I understand what happens in the video, but what I don’t get is that when MR=MC firm’s (supplier) profits are maximized, hence supplier should not be worse off in this sense so why would the area E be a welfare loss for the supplier,since the firm perform better without those trades. I do understand how area D is derived because consumer miss out the additional utility gained from purchasing the tradings Q opt-Qm.
This is the best video ever explaining deadweight loss. Thank you so much for your explanation and greatly explained definition of deadweight loss!
omg I used to watch this channel in highschool.
Amazing explanation! Helped a lot! Thanks :)
very good video! also is this the reason why governments would want to expand production in a monopoly?
Thank you for making these videos. they have been very helpfull
loved it, such a lucid explanation.
I understand what happens in the video, but what I don’t get is that when MR=MC firm’s (supplier) profits are maximized, hence supplier should not be worse off in this sense so why would the area E be a welfare loss for the supplier,since the firm perform better without those trades.
I do understand how area D is derived because consumer miss out the additional utility gained from purchasing the tradings Q opt-Qm.
Hyped video
U nailed it and earned a sub from me
nice you forgot one thing marking the deadweight loss
you are a fucking god