker to also not understand…….unless the author of the text is a bad grammarian, it just isn’t there. “Praying in the Spirit” does _not_ refer to the words one is saying. Rather, it refers to how one is praying. In the three places it is used (Corinthians, Ephesians, and Jude), there is absolutely zero reference to 'languages' in connection with this phrase. “Praying in the Spirit” should be understood as praying in the power of the Spirit, by the leading of the Spirit, and according to His will.
@@kavikv.d.hexenholtz3474 Interesting! Couple questions for you, friend! - What language do angels speak that paul references? And why does Paul not reference the language of demons as well if in fact it’s just speaking an earthly language like we know demons also speak and understand? It would stand to reason that he is referencing a separate language that neither men nor demons understand. - Why are not all polyglots Christians? If that is in fact the sole “gift of tongues” that HS gives instead of “modern tongues”. - What evidence do you have that the speakers at Pentecost understood the earthly languages that they spoke? They all decided in unison to abandon their native tongue and speak in the other local languages they already knew? - Why were the listeners amazed that they heard the speakers in their own languages? If in fact they were just speaking the other languages they already knew? And if it was a common thing to know multiple languages like what was spoken? - Why would anyone need to pray for an interpretation of tongues if the words are already understood by either the speaker or by a few in the gathering? - If the gift of tongues is the ability to understand a new human language instead of utterance to speak in a heavenly one, why wouldn’t we see Spirit filled Christians get a download of a full new language? That is what would have to happen if they “spoke with new tongues”(like Jesus promises to all believers) and they also had to understand the words they spoke as they spoke them like you claim. - Why is not every Spirit-filled Christian a polyglot? God is no respecter of persons, so every believer should know multiple earthly languages by the power of the Holy Spirit according to what you are saying. - What do you say of every “modern tongues” speaker? Aren’t they just speaking from the flesh or from demonic influence if in fact what you say is true? Who gives them utterance if not HS? - Why would God differentiate and make separate the understanding of a new earthly language as a “gift of the Holy Spirit”, if man can learn new languages completely separate from God or His will? In other words, not needing the Holy Spirit to at all? Can the other gifts of the Spirit be so easily circumvented? Let me know what you would say to these questions,brother! This is something you care about so I want to see your heart behind it. For me personally, there is far too much anecdotal evidence to show that when most people are baptized in the Holy Spirit, they speak in a new language not understood by men, and if they speak in an earthly tongue it is one that they themselves do not know. I also want to give a gentle warning that I urge you to pray about. If you are calling that working of the Spirit evil, then you are very close to blasphemy of the Holy Spirit. I’m praying for you brother! Thanks for sharing your thoughts!
@@J.S.Wilson \For now, I'll add this to my initial post..... My reply will likely have to be done in parts due to length. There is absolutely nothing mysterious about Biblical "tongues" - and there is only one type - when referring to something spoken, they are nothing more than real, rational language(s); usually, but not always, unknown to those listening to them, but always known by the speaker(s) - it’s their native language (in some cases, it is a language the speaker has learned). In contrast, the “tongues” Pentecostal and Charismatic Christians are producing today is an entirely self-created phenomenon. It is non-cognitive non-language utterance; random free vocalization based upon a subset of the existing underlying sounds (called phonemes) of the speaker’s native language, and any other language(s) the speaker may be familiar with or have had contact with. It is, in part, typically characterized by repetitive syllables, plays on sound patterns, alliteration, assonance, and over-simplification of syllable structure. The "nail in the coffin", so-to-speak, is that _any and all_ phonological rules (rules governing how sounds are put together in a given language - what is allowed and what is disallowed) governing a speaker's native language, will _also_ govern their tongues-speech. That fact alone negates anything that can be construed as 'divine' in nature and cements that fact that it is a self-created phenomenon. Further, this subset of phonemes mentioned above typically contains only those sounds which are easiest to produce physiologically. Occasionally some speakers will use two or more subsets of phonemes to generate glossolalia, producing what, to them, sounds like two (or more) distinct “tongues languages”, thus claiming to be able to speak in “divers tongues”. There is absolutely _nothing_ that “tongues-speakers” are producing that cannot be explained in relatively simple linguistic terms. Conversely, when it comes to something spoken, there are absolutely _no_ Biblical references to “tongues” that do not refer to, and cannot be explained in light of, real rational language(s), though it may not be the explanation you want to hear, and it may be one which is radically different from what you believe, or were taught. _Nowhere_ in the Bible is modern tongues-speech advocated or evidenced. “Praying in the Spirit” does _not_ refer to the words one is saying. Rather, it refers to how one is praying. In the three places it is used (Corinthians, Ephesians, and Jude), there is absolutely zero reference to 'languages' in connection with this phrase. “Praying in the Spirit” should be understood as praying in the power of the Spirit, by the leading of the Spirit, and according to His will.
I'm not doubting or questioning the 'tongues experience'; glossolalia as the spiritual tool that it is, can be very powerful and, for many people, the experience is profound. As one commenter put it, “Speaking in tongues distracts the ego/analytical/conscious mind while leaving the subconscious (the heart) wide open to import the divine." Both the spiritual and physical benefits of using this tool are also well documented. Again though, it is important to note that this same statement can be made for virtually _any_ other culture that practices glossolalia. Religious and cultural differences aside, the glossolalia an Evenki Shaman in Siberia, a vodoun priestess in Togo and a Christian tongues-speaker in Alabama are producing are in no way different from each other. They’re all producing their glossolalia in the exact same way; they just have different explanations and beliefs as to why they’re doing it, and where it comes from. It is only in certain Christian denominations where is it construed as something it never was. “Tongues” is to some Christian believers a very real and spiritually meaningful experience but consisting of emotional release via non-linguistic ‘free vocalizations’ at best; non-cognitive non language utterance - the subconscious playing with sounds to create what is perceived and interpreted as actual, meaningful speech. In _some_ cases, I would argue that it is clearly a self/mass delusion prompted by such a strong desire to “experience God” that one creates that experience via “tongues”.
‘Tongues’ (read, *‘languages’* ) - the divine gift, is the God/Holy Spirit given ability to effortlessly learn to speak and be understood through real-language barriers. It is not xenoglossy (as many people incorrectly assume), nor is it the self-created non-cognitive non-language utterance of what certain Christian denominations are producing today (modern tongues-speech). As a point of note, I’m a Linguist, and let me also add here that I am neither a so-called ‘cessationist’ nor a ‘continuationist’ - I do not identify with either term; in fact, I had never heard the two terms until just late in 2016. As far as I’m concerned, quite frankly, since the Biblical reference of “tongues” is to real, rational languages, obviously “tongues” haven’t “ceased”. It’s always a bit interesting to see how different tongues-speakers skate around what for them is that awkward discrepancy between the real, rational languages of Pentecost and the so-called “prayer language “ of Paul’s letter to the Corinthians. The solution seems to be instituting various “types” of “tongues”. There is only one type of “tongue(s)” in the Bible when referring to something spoken - real rational language(s).
@@kavikv.d.hexenholtz3474 ah, that makes sense where you are coming from. I’m still interested to hear how you would answer those questions, though! Thanks
@@J.S.Wilson PART 1 Apologies for the length of all the replies has to be done in 5 parts..... _What language do angels speak that paul references?....._ “Tongues of angels” is frequently used as a vehicle to posit ‘angelic speech’. That entire phrase, as well as a few others in that particular part of Paul’s letter, is 100% pure textbook hyperbole no matter how one wishes to slice and dice it. There’s just no getting around that. In all instances of angels speaking, it has always been in a real, rational language. In fact, in traditional Jewish belief, angels can only speak and understand one language; specifically, the sacred/sacerdotal language of Judaism, Hebrew. Paul, being a Jew, would have known this, which lends further support for his intentional use of hyperbole. Presumably, demons, being fallen angels, would converse in the same manner as angels, in whatever manner that may be. To get a bit philosophical, angels (as well as demons) are pure spirit/light beings. If they do communicate with one another (and there’s no reason to think not), I highly doubt it’s with anything that remotely resembles a human vocal tract. _Why are not all polyglots Christians? If that is in fact the sole “gift of tongues” that HS gives instead of “modern tongues”._ Not sure I fully understand the question - why would they need to be?? ‘Tongues’ (read, *‘languages’* ) - the divine gift, is the God/Holy Spirit given ability to *effortlessly* learn to speak and be understood through real-language barriers. It is not xenoglossy (as many people incorrectly assume), nor is it the self-created non-cognitive non-language utterance of what certain Christian denominations are producing today (modern tongues-speech). Yes, there are certainly polyglots out there - I’m one of them, but there’s a *huge* difference between learning a language over time and being able to learn one quickly and effortlessly.
Awesome! Everything we do in Christ is by faith, so don’t let what you see/hear/don’t understand get in the way of walking by faith in this area! Tongues is free along with all the other Spiritual gifts. It just might cost us dying to ourselves a little bit more! Dying to myself and living for Christ isn’t much of a price to pay though! Thanks Bro. Kenneth
There is absolutely nothing mysterious about Biblical "tongues" - and there is only *one* type - when referring to something spoken, they are nothing more than real, rational language(s); usually, but not always, unknown to those listening to them, but always known by the speaker(s) - it’s their native language (in some cases, it is a language the speaker has learned). Indeed, there are absolutely _no_ Biblical references to “tongues” that do not refer to, and cannot be explained in light of, real rational language(s),
‘Tongues’ (read, *‘languages’* ) - the divine gift, is the God/Holy Spirit given ability to effortlessly learn to speak and be understood through real-language barriers. It is not xenoglossy (as many people incorrectly assume), nor is it the self-created non-cognitive non-language utterance of what certain Christian denominations are producing today (modern tongues-speech).
_Nowhere_ in the Bible is modern tongues-speech advocated or evidenced.
1Cor. 14:2 is perhaps *the* quintessential verse used by many to “evidence” modern tongues-speech in the Bible.
The whole passage is talking about real, rational language.
Let me use an analogy - If I attend a worship service in “East Haystack”, some remote town in the US out in the middle of nowhere, two things are going to be evident: one; there’s only going to be so many people at that service (i.e. there will be a finite given amount of people there) and two; the chances that anyone speaks anything *but* English is pretty slim to nil.
If I start praying aloud in say Lithuanian, there’s no one at that service that’s going to understand a single word I’m saying. Even though I’m speaking a real language, no one _there_ will understand my “tongue”. That does not mean or imply that no one else understands Lithuanian; just no one at _that particular service._
In this sense, therefore, I am speaking _only to God,_ since he understands all languages. To everyone at the service, even though I’m praying in the Spirit (as defined further below), to the people listening to me, I’m still speaking “mysteries” - i.e. even though I’m praying as I ought, no one understands me. An idiomatic expression to say that no one has a clue what I’m saying as no one speaks my language.
When one looks at the original Greek, the verb which is usually translated as “understandeth/understands” is actually the verb “to hear” in the sense of understanding what you’re hearing someone say. The verb is *not* “to understand”. That part of the verse is more properly “no one hears [him] with understanding”, i.e. no one listening to him understands what he’s saying.
There is _nothing_ in this passage that suggests modern tongues-speech nor is there anything that even _remotely_ suggests that the speaker does not understand what he himself is saying. The Greek bears this out; it is the _listeners_ who do not understand, *not* the speaker - no matter how hard modern tongues-speakers want the speaker to also not understand…….unless the author of the text is a bad grammarian, it just isn’t there.
“Praying in the Spirit” does _not_ refer to the words one is saying. Rather, it refers to how one is praying. In the three places it is used (Corinthians, Ephesians, and Jude), there is absolutely zero reference to 'languages' in connection with this phrase. “Praying in the Spirit” should be understood as praying in the power of the Spirit, by the leading of the Spirit, and according to His will.
@@kavikv.d.hexenholtz3474 Interesting! Couple questions for you, friend!
- What language do angels speak that paul references? And why does Paul not reference the language of demons as well if in fact it’s just speaking an earthly language like we know demons also speak and understand? It would stand to reason that he is referencing a separate language that neither men nor demons understand.
- Why are not all polyglots Christians? If that is in fact the sole “gift of tongues” that HS gives instead of “modern tongues”.
- What evidence do you have that the speakers at Pentecost understood the earthly languages that they spoke? They all decided in unison to abandon their native tongue and speak in the other local languages they already knew?
- Why were the listeners amazed that they heard the speakers in their own languages? If in fact they were just speaking the other languages they already knew? And if it was a common thing to know multiple languages like what was spoken?
- Why would anyone need to pray for an interpretation of tongues if the words are already understood by either the speaker or by a few in the gathering?
- If the gift of tongues is the ability to understand a new human language instead of utterance to speak in a heavenly one, why wouldn’t we see Spirit filled Christians get a download of a full new language? That is what would have to happen if they “spoke with new tongues”(like Jesus promises to all believers) and they also had to understand the words they spoke as they spoke them like you claim.
- Why is not every Spirit-filled Christian a polyglot? God is no respecter of persons, so every believer should know multiple earthly languages by the power of the Holy Spirit according to what you are saying.
- What do you say of every “modern tongues” speaker? Aren’t they just speaking from the flesh or from demonic influence if in fact what you say is true? Who gives them utterance if not HS?
- Why would God differentiate and make separate the understanding of a new earthly language as a “gift of the Holy Spirit”, if man can learn new languages completely separate from God or His will? In other words, not needing the Holy Spirit to at all? Can the other gifts of the Spirit be so easily circumvented?
Let me know what you would say to these questions,brother! This is something you care about so I want to see your heart behind it.
For me personally, there is far too much anecdotal evidence to show that when most people are baptized in the Holy Spirit, they speak in a new language not understood by men, and if they speak in an earthly tongue it is one that they themselves do not know. I also want to give a gentle warning that I urge you to pray about. If you are calling that working of the Spirit evil, then you are very close to blasphemy of the Holy Spirit. I’m praying for you brother! Thanks for sharing your thoughts!
@@J.S.Wilson
A lot of questions - I'll reply as soon as I can.
@@J.S.Wilson \For now, I'll add this to my initial post..... My reply will likely have to be done in parts due to length.
There is absolutely nothing mysterious about Biblical "tongues" - and there is only one type - when referring to something spoken, they are nothing more than real, rational language(s); usually, but not always, unknown to those listening to them, but always known by the speaker(s) - it’s their native language (in some cases, it is a language the speaker has learned).
In contrast, the “tongues” Pentecostal and Charismatic Christians are producing today is an entirely self-created phenomenon. It is non-cognitive non-language utterance; random free vocalization based upon a subset of the existing underlying sounds (called phonemes) of the speaker’s native language, and any other language(s) the speaker may be familiar with or have had contact with.
It is, in part, typically characterized by repetitive syllables, plays on sound patterns, alliteration, assonance, and over-simplification of syllable structure. The "nail in the coffin", so-to-speak, is that _any and all_ phonological rules (rules governing how sounds are put together in a given language - what is allowed and what is disallowed) governing a speaker's native language, will _also_ govern their tongues-speech. That fact alone negates anything that can be construed as 'divine' in nature and cements that fact that it is a self-created phenomenon. Further, this subset of phonemes mentioned above typically contains only those sounds which are easiest to produce physiologically.
Occasionally some speakers will use two or more subsets of phonemes to generate glossolalia, producing what, to them, sounds like two (or more) distinct “tongues languages”, thus claiming to be able to speak in “divers tongues”.
There is absolutely _nothing_ that “tongues-speakers” are producing that cannot be explained in relatively simple linguistic terms.
Conversely, when it comes to something spoken, there are absolutely _no_ Biblical references to “tongues” that do not refer to, and cannot be explained in light of, real rational language(s), though it may not be the explanation you want to hear, and it may be one which is radically different from what you believe, or were taught. _Nowhere_ in the Bible is modern tongues-speech advocated or evidenced.
“Praying in the Spirit” does _not_ refer to the words one is saying. Rather, it refers to how one is praying. In the three places it is used (Corinthians, Ephesians, and Jude), there is absolutely zero reference to 'languages' in connection with this phrase. “Praying in the Spirit” should be understood as praying in the power of the Spirit, by the leading of the Spirit, and according to His will.
I'm not doubting or questioning the 'tongues experience'; glossolalia as the spiritual tool that it is, can be very powerful and, for many people, the experience is profound. As one commenter put it, “Speaking in tongues distracts the ego/analytical/conscious mind while leaving the subconscious (the heart) wide open to import the divine." Both the spiritual and physical benefits of using this tool are also well documented. Again though, it is important to note that this same statement can be made for virtually _any_ other culture that practices glossolalia. Religious and cultural differences aside, the glossolalia an Evenki Shaman in Siberia, a vodoun priestess in Togo and a Christian tongues-speaker in Alabama are producing are in no way different from each other. They’re all producing their glossolalia in the exact same way; they just have different explanations and beliefs as to why they’re doing it, and where it comes from. It is only in certain Christian denominations where is it construed as something it never was.
“Tongues” is to some Christian believers a very real and spiritually meaningful experience but consisting of emotional release via non-linguistic ‘free vocalizations’ at best; non-cognitive non language utterance - the subconscious playing with sounds to create what is perceived and interpreted as actual, meaningful speech. In _some_ cases, I would argue that it is clearly a self/mass delusion prompted by such a strong desire to “experience God” that one creates that experience via “tongues”.
‘Tongues’ (read, *‘languages’* ) - the divine gift, is the God/Holy Spirit given ability to effortlessly learn to speak and be understood through real-language barriers. It is not xenoglossy (as many people incorrectly assume), nor is it the self-created non-cognitive non-language utterance of what certain Christian denominations are producing today (modern tongues-speech).
As a point of note, I’m a Linguist, and let me also add here that I am neither a so-called ‘cessationist’ nor a ‘continuationist’ - I do not identify with either term; in fact, I had never heard the two terms until just late in 2016. As far as I’m concerned, quite frankly, since the Biblical reference of “tongues” is to real, rational languages, obviously “tongues” haven’t “ceased”.
It’s always a bit interesting to see how different tongues-speakers skate around what for them is that awkward discrepancy between the real, rational languages of Pentecost and the so-called “prayer language “ of Paul’s letter to the Corinthians. The solution seems to be instituting various “types” of “tongues”. There is only one type of “tongue(s)” in the Bible when referring to something spoken - real rational language(s).
@@kavikv.d.hexenholtz3474 ah, that makes sense where you are coming from. I’m still interested to hear how you would answer those questions, though! Thanks
@@J.S.Wilson
PART 1
Apologies for the length of all the replies has to be done in 5 parts.....
_What language do angels speak that paul references?....._
“Tongues of angels” is frequently used as a vehicle to posit ‘angelic speech’. That entire phrase, as well as a few others in that particular part of Paul’s letter, is 100% pure textbook hyperbole no matter how one wishes to slice and dice it. There’s just no getting around that. In all instances of angels speaking, it has always been in a real, rational language. In fact, in traditional Jewish belief, angels can only speak and understand one language; specifically, the sacred/sacerdotal language of Judaism, Hebrew. Paul, being a Jew, would have known this, which lends further support for his intentional use of hyperbole. Presumably, demons, being fallen angels, would converse in the same manner as angels, in whatever manner that may be. To get a bit philosophical, angels (as well as demons) are pure spirit/light beings. If they do communicate with one another (and there’s no reason to think not), I highly doubt it’s with anything that remotely resembles a human vocal tract.
_Why are not all polyglots Christians? If that is in fact the sole “gift of tongues” that HS gives instead of “modern tongues”._
Not sure I fully understand the question - why would they need to be?? ‘Tongues’ (read, *‘languages’* ) - the divine gift, is the God/Holy Spirit given ability to *effortlessly* learn to speak and be understood through real-language barriers. It is not xenoglossy (as many people incorrectly assume), nor is it the self-created non-cognitive non-language utterance of what certain Christian denominations are producing today (modern tongues-speech).
Yes, there are certainly polyglots out there - I’m one of them, but there’s a *huge* difference between learning a language over time and being able to learn one quickly and effortlessly.