But he used it only for sine , moreover he didnt explain why limit ((cos(h)-1)/h ,h=0)= 0 so even this derivative is incomplete BTW it is easy to express the derivative of sine using limit (sin(h)/h,h=0) only
@@holyshit922he said that proof is out of scope of this video and he also said you can just use your calculator to figure out the proof as h approaches 0
13:32 I think we have negative sign in the derivatives because in the complimentary angles, we have a negative sign with x ie. {[Pie/2] -x} and d(-x)/dx= -1.
The trouble doesn’t end without having to prove the last steps. lim sin(h)/h as h goes to zero needs proof and using the calculator is not a proof. Likewise the other lim that has the cosine term needs proof as well. Other than that, the methodology of the proof looks good.
@@klepikovmd how lol, it's just an exponent of -1 clearly written edit: oh wait you're referring to when you write inverse cosine, nevermind. I do agree that arccos(x) is probably better
Inverse trig aside, I think cos²(x) should be cos(cos(x)). You literally can already write cosine squared as cos(x)² or (cos x)². Why make a new notation for something that already has a notation just as simple?
This helped me so much! now instead of trying to remember all of the derivatives I can find them myself if I forget!
This man qualifies to take all the students in the world. I will not get tired of sharing your videos, they are really helping 100%
Honestly these are really good exercises for practicing the limit definition of a derivative
But he used it only for sine , moreover he didnt explain why limit ((cos(h)-1)/h ,h=0)= 0
so even this derivative is incomplete
BTW it is easy to express the derivative of sine using limit (sin(h)/h,h=0) only
@@holyshit922he said that proof is out of scope of this video and he also said you can just use your calculator to figure out the proof as h approaches 0
@@holyshit922just find your own d/dx cosx
I don't care it's easy or hard; because it's still Math and it's matter.
Therefore I watch it.
Your love for mathematics is contagious ❤.
13:32 I think we have negative sign in the derivatives because in the complimentary angles, we have a negative sign with x ie. {[Pie/2] -x} and d(-x)/dx= -1.
your video is amazing😭 keep doing it i finallly understand why the derivatives of trig is like that thank you
Thank you so much, Sir! I had to disable adblocker and log in my account to effectively show my gratitude. 😍😍❤❤
Thank you. You didn't have to do that but I appreciate it! : )
In calculating of the derivative of sinx we can also use the sin c - sind= 2 cos((c+d)/2)*sin((c-d)/2)
I love your videos. Btw, when u calculated cotx, by writing it as cosx/sinx, i calculated it by typing it as 1/tanx instead
Why are you holding a pokeball
so that when we faint from math you can capture us?
Thank you for this and all the videos you've done they're really helpful
The trouble doesn’t end without having to prove the last steps. lim sin(h)/h as h goes to zero needs proof and using the calculator is not a proof. Likewise the other lim that has the cosine term needs proof as well. Other than that, the methodology of the proof looks good.
جزاك الله خيرا
Thank You So Much 🙏
When the top of your marker fell down, it remembered me the *Matrix* ; but the *Matrix movie* !
You are one of the best
Thanks a lot man!!! Keep up this great work!
derivative of (no “co”)+(trig function) = doesn’t have a minus
derivative of “co” + (trig function) = has a minus
THANK YOU SO MUCHH SIR, YOU HELP ME A LOT ABOUT MY ASSIGNMENT
Thank you sir
Doesn’t Chen Lu take place no matter what, technically? d/dx (x) = 1, it would be d/dx (sinx) = cosx * 1, which is just cosx
Just food for thought
Yes, it's just a trivial case of Mr Chen Lu, since multiplying by 1 is a trivial case that leaves the rest of the expression alone.
Brilliant❤
I love his pokemon.
this is very epic
Please how does sinH give you cosH 😢, why can't i understand this 😢😢
thankkkk u sirr
This -1 thing is too confusing. Our calculus teacher taught us to never use it and write arc instead
there shouldn't be any ambiguity if you write it as (cos(x))^(-1)
@@lumina_ too complicated
@@klepikovmd how lol, it's just an exponent of -1 clearly written
edit: oh wait you're referring to when you write inverse cosine, nevermind. I do agree that arccos(x) is probably better
Inverse trig aside, I think cos²(x) should be cos(cos(x)). You literally can already write cosine squared as cos(x)² or (cos x)². Why make a new notation for something that already has a notation just as simple?
Bro ...how i can get the formulas written on your shirt..in pdf form..?
Haha secx
Please suggest AP calc books for Indian students'