Kinetic energy derivation | Work & Energy | Physics | Khan Academy

Let's derive the K.E. expression 1/2 m v^2.
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Created by Mahesh Shenoy

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[@meltdown6856]

How has this video not got more views

[@niharikapathak5214]

Thank you so much, sir. I was facing a lot of issues in this chapter but after watching your video all my doubts got clear. Your explanation is really good

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[@shubhamvishwakarma8309]

sir you can start class 9 chemistry as class 9 physics is over

[@quenchyourquery2668]

Amazing video for clarification.

[@feelingzhakkaas]

Absolutely awesome and amazing explanation

[@aashukumar5589]

I was looking here and there to understand the actual concept this is what I was looking for I felt the kinetic energy here.thankyou so much sir.

[@allabhargavaram3539]

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[@pratikshabhujel8318]

Thank you sir

[@rajahhbyuhh]

Very nice

[@midori58]

5:06 but wouldn't doing so lead us to calculate the "work done BY the hand TO the ball" instead? (even with equal magnitudes, the directions are still opposite) I know that we're aiming to use the mass and acceleration of the ball instead of the hand, but it contradicts our initial goal of finding the "maximum work that can be done BY THE BALL when it hits something to find its kinetic energy" at 1:26. I know I'm missing something here because the equations line up perfectly.

[@sanskargupta3765]

thank you so 😘

[@zaidbhaiboss]

This video is really dope. The derivation done in our school is just useless as it doesnt make any damn sense. It's just something you have to memorise and have to do it just the way it's taught (You're not allowed to use your own brain). In addition, they consider a special case where u=0 and derive the formula KE=mv^2/2 which is very misleading cuz it makes us think kinetic energy is related to the final velocity only.

[@jibankrishnamuhuri5518]

If the force on the hand is equal to the force on the ball..how did the hand move?.. anyone plz clarify this...

[@ramsham6045]

Sir if instead of hand if we take wall then displacement done by wall is 0 then the kinetic energy of the ball must be 0 . Can u plz clearfy this doubt ?????

[@raghubarsingh9708]

Good doubt

[@raghubarsingh9708]

I will clarify it

[@grahamflowers]

There is no kinetic energy in a moving mass there is force Mv squared kinetic energy is the energy of consistent work from a consistent force regards Graham Flowers

[@streetparadox6998]

I understood ur first pont that a moving mass can have no K.E as it's a relative term like velocity is.But what I don't understand is what are u trying to convey through the 2nd point?
An equation perhaps? Like F=m*v^2*K.E? Please clarify what you wanna convey through the second point the terms I don't understand with respect to the context are 'consistent work' 'consistent force'

[@grahamflowers]

A mass traveling at 50 mph all of the mass is moving at 50 mph fact if kinetic energy is half mass what is in the other half regards Graham Flowers

[@frenkberberi7074]

You make a mistake there : According to newton’s third law F1-2= - F2-1(as opposite vectors)but when you write the magnitude of forces you can’t write the opposite force with the -(minus) before !!

[@raghubarsingh9708]

(-u/2)^2 will be positive

[@niharikapathak5214]

Thank you so much, sir. I was facing a lot of issues in this chapter but after watching your video all my doubts got clear. Your explanation is really good