this one is a total hairball

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[@doronezri1043]

In this case I think Fourier Transform may be more useful than Laplace. Specifically, the FT of Sinc is rect, so you have the convolution of two rects (triangle) evaluated at zero🍻

[@reaperskyfall6691]

I pray to almighty our journey of maths should progress along with succession of time and people who are with us hope achieve their goals before 2024 ends

[@owlsmath]

Hi Skyfall. Good thoughts! I’m with you 👍

[@chrisjuravich3398]

Pi/2 by inspection (and Lobachevsky).

[@leif1075]

​@@owlsmathwhy use such advanced maetbids a lot of ppl.will nkt have heard of..why nkt do integration by parts starting with sin ×^2/× or rewrote the numerstpr as 1 minus cos x^2..arent ppl more limely to do that and solve that way?? Thanks for sharing

[@owlsmath]

Hi @@leif1075 - does that work with integration by parts? I didn't try it that way but if it works its a good way. For me I do like to cover multiple ways so IBP would be fine :)

[@archismanrudra9336]

Another option is find the laplace (or fourier transform) or sin x / x, which is a square wave in the frequency space, so the square of that has fourier or laplace which is the convolution product, which is not too hard to do. There is an interesting paper by one of the borwein brothers called borwein integral; not exactly the same, but the approach will work. Here is a video re that: ruclips.net/video/851U557j6HE/видео.html

[@maxvangulik1988]

would complex contour integration work?

[@owlsmath]

I think it works here but I’m not sure. I didn’t try it