MATHEMATICAL INDUCTION - DISCRETE MATHEMATICS

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  • Опубликовано: 19 окт 2024

Комментарии • 325

  • @jonathanharris2326
    @jonathanharris2326 4 года назад +1985

    How many CS students are watching these vids?

  • @augusteine1089
    @augusteine1089 5 лет назад +110

    I swear if you were my teacher for every math course I wouldn't have to force myself to go, and I'd actually want to show up to class. I don't understand why but it's hysterical how well you teach this xD

  • @atharvab.3342
    @atharvab.3342 3 года назад +108

    2:50 format
    4:05 first example
    8:57 first example solution
    9:05 second example
    12:44 second example solution

  • @FelipeBalbi
    @FelipeBalbi 5 лет назад +35

    6:57 should read (k(k+1) + 2(k+1))/2 which will give you (k^2 + 3k + 2)/2, then you factor that into (k+1)(k+2)/2

    • @yusram.6175
      @yusram.6175 Год назад +1

      where does the 2 come from in the first?

    • @alexisluna788
      @alexisluna788 Год назад +2

      ​@yusram.6175 when dividing the (k+1) on the left side by 2 in order to get common factor. He was supposed to multiply the top as well so that k+1 stayed the same value

    • @zheite5154
      @zheite5154 7 месяцев назад +1

      Thanks, was doubting myself at first lol

    • @Marnige
      @Marnige 2 месяца назад

      @@FelipeBalbi you couldve just took out common term (k+1) to instantly get (k+1)(k+2(1))

  • @stovegamesgames6917
    @stovegamesgames6917 4 года назад +75

    Here is the ladder example from a textbook:
    "Suppose that we have an infinite ladder, as shown in Figure 1, and we want to know whether
    we can reach every step on this ladder.We know two things:
    1. We can reach the first rung of the ladder.
    2. If we can reach a particular rung of the ladder, then we can reach the next rung.
    Can we conclude that we can reach every rung? By (1), we know that we can reach the first
    rung of the ladder. Moreover, because we can reach the first rung, by (2), we can also reach the
    second rung; it is the next rung after the first rung. Applying (2) again, because we can reach
    the second rung, we can also reach the third rung. Continuing in this way, we can show that we
    can reach the fourth rung, the fifth rung, and so on. For example, after 100 uses of (2), we know
    that we can reach the 101st rung. But can we conclude that we are able to reach every rung
    of this infinite ladder? The answer is yes, something we can verify using an important proof
    technique called mathematical induction. That is, we can show that P(n) is true for every
    positive integer n, where P(n) is the statement that we can reach the nth rung of the ladder."

    • @KixSoso
      @KixSoso 2 года назад

      which book is this?

    • @vedkorla300
      @vedkorla300 2 года назад +1

      @@KixSoso Kenneth Rosen DMGT

  • @Johnathanaa7
    @Johnathanaa7 8 лет назад +29

    Love your videos thank you so much.. I took a mandatory intro discrete course for CS... We covered video 1-28 in two weeks. Were on the third week and started graph theory and i'm so behind. Thanks so much for the informative videos, they're the only thing keeping me alive. (7 week courses)

    • @glennredwine289
      @glennredwine289 3 года назад +12

      You guys are so.lucky that you have this RUclips now. When I first encountered this stuff 30+ years ago I had nothing, nothing. And our textbook Elementary Number Theory by Burton was very little help. Still pretty "greek" though.

    • @xeon39688
      @xeon39688 2 года назад +1

      @@glennredwine289 true

  • @LOORTIX
    @LOORTIX 8 лет назад +17

    Million thanks and virtual hugs! Your videos saved me from my dicrete mathematics couse in Spanish (my native language Finnish) which I'm taking in my exchange year in Peru;) I would have failed it for sure without your help. Thanks thanks thanks. Keep up the good work!

  • @countbrackmoor
    @countbrackmoor 6 лет назад +112

    I got stuck on something pretty stupid here: I saw ((k+1)[(k+1)+1]) simplify into ((k+1)[k+2]) and couldn't understand why, because for some reason I was reading the [(k+1)+1] part as [(k+1)1]. I know it's stupid, but because it's not factoring: [(k+1)+1] = (k+1+1) = (k+2).
    Not sure if anyone got stuck on this same thing, but there you go.

    • @arhamkhawar4240
      @arhamkhawar4240 5 лет назад +7

      Thanks, this really helped.

    • @ridovercascade4551
      @ridovercascade4551 5 лет назад +11

      Everyone goes through this pain to get the success. But indeed the only success is the meeting with the Almighty God. We are never going to return to this world.

    • @UnfinishedYara
      @UnfinishedYara 4 года назад +1

      We've all been there man lol

    • @mamunrashid9577
      @mamunrashid9577 4 года назад +1

      @@ridovercascade4551 U r funny

    • @ridovercascade4551
      @ridovercascade4551 4 года назад

      I can do nothing about the truth brother, maybe next year, maybe next month, maybe tomorrow, maybe in 2 hours maybe now in 10 seconds? We die once, make sure you die as a man, and have a great life in both of the worlds.

  • @简澜
    @简澜 2 года назад +3

    I feel that's the way people really want to teach you to learn. My teacher always ignore most of the explanation and assume student knows it from the start, and start all of his proofs.

  • @dayrontabares4757
    @dayrontabares4757 4 года назад +10

    In step 3 I found it easier to factor out a k+1 in the left side, which leaves you with (k+1) * (k/2) + 1 Then it is convenient to convert 1 = 2/2, when you simplify (k+1) * (k/2 + 2/2) you get (k+1) * (k + 2)/2 ..... and that is exactly the same as the right side of the equality. Hope I could help at least one poor soul taking this course XD good luck :)

  • @MaceOjala
    @MaceOjala 8 лет назад +21

    I've never heard induction explained like this, thanks.

    • @MaceOjala
      @MaceOjala 8 лет назад +7

      I'm watching though the course on discrete maths, and really appreciate you for producing it and making it available. Thank you. Makes me wonder what the hell was I doing when this was teached at elementary and highschool, since I have no memories from there but all of this makes so much sense now

    • @Trevtutor
      @Trevtutor  8 лет назад +10

      +Mace Ojala Sometimes it just takes a different style of teaching to help. Glad you're enjoying it.

    • @MaceOjala
      @MaceOjala 8 лет назад +4

      That's right. Plus >20 years of time and life experience in other areas makes a difference too, I bet.

    • @jumaelahmed9995
      @jumaelahmed9995 2 года назад

      @@TrevtutorEnjoying!

  • @ghadaalmousa8505
    @ghadaalmousa8505 6 лет назад +297

    I totally understand NOTHING !! i hate this chapter...

  • @kurokatana101
    @kurokatana101 7 лет назад +85

    I might survive discrete math yet thanks to you!

    • @mouadrimwind8839
      @mouadrimwind8839 5 лет назад +7

      did you survive ? asking for a friend xD

    • @rishanaaishath8211
      @rishanaaishath8211 3 года назад +4

      @@mouadrimwind8839 did you survive? Asking for my grandma

    • @mouadrimwind8839
      @mouadrimwind8839 3 года назад +4

      @@rishanaaishath8211 passed with C+ Lowest grade in my transcript so far but I did pass ouff

    • @glennredwine289
      @glennredwine289 3 года назад

      @@mouadrimwind8839 JUST SO MUCH GARBAGE!!

    • @centralpalace2314
      @centralpalace2314 3 года назад +4

      i did not survive, failing an exam as we speak

  • @ColdFuse96
    @ColdFuse96 Год назад +5

    5:25 Sorry, I got a little lost at where (K+2) came from.
    At this stage, on the right side of the equation (K(K+1)), is it that both K's are replaced with K+1, making it so that its (K+1)((K+1)+1) = (K+1)(K+2)?

  • @bearboyjd5394
    @bearboyjd5394 5 лет назад +10

    Thank you so much for this, my teacher is a joke and this video just saved me about 3 hours of headaches.

  • @joelbny
    @joelbny 8 лет назад +11

    Thanks. Watching the previous videos in this series along with Hammack's Book of Proof sets the stage for intuitively understanding Proof by Induction. MIT's OCW Math for CS on the other hand jumped into it with very little background and so was far less clear.

  • @scottwitoff8932
    @scottwitoff8932 3 года назад +12

    This guy needs to be inducted into the hall of fame for math instructors

  • @kennu3988
    @kennu3988 3 года назад +6

    I think I wanna marry you no homo that ladder analogy was godly. Our prof only splatters examples to us and never really explained anything about the logic behind the induction solution (the proving of k+1) this has taught me more than our 90 minute session. Godspeed to you trev.

  • @SomeGuy5009
    @SomeGuy5009 5 месяцев назад

    I think this finally made the principle click for me. Also thank you for addressing the circular reasoning argument. That's something I always struggled with.

  • @lexxless831
    @lexxless831 5 лет назад +9

    thank you so much for this video. studying for finals I was struggling on proving summations via mathematical induction, and I had no idea how to find what it is that I was trying to prove, since our professor seemed to skim over the inductive hypothesis portion, and this video greatly helped. so thank you for this, keep it up.

  • @cpoppinz12
    @cpoppinz12 7 лет назад +53

    Do you have any videos on strong induction and recursion?

    • @stanislavmodrak3142
      @stanislavmodrak3142 3 года назад +7

      I believe technically what he was showing IS the strong induction. The simple induction would be just assuming (n=k to be true), but he did (n

  • @ultrastudy8224
    @ultrastudy8224 7 лет назад

    I took discrete math years ago and this video helped sooo much! You are the man!

  • @shazrylhakeemy8972
    @shazrylhakeemy8972 Год назад

    Bro i aint gonna lie, i didn’t study at all throughout this sem😭😭😭 rewatching all your videos two nights before my finals , really helping doooooooooo

  • @miriamDev
    @miriamDev 4 года назад

    I have so many of them
    1) how do I prove log 6 base(4) is irrational
    2) how do I prove using well ordering principle: n

  • @h_githma
    @h_githma 2 года назад

    Your videos are the best! Watching this b4 exams tomorrow

  • @nathanielohiare5717
    @nathanielohiare5717 2 года назад

    Hello, thanks for the lesson.
    From the first example, where you initially made a mistake. I did not catch your explanation on where the 2 you later added came from. Thanks

  • @idkaname1539
    @idkaname1539 2 года назад

    I'm taking a math class in highschool as a junior and this is one topic that is difficult for me😭 the way my teacher explained it wasn't the best thank you!

  • @PsXboxGamerTrollPro
    @PsXboxGamerTrollPro 2 года назад +1

    Thank you, video was really helpful and everything was explained really clearly!

  • @joseg5287
    @joseg5287 3 года назад

    Thank you. I am studying for my cset, this helped out alot.

  • @Samastano
    @Samastano 5 лет назад +5

    That's the most important part. Is for something to hold forever... *cries in math*

  • @abdulmalikjahar-al-buhairi9754
    @abdulmalikjahar-al-buhairi9754 5 лет назад +1

    Hmm weird we never do it with n

  • @garveziukas
    @garveziukas 7 лет назад +1

    You better explain the subject in first 2 minutes than my discrete math professor does in 2 x 1,5h lectures

  • @LearnersVault
    @LearnersVault 2 года назад

    Thank you for this video. But can you explain strong induction please. Thank you.

  • @DingleBerrieLol
    @DingleBerrieLol 5 лет назад +3

    It would help if instead of making mistakes, continuing, realizing the mistake and then erasing a couple things, you just re-recorded the part. It really messes with understanding when you continue with incorrect work. For example, around the 5-8 minute mark, you changed the (k*(k+1))/2 multiple times, so the steps didn't make much sense

  • @gideonadzasu5109
    @gideonadzasu5109 3 года назад +3

    how did you get the (k+2) in the second step ???

  • @weggquiz
    @weggquiz Год назад

    well understood

  • @Epic-so3ek
    @Epic-so3ek Год назад +1

    can someone please explain the factoring technique that was used? Every single video that does this proof (I've watched 4) doesn't explain where I can find more information on this, they just assume I've memorized every single little thing in algebra that I did 4 years ago.

  • @obaapakusi4844
    @obaapakusi4844 3 года назад

    Thank you.Your videos are the best

  • @Taziod
    @Taziod 8 лет назад +1

    How do you write on your computer? With a mouse? I'm only curious because if you're using a mouse your handwriting is amazing.

    • @Trevtutor
      @Trevtutor  8 лет назад +1

      +Taziod No, with a pen. This writing looks not great because there was no pressure enabled. Videos like in Discrete Math 2 have pressure enabled so it looks better.

  • @Taziod
    @Taziod 8 лет назад +24

    I think you made a mistake isn't k(k+1)/2 + (k+1) the same as (k(k+1)+2*(k+1))/2? Not just plopping the k+1 on the top of the fraction? Edit: You fixed your error like 10s after I paused whoops

    • @ReemReem-nv6mk
      @ReemReem-nv6mk 8 лет назад +2

      +Taziod I don't understand where did the 2 in (k(k+1)+ 2 *(k+1))/2 come from ???

    • @chunkdouglas4425
      @chunkdouglas4425 8 лет назад +3

      The 2 comes from the fact that you're adding a rational number and a number that isn't rational. To do this, they must have the same denominator. (k+1) is equivalent to (k+1)/1. So, to make its denominator 2, you simply multiply the numerator and denominator by 2. So, you end up with k(k+1)/2 + 2(k+1)/2. This is equal to (k(k+1) + 2(k+1))/2.

    • @connorburgess4894
      @connorburgess4894 8 лет назад

      so what you're saying is he's wrong right Chunk?

    • @dbf72829
      @dbf72829 3 года назад

      @Edwin Kaburu yep

  • @kristinetagnipez317
    @kristinetagnipez317 6 лет назад +1

    thank u very much!!! wish me luck on my exams 😊😊

  • @SidTech7.0
    @SidTech7.0 2 месяца назад +1

    Pls help me solve this one its been giving me a headache Prove by mathematical induction that n(n+1)(n+5) is a multiple of 3 for all n is an element of natural numbers(n€N)

  • @rainorchid11
    @rainorchid11 6 лет назад

    how do you know what to choose for your base case for any given problem? what is the strategy for choosing the base case?

    • @glennredwine289
      @glennredwine289 3 года назад

      rainorchid1 You always start with 1, n=1.

  • @domicio1577
    @domicio1577 3 года назад

    Why should I use this in practice? Maybe to prove my algorithm holds true to any random value?

  • @omomohomegie3570
    @omomohomegie3570 Год назад

    Pls can you make another video explaining the last proof you just explained in this video???

  • @jumaelahmed9995
    @jumaelahmed9995 2 года назад

    best teacher!

  • @jakobjensen8228
    @jakobjensen8228 3 года назад

    This video is on my syllabus

  • @MegaMetang
    @MegaMetang 6 лет назад

    Great video. It's probably worth noting that this is a demonstration of strong induction, as opposed to regular induction; where during the induction hyp. you assume that your statement P(n) holds for some arbitrary k, then show it's also true for k+1.

  • @wm78965kidtips
    @wm78965kidtips 8 лет назад +13

    why did you use N

    • @lowellwb
      @lowellwb 8 лет назад +1

      i agree... i also wonder why?

    • @amirul264
      @amirul264 7 лет назад +2

      k is a constant, while n is not.

    • @JoffreyB
      @JoffreyB 6 лет назад

      because it doesn't matter. It's the same meaning.

    • @marcuskolade703
      @marcuskolade703 5 лет назад +2

      because n is the infinite bracket of the question. K can either be within or be the last step of the ladder(n), but it can't surpass the infinite ladder n hypothetically.

    • @tyrt400z
      @tyrt400z 5 лет назад

      because if he didn't do n

  • @II_xD_II
    @II_xD_II 4 года назад +1

    Hey can you add Strong mathematical induction ??

  • @VGx7
    @VGx7 8 лет назад +5

    At 7:30 you change it to 2(K+1) why is that?

    • @kirankumar-ki3ci
      @kirankumar-ki3ci 8 лет назад +2

      coz 2(k+1)/2 =(k+1) itself,the reason he did is to get same denominator in LHS as RHS

  • @TKSlowah
    @TKSlowah Год назад

    Hello, PLease help with the following problem
    Prove (using direct proof) that, for all integers a and b, if a 𝑚𝑜𝑑 4 = 3 and b 𝑚𝑜𝑑 4 = 2,
    Then ab 𝑚𝑜𝑑 4 = 2.

  • @sarvinozpardaeva3168
    @sarvinozpardaeva3168 5 лет назад

    Thank you very much. I really love your videos. You are the best)))

  • @itumelenghuma1959
    @itumelenghuma1959 7 лет назад +1

    This is a very good video. Thank you.

  • @jadeshinymist1639
    @jadeshinymist1639 5 лет назад +1

    I have a discrete math exam today so can someone please tell me how at 7:36 he went from k(k+1)/2 +(k+1) for the left hand side to k(k+1)+*2*(k+1)/2?? where did that 2(k+1) come from? am I missing something? Shouldn't it be just (k+1)?

    • @michaelknapp454
      @michaelknapp454 4 года назад

      I had this same question but I think I got it now. In order to add k(k+1)/2 to (k+1) we need to find a common denominator. Meaning 2(k+1)/2 is the same as (k+1). The 2/2 cancels out.

  • @pial2461
    @pial2461 4 года назад

    It would be better if you took recurrence relations as an example for the "Induction Proof". Anyway gold content!

  • @amorfati4559
    @amorfati4559 4 года назад

    Thanks a lot man. That really helped me out.

  • @christophernaron2828
    @christophernaron2828 9 лет назад +2

    Hi Trev, where did K+2 come from? This has been troubling me since my discrete class the other day. (k(k+1)(k+1))/2 = ((k+1)(k+2))/2; unless I am getting my math wrong I don't see how this is? I just really need to know where the number is coming from for me to understand.

    • @Trevtutor
      @Trevtutor  9 лет назад +1

      +Christopher Naron k(k+1)(k+1)/2 is not equal to (k+1)(k+2), but k(k+1)/2 + (k+1) is. This is explained at 6:50 when I correct my error.

    • @RedQueenAvenged
      @RedQueenAvenged 9 лет назад +1

      +Christopher Naron he basically modified the (k+1) a bit from the RHS by simply multiplying it by 2/2. Reason for this is to combine like terms and since 2/2 is equal to 1, it's equivalent to multiplying (k+1) by 1, which leaves it unchanged. It gets weirder with factorials, but it will make sense with practice.

    • @stevo946
      @stevo946 8 лет назад +2

      +Christopher Naron Not sure if this is what you meant, but for subbing in k+1 to k(k+1)/2 it's (k+1)((k+1) + 1)/2 = (k+1)(k+2)/2

    • @ast3077
      @ast3077 8 лет назад +1

      +Christopher Naron We are using a simple truth to prove a comlex problem. Since any number + 1 is the number ahead of it we can show all of these numbers with n +1. We assumed n = k( that if it worked for 1 it will work for an arbituary number k. And in order to prove this formula we want to show that it is true for k + 1. We need to apply k + 1 to the formula that was proven true with our base case k(k+1)/2 in order to see if this holds true for any real number. so replace k in the known forumula. k +1((k+1)+1) / 2 SImplify to (k+1)(k+2) / 2 Just think of it as using the simplest case that we know is true to work out the answer for the larger question that we dont know how to do by adding in the larger part of the problem k +1 ( or inducting it ) into or simple part of the problem we proved with our base case.

    • @samuelchristophervisarra7830
      @samuelchristophervisarra7830 Год назад

      @@RedQueenAvenged but that's not what happened, right?

  • @afifahsabirah9233
    @afifahsabirah9233 4 года назад

    I loveee your handwriting!!! 💕💕💕

  • @duksy5700
    @duksy5700 Год назад

    Man I love discrete math it’s so damn interesting

  • @Dante-ot8xg
    @Dante-ot8xg 3 года назад

    u said you put in k+1 for k at 5:36, but wouldn't that end of being (K+1)(K+1)? Why is one of them K+2?

  • @hazbean6125
    @hazbean6125 Год назад

    Thanks soooo much!

  • @hammo7406
    @hammo7406 2 года назад

    amazing explenation

  • @svampyr7964
    @svampyr7964 7 лет назад +1

    I have a problem here prof n^4 < 4^n, for n> 4, would you help me with this one?

  • @lowellwb
    @lowellwb 8 лет назад

    why did you use n< or = k , not n> or = k? Aren't we using natural numbers? means > or = 1

    • @Trevtutor
      @Trevtutor  8 лет назад

      n =1, so we can't assume it.

  • @pial2461
    @pial2461 4 года назад

    really cool! Discrete math is the coolest thing ever! specifically the proofs. It really helps us to understand the world with mathematical perspective.

  • @luthfiidrus5188
    @luthfiidrus5188 6 лет назад

    this video really helped me. thank you so much

  • @ZuestTV
    @ZuestTV 9 лет назад +3

    simply amazing keep on the great work!!!

  • @logandanger
    @logandanger 3 месяца назад

    Thank you.

  • @amazongadgetsmaster1545
    @amazongadgetsmaster1545 4 года назад

    Using mathematical induction, prove that 1? + 2? + 3? +..... + n? = (1/6){n (n + 1) (2n + 1)} for all n ? N.

  • @vortrusofficial8034
    @vortrusofficial8034 6 лет назад

    Thank you! Thank you SO MUCH!

  • @Mr.camaron8
    @Mr.camaron8 5 лет назад +7

    Trying to clutch. Wish me luck

  • @Zulfurin
    @Zulfurin 6 месяцев назад

    So with the ladder analogy what happens if your chosen k is the last step on the ladder would it therefore not have a k+1?

    • @Trevtutor
      @Trevtutor  6 месяцев назад +1

      This video assumes it's infinite, however, you can either
      (a) prove n-1 -> n instead of n -> n+1 or
      (b) show that n -> n+1 up to a boundary point and show that at some boundary k k+1.

    • @Zulfurin
      @Zulfurin 6 месяцев назад

      @@Trevtutor That makes sense, thank you!

  • @oldtvnewguy2727
    @oldtvnewguy2727 4 года назад

    thanks for the help

  • @hawgrider44
    @hawgrider44 5 лет назад

    High quality video

  • @dubeya01
    @dubeya01 7 лет назад

    I feel 'proof by induction' is a circular argument -- how can we 'assume' what we have set out to prove? What lends legitimacy to this assumption? What's the proof that proof by induction is a valid method of proof?

    • @Trevtutor
      @Trevtutor  7 лет назад +2

      You do not assume what you are setting out to prove.
      You show that it's true for the base.
      Then you assume that for any given step k, k+1 is true.
      Because k -> k+1, if it's true for 0, it's true for 1, then it's true for 2, then it's true for 3, etc. \
      A proof of it is here en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mathematical_induction#Equivalence_with_the_well-ordering_principle.

  • @debonairrose
    @debonairrose 4 года назад +30

    haaah
    12:14 "Ass."

  • @darius5392
    @darius5392 2 года назад +1

    i wish he had edited out the errors at abt 8 mins
    it made everything thereafter confusing as hell

  • @LIAQATALI-cf1gg
    @LIAQATALI-cf1gg 6 лет назад

    Good work. Thanks

  • @satyaprakashsoren5986
    @satyaprakashsoren5986 4 года назад

    well explained sir

  • @darkdudironaji
    @darkdudironaji 2 года назад

    I paused the video at 7:15 and was scratching my head at how k(k+1)+(k+1) was supposed to be (k+1)(k+2). I kept getting (k+1)^2. I shoulda just let the video play another 10 seconds.

  • @theophilusosita9316
    @theophilusosita9316 8 лет назад

    Gud day. pls, I wnt to no what topics I need to no before I can learn mathematical induction. Thanks

    • @Trevtutor
      @Trevtutor  8 лет назад

      Algebra skills. Induction is a proof method, so if you want to do it on sets, you should know set theory etc.

  • @toko2519
    @toko2519 4 года назад +2

    5:26 doesn’t make sense. Where is k+2 coming from ? Shouldn’t it be (k+1)(k+1)

    • @nateromo1234
      @nateromo1234 3 года назад

      it could be written (k+1)((k+1)+1) since both k's are replaced with k+1, this can be simplified to (k+1)(k+2) since 1+1=2

  • @devkunjadia3792
    @devkunjadia3792 9 месяцев назад

    Great video

  • @mr.capturing8390
    @mr.capturing8390 4 года назад

    5:22 I saw you add k+1 on the left side but there is still a k there. I mean that k should be replaced by k+1, then why there are even two k there?

    • @tomashaddad
      @tomashaddad 4 года назад +1

      The sum on the left is 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + ... + n. Replace n with k+1, it becomes 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + ... + (k + 1). Just like the number 3 came before the number 4, what number came before k+1? Well, it's k, right? (k + 1) - 1 = k. So we just reveal the number in the sum before k + 1 to be k, and so the sum is shown as 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + ... + k + (k + 1). Get it?

  • @basantallam7757
    @basantallam7757 3 года назад

    that was so useful!

  • @evev6383
    @evev6383 3 года назад +1

    Where did the k+2 come from in the first example though?

    • @17noMad17
      @17noMad17 3 года назад

      This comes from plugging (k+1) into the original formula n*(n+1)/2.
      Replace "n" with "k+1" and you'll get (k+1)*((k+1)+1)/2 which is the same thing as (k+1)*(k+2)/2.

  • @icaruswong1
    @icaruswong1 9 месяцев назад

    Thank you kind sir

  • @goodmusic284
    @goodmusic284 7 лет назад

    Thank you!

  • @rajeshdansena
    @rajeshdansena 7 лет назад

    don't you think here k

  • @g.atharva9174
    @g.atharva9174 3 года назад

    ELON IS TEACHING US !

  • @ayushbhuwalka2022
    @ayushbhuwalka2022 Год назад

    thanks bro

  • @anty.
    @anty. 8 месяцев назад

    hi i know this is 9 years old but how did you get the k(k+1) + 2(k+1) at 7:30

  • @sitioprueba2855
    @sitioprueba2855 6 лет назад

    what program did you use?

  • @stmobile453
    @stmobile453 2 года назад

    I don't understand at 5:32 when he said he just used k+1 per k to generate (k+1)(k+2)/2

  • @craig7878
    @craig7878 Год назад

    where did the (k+1)(k+2) come from?

  • @lukeketterer
    @lukeketterer Год назад

    Can someone explain to me why we do +2(k + 1) around the 7:30 mark. I'm not great with algebra

  • @gorunmain
    @gorunmain 2 года назад

    I LOVE YOU!

  • @Ozterkvlt
    @Ozterkvlt 8 лет назад +1

    where did the two in k(k+1)+ 2(k+1) come from?

    • @prstorero
      @prstorero 8 лет назад +4

      because to add the two functions, you need a common denominator. so you multiply by 2 on the bottom. finally, what you do to the bottom must also be done to the top to maintain an equivalent statement, so you get a 2 in the numerator.

    • @sphynxboi4851
      @sphynxboi4851 7 лет назад +1

      Ozterkvlt you have to add the k+1with a common denominator of 2 so k+1/2 plus the k(k+1)/2

  • @gackerman99
    @gackerman99 Год назад

    Is it not the case that you can't JUST assume that k is true, then show that k=1 is true, and be done with it? At some point you have to show that k is concretely true (i.e. what you did in showing the base case). That seems really important and probably a source of a lot of confusion because you're emphasizing this "assumption" so much it sounds like we're allowed to take it for granted, which would allow us to prove all sorts of insane and evidently wrong things.