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2. Modal Verbs and Auxiliary Verbs. English Grammar Lesson
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- Опубликовано: 17 июл 2007
- Yossarian the Grammarian provides a quick review of modals and auxiliaries, and shows you how many words long a verb can be. English grammar and English language.
I am very impressed by the way you delivery you lesson to watchers. I hope you continue posting valuable video . Thanks
Awesome lesson. Look forward to more.
Thanks for your question. "Is" does have an infinitive form: "to be." The most irregular verb in English, "to be" is conjugated this way: I am, you are, he/she/it is, we are, they are. The "be" is more obvious in tenses that include the past participle, "been" (I have been, I had been) or the present participle, "being" (he is being, they were being, etc.).
Yes, auxiliary verbs can appear without modals. For example, in "I am running the show," "am" is an auxiliary. It is very, very common for auxiliaries to appear without modals ("I do care," "I have forgotten," etc. etc.).
Sir you are a Gentleman and a Wizard.
@MrDevin666 "Auxiliary verb" means the same thing as "helping verb"; they are two terms for the same thing. It is true that modals can be considered a subset of the auxiliary verbs.
@nyteskyy By the way, we speak in sentence fragments all the time, and properly so. (If we always spoke in complete sentences, we'd bore each other to death.) So when someone asks you, "What did you have for lunch?", often you will quite correctly respond with the sentence fragment, like "A sandwich and a Coke," rather than with the grammatically complete "For lunch I had a sandwich and a Coke."
There's nothing wrong with the verb phrase "will have been playing," but it doesn't mean the same thing as "will have been being played." The MUSICIANS will have been playing. The MUSIC will have been being played. Thanks for your comment.
You explain this way better than my professor! Thank you so much :)
I certainly hope there are no textbooks that say, "The future perfect progressive (or continuous) is impermissible." It is perfectly fine on either side of the Atlantic. ("By next week, I will have been working on this job for a year.") I just Googled the verb "will have been working," in fact, and got more than 45,000,000 hits. Certainly it's rarer in the passive than in the active, however. But if you Google "will have been being," you will get lots of examples of these five-word verbs.
I love your example: "I have a goiter."
@nyteskyy These sentences all need to have assumed (or "invisible") main verbs attached to them. If you start a conversation by saying, "I might," the person you are talking to will not know what you could be talking about. That's because normally "I might" would appear in response to a query like, "Will you drive?" Then you might say, "I might," but there is an assumed main verb following; "I might" in this case means "I might [drive]." Modal verbs cannot be main verbs.
@JamesfromOhio The verb in the sentence "I have a goiter" is "have". The subject is "I". ("Goiter" is the direct object. I have a video on that.) Who or what is doing the having? I, that's who. That means that "I" is the subject. So the mini-sentence would be "I have."
@ddsharper In "The child is upstairs", "upstairs" is an adverb. It answers the question, "Where"? Where is the child? Upstairs, that's where. In "The house has two upstairs bedrooms," "upstairs" is an adjective. It answers the question "What kind of?" What kind of bedrooms does the house have two of? Upstairs bedrooms, that's what kind.
genius, thank you so much sir!
"Will have been being"
nice :)
the more I learn about English, the more I love Russian.. LOL
Just kidding))) -- Thanks a lot for the lesson.
Thank you heaps!
this the video is interesting because teach these verbs are used with main verbs are statements or questions. Modal verbs have no conjugations or time and can not be used without the main verb, modals are ten:
can could
may might
shall should
will would
must ought to
past senses of can, may, will are could, might, would. when each is used as simply past sense, it is quite the same as it is used as a modal verb. reading an essay, someone's reminiscences etc, s/he sometimes writes sentences with present forms and past forms thereof being mixed. that case, i feel tough to read.
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Thank you for the explanation.
I did not hear the word you used at the beginning, "infinitive form?" when you were talking about the characteristic of modal verbs as "having no XXX form" i.e. you can say " I walk" since "walk" has an XXX form, but no modal verb can be used this way. What is the word you used?
I saw somewhere that passive form of future perfect continuous tense is not used. That is, "will have been being played" is not used. May be, it is used witout continous form: " will have been played".
Actually, as I read, passive is not used for any present/past/future perfect continuous tense or continuous future, right???????
Do you have a video about verb tenses that particularly concerns past perfect and present perfect?
Aren't modal and auxiliary verbs an integration of a helping verb, because I read that they're a division of the helping verb with only different meanings but both still considered a helping verb?
What's the difference between modal verbs and copulative verbs? I mean IS does not have an infinitive form "to is" for example so how is that different to warrent a seperate catagory?
What about action and linking verbs?
No, It would not be a good idea because concerto is being played. If you were to turn it into active voice than it would sound clumsy. Concerto is playing? football maybe xD, but with whom? xD
They do not have a singular and plural form like other verbs have either. "They 'walk' slowly to the store." "He 'walks' slowly to the store." etc.
They do not take the 'S' ending like most regular verbs, nor do they take the "ED" ending for past tenses, both simple and perfect, like most regular verbs, nor do they have an inner vowel shift like many irregular verbs for different tenses either, ie. "run ran, see saw, get got, took take, etc.
Is "to fool" modal or model verb? Huchew... excuse me
Very nicely patronizing,; not to mention educational
Auxiliary verbs don't help "more" than modal verbs; you use them or don't use them according to what you want to say. "I would be running the show" and "I would run the show" can often be used interchangeably, but you would need the auxiliary if you wanted to stress the process of running the show.
Deconstruct this sentence for the win:
I Can Has Cheezburger?
I am a bit lost on the modal verbs. You stated they cannot be verbs themselves. My question is an example sentences.
1.) I can.
2). I might.
3.) I will!
There are more examples, but my question is, are my above examples not complete sentences?
Hi mrthoth, I'm a bit confused. I thought all forms of the verb "to be" are linking verbs. This would mean that the verb "is" in the sentence "The child is upstairs" would have to be followed by a noun, pronoun, or adjective. Would this not make "upstairs" an adjective in the context of the sentence?
Thanks in advance.
I think "upstairs" is an adverb in this sentence.
They do, contrary to what many believe, however, have a present and past tense. may-might, shall-should- will-would, can- could etc. Their third popular use is in conditional sentences that involve either a stated or implied adverbial clause.
You should go watch that movie, man. or you must go watch that movie. or an auxillary "You have to go see that movie, man.
These would be conditionals with the none stated, but only implied adverbial clause.
You should go see that movie man, because etc...
Should modals be called verbs? Because they do not really behave as verbs - as you say, they do not even have the to-infinitive form - should we not simply call them modal auxiliaries?
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An important part of this video is wrong. A string like ''might go'' consists of two verbs, not of just one. That is, there is ''might'', a modal verb, and ''go'', a bare infinitive. But mrthoth calls the two together ''a verb'' more than once. He also breaks it down into a modal verb and an infinitive, which is correct, but then he calls the two together again just ''a verb''. This is confusing and wrong! It is a contradiction in terms. See the Wikipedia article on auxiliary verbs.
'A goiter!'.... how bizarre....
Oh, I liked it! It caught my attention!