100% god and 100% human you say? How do you explain 'my father is greater than I'? so clearly one 100% is superior to the other 100% therefore does that make human jesus is inferior and therefore why should i follow him rather than just to the superior other 100%! makes no sense whatsoever there is no one minute hes talking as a human form- the other times hes god form, stop trying to make him divine!! hes clearly just a man whos been given gifts from god but a man nonetheless
H T a divine living incarnation, is a stage in spiritual development. Jesus spending 40 days in the wilderness which was preparation to the attainment of what he received when being baptized by john, just like that was preparatory to the transfiguration. when we totally purify our self of all contaminating influences especially of the mind, we reflect the one who we are made in the image of. jesus came to show us the way to become one with God. just as he became one with God. If you think there are no spiritual goals in life, then all those in the past have wasted their time trying to show us the way in the best way they could, that you and I might attain God consciousness.
This muslim guy Br Mohammed is a loose cannon! He actually wanted to fight me on Sunday. He needed to be calmed down by his Muslim brethren. He was red, angry & shaking with rage. Telling me he's going to physically "lash out" at me and another person at speakers corner. Do not let this calm demeanour fool you. The guy has anger issues.
Did you make one of them dirty jokes? To be honest i would want to arm bar you too. All Jokes aside, if what you said is true, he could have had a bad day or something else. The video's i have seen from the brother he looked calm and collected.
Mikel eclok in all due respect your comment is bias Muslim nonsense, how ignorant can you be? It's simple Don't go to speakers corner if you don't like engaging in debates or negative comments
Sa Ra Garvey I noticed when Gary was speaking to him' he had a arrogant chip on his shoulder, he only seems to only challenge Christianity believers he has a weird behaviour when he is challenged by someone with intellectual Well done for not knocking him out!!!!
16 mins into this mohammed taweed cliams that the GOD of the old testament says that GOD has regret insinuating how can GOD have regret when GOD dose not have a heart but by saying this he dose not realize he has just contradicted his own belief(the quran).The quran and the old testament are similar but the new testament(christiananity)has pulled away from the old barbaric beliefs.Like JESUS CHRIST said"it was said before that eye for an eye and tooth for a tooth but i say to you do not resist the one who is evil,but if anyone slaps you on the right cheeck,turn to him the other also.So being a christian is also following jesus christs commands but being a christian is also how our nature in us is.
babylonian steve New Testament has pulled away as you say ,means New Testament a lie .was Old Testament lie too,guess it's all nonsence including buy one get two free gods too .
18:24 Muslims often appeal to Jeremiah 8:8 as proof that the Torah has been corrupted: "How can you say, ‘We are wise, for we have the law of the LORD,’ when actually the lying pen of the scribes has handled it falsely?" Jeremiah 8:8 Several comments are in order. First, even if this passage were speaking about an actual corruption of the text, this would only be referring to the copies that were in the possession of the scribes. It wouldn’t refer to all the copies that were in the hands of others such as Daniel the prophet. More on this later. Secondly, Jeremiah was a prophet of God, which means that he was receiving revelation from God. As such, Jeremiah would have been quite capable of restoring the Torah to its true pristine form at the direct orders of God, and hence nothing of the Torah could be corrupted! In fact, something similar happened with Jeremiah’s own revelation: Read Jeremiah 36: 1-7, 20-32, 27-32 If God was capable of restoring the revelation given to Jeremiah after it had been destroyed, then the same God would also have been capable of restoring the original Torah and have his prophets record it! There was, however, no such corruption in the first place. In fact, God promises to write his Law into the hearts of true believers: Jeremiah 31:31-37 Again, if God is able to write his Law within the hearts of true believers in order to keep it, and insure that his decrees that govern creation cannot be undone, wouldn’t he also be able to preserve his written Law from corruption? In fact, if God won’t permit his decrees which govern creation from vanishing, then what makes someone think that God will permit his written decrees to disappear? In the words of the Lord Jesus: "I tell you the truth, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished." Matthew 5:18 To show that Jeremiah wasn’t claiming that the Torah of God was no longer available in its pure pristine form, note what Jeremiah writes elsewhere: "Say to them, ‘This is what the LORD says: If you do not listen to me and follow MY LAW, which I have set before you, and if you do not listen to the words of my servants the prophets, whom I have sent to you again and again (though you have not listened) then I will make this house like Shiloh and this city an object of cursing among all the nations of the earth.’" Jeremiah 26:4-6 How could Israel follow the Law, i.e. the Torah, if it had been corrupted? This presupposes that the Torah was uncorrupt and available during the time of Jeremiah. Since Jeremiah wrote Jeremiah 8:8, who is more qualified than him to tell us the precise meaning of the passage in question? The fact that Jeremiah appeals to the Law of Moses throughout his book demonstrates that the Prophet did not believe that the scribes had corrupted the actual text of the Torah. Furthermore, other godly men also had copies of the Torah in their possession. For instance, the prophet Daniel wrote: "In the first year of Darius son of Xerxes (a Mede by descent), who was made ruler over the Babylonian kingdom - in the first year of his reign, I, Daniel, understood from the Scriptures, according to the word of the LORD given to Jeremiah the prophet, that the desolation of Jerusalem would last seventy years. So I turned to the LORD and pleaded with him in prayer and petition, in fasting, and in sackcloth and ashes." Daniel 9:1-3 Daniel is reading Jeremiah 25:11, 12 and 29:10 where God predicts that Israel would be taken into captivity to Babylon for 70 years. After reading this, Daniel continues to pray and says: "Therefore the curses and sworn judgments WRITTEN IN THE LAW OF MOSES, the servant of God, have been poured out on us, because we have sinned against you. You have fulfilled the words spoken against us and against our rulers by bringing upon us great disaster. Under the whole heaven nothing has ever been done like what has been done to Jerusalem. JUST AS IT IS WRITTEN IN THE LAW OF MOSES, all this disaster has come upon us, yet we have not sought the favor of the LORD our God by turning from our sins and giving attention to your truth." Daniel 9:11b-13 In order for Daniel to appeal to what was written in the Law of Moses presumes that there was an uncorrupt Torah available for reading. Furthermore, after having read Jeremiah Daniel never concludes that the Torah had been corrupted, but appeals to it as the inspired word of God. This would be a strange conclusion for Daniel to come to if Jeremiah 8:8 indeed meant that the text of the Torah had been corrupted during Jeremiah's time. Therefore, seeing that Daniel was a contemporary of Jeremiah and had an uncorrupt copy of the Torah in his possession conclusively proves that the Torah existed in an unadulterated form during Jeremiah's time. Other prophets affirm that the book of Moses was still available during their day: Read Nehemiah 8:13-14,18 This occurred approximately 430 B.C., nearly 180 years after Jeremiah's temple address, which took place in 609 or 608 B.C. (see Jeremiah 26:1). Again, in order for Ezra the scribe to be able to both read from the Law of Moses and expound it presupposes that a true, uncorrupt copy of the Torah was available at that time. The Lord Jesus and his followers quoted from the Torah as we know it today and never assumed that it was corrupt (cf. Matthew 4:4,7,10; 22:31-32; 1 Timothy 5:18). Even Jeremiah's enemies knew that the Law could never disappear: Read Jeremiah 18:18 In light of the preceding factors, the only plausible contextual meaning is that the scribes were misleading the people either through their oral traditions and/or the writing down of erroneous interpretations of the Law. A similar situation existed in the time of the Lord Jesus Christ: "Then some Pharisees and teachers of the law came to Jesus from Jerusalem and asked, ‘Why do your disciples break the tradition of the elders? They don't wash their hands before they eat!’ Jesus replied, ‘And why do you break the command of God for the sake of your tradition? ... Thus you nullify the word of God for the sake of your tradition. You hypocrites! Isaiah was right when he prophesied about you: "these people honor me with their lips, but their hearts are far from me. They worship me in vain; their teachings are but rules taught by men."’" Matthew 15:1-3,6b-9 It is therefore quite plausible that Jeremiah was rebuking the scribes for their traditions that led people astray from the word of God. That this is the more plausible meaning becomes evident in light of what immediately follows: "The wise will be put to shame; they will be dismayed and trapped. Since they have rejected the word of the LORD, what kind of wisdom do they have." Jeremiah 8:9 In conclusion, we saw that a careful examination of the context in Jeremiah shows that the verse Jeremiah 8:8 does not speak of a textual corruption by the scribes that left us only with a corrupted Torah. The Torah always was and continued to remain accessible. The issue was severe misinterpretations.The situation is different for the Qur'an. Serious disagreements led to a whole revision of the Qur'an and a destruction of all evidence of what forms it had originally.
4:40 Jesus asking, "why do you call me good" doesn't equate to Him saying, "I am bad". Jesus was sinless aka GOOD. Jesus used this question to get the one asking Him that question to realize who he was talking to. This verse has been misunderstood for so long and it's so simple. 6:00 Jesus having two natures doesn't mean that He is 200% of anything. It's heretical to combine the natures of Christ together in order to add them up to 200%. 9:30 In Mark 13:32, Jesus says that no man knows the day or hour, not the angels, not even the Son, but only the Father. The limit in the knowledge of Jesus is sometimes explained by saying he was speaking from His humanity, and that there are many more examples in Scripture that He was not omniscient in His humanity. This is related to another matter, actually, that of places where Jesus somehow seems to be ignorant of things -- leading to the question, "How can Jesus be God, yet not know things (i.e., not be omniscient)?" This includes cites like Luke 8:43-5 (where Jesus does not know who in the crowd touched him). My own ruminations in this area lead me to believe that the typical answer -- that Jesus emptied himself of his power, while making a good point, does not go far enough -- partly because it doesn't explain the Holy Spirit's implicit "ignorance" in Mark 13:32. What I believe is happening here has to get into some Trinitarian theology, and the crossover temporality of two members of the Trinity which requires them to divest themselves of certain abilities -- what we refer to, in terms of Christ, as a kenotic emptying (Phil 2:6-11). Note that this should be viewed in line with the "dual nature" (human/divine) of Christ and NOT the "kenotic heresy" which misuses Phil. 2:6-11. In the view being explained here, Christ's "human nature" is the kenoticized one. The divine consciousness remains intact but is not accessed or used under typical circumstances. To put it another way, the incarnated Jesus is divine Wisdom with "half its brain tied behind its back." The attributes are accessible, but not used. The key for me lies in the verses that indicate a "subordinate" position of Jesus to God the Father. (Like, "The Father is greater than I.") Skeptics often ask how this equates with Jesus being "God" -- the question misses something; we regard Jesus as "God the Son". More literally, Jesus is the Word and Wisdom of God incarnate. (It would take too long to explain here, but for a good start, see my article on Wisdom linked below.) Now if Jesus is the "Word" of God, and subordinate to God, then Jesus is dependent upon God the Father for his existence. If the Father ceased to exist, so would Jesus. My thought on this related to Mark 13:32//Matthew 24:36 is that Jesus does not know the day or the hour because the Father has not yet "spoken" the word yet (in the temporal realm, related to the human nature; this does not speak to knowledge in the eternal realm and the divine nature) that declares the day and hour. But Christ "emptied" himself of his divine power to come to earth -- as would be needed, for had he not done so, even practically speaking, it would destroy the world. So in this context, the Father has given some signs to look for, but that is all. (By the way, I hold to a preterist view of this passage, but it doesn't make any difference in the context of this discussion.)" -James Patrick Holding 15:30 How does one explain this puzzling verse? “And it repented Jehovah that he had made man upon the earth, and it grieved him at his heart” (Gen. 6:6). First, let us demonstrate what the passage cannot mean.It does not mean that God created the human family, expecting that it would remain loyal to him, but that, eventually, humanity strayed.The Lord was then disappointed, and so regretted he had made us.That cannot be the meaning for the following reasons. God is omniscient; that means he knows everything.“Great is our Lord, and mighty in power; his understanding is infinite” (Psa. 147:5).If the Lord’s understanding is infinite, he must have known, before he created man, that he would fall.This is further evidenced by the fact that the plan of salvation was purposed before humanity was created.Paul affirms that God “chose us in [Christ] before the foundation of the world,” and that our redemption was “through [Jesus’] blood” (Eph. 1:4,7; cf. 1 Pet. 1:2; Rev. 13:8). Since the sacrifice for human sin was provisioned even before the world was created, it necessarily follows that our Creator knew we would transgress long before Adam and Eve were placed in Eden. How, then, is Genesis 6:6 to be explained? There are several figures of speech in the Bible that accommodate the human level of understanding.One is anthropomorphism (man form), where physical features are ascribed to God, e.g., the eyes of the Lord (1 Pet. 3:12), Jehovah’s arm (Jn. 12:38), etc.These depict God’s watchfulness and his power. There is another figure called anthropopathism (man feeling), whereby human emotions are sometimes attributed to God.To say, therefore, that God “repented,” or that he was “grieved,” is simply a symbolic way of asserting that man’s conduct did not meet the divine standard. This language vividly portrays, from a human perspective, God’s displeasure at our rebellion. Underline “repented” and “grieved,” and in your margin note: Human emotions figuratively ascribed to God." (Jackson, Wayne. "Genesis 6:6 - Did God Repent?"
Michelle Mackey Actually, Jesus never says hat He isn't good. Jesus calls Himself good on numerous occasions. You're just putting words into His mouth to fit your Islamic beliefs instead of reading the text for what it says.
Angelic Doctor It really is simple but Muslims don't usually read the New Testament in its full context. They simply cherry pick verses out to misuse them to fit their narratives.
don't all religions have things in common,i read once where it claimed Muhammad was vatican trained? same as jesus,all the same they are peoples story that's where we get his-story from.
12 minuets into this br mohammed claims he has 100 percent proff that the god of the quran is real and proven,the real and only god.The truth is not one person in this hole world can prove that there is a god let alone allah the god of islam.So,bottom line,which god would you rather follow,the christian faith in god(new testament) or the god of islam which is still barbaric?
babylonian steve Your stupid god sent himself down by impregnate his 12yr old girlfriend name mary and give his stupid holy ghost to himself and name himself stupid fucking jesus aka son of stupid god. Stupid jesus begins his career by preaching to the jews that he is the only begotten son of himself. The jews capture jesus put him on trial and found guilty of blasphemy. Nailed jesus aka son of god on the cross and eye witness account confirms that jesus aka son of god yelling, me, me why am I forsaken myself? jesus aka son of god resurrected to himself and sitting beside himself leaving his followers in confusions!
P.S,i can see you are an authiest by the dirtyness that comes out of your mouth.It seems like you had a bad up bringin so i prey for your perthitic soul
So long as JESUS CHRIST is mentioned in there belief,the both of them,then im happy.Some people say JESUS CHRIST is GOD but ive heard worse,ive heard some people say JESUS CHRIST is a profet.
There Should Be No Confusion About "The Hour" - The Prophet/Apostle Muhammad (ص) Didn’t Know The Hour, He Was Told That None Shall Manifest It, He Was Told That It Is With _"My Master, Who Is Rabb"_. This Information Was Revealed To The Prophet/Apostle Muhammad (ص) In The Year 618 A.D. - In The Next Year It Was Revealed To The Prophet/Apostle Muhammad (ص) That The Knowledge Of *Al Saa’ati* _‘The (Final) Hour’_ Is In The Possession Of ALLAH (س) And That The Prophet/Messiah Yashu’a (ص) Is The *‘Ilmun* _‘Knowledge’_ For *Al Saa’ati* _‘The (Final) Hour’_.
Fahiym Muhammad .?? Jesus is Illm alsaah ??? And rab means God in this context so why are you spinning the verses around? The verses are straight forward and in the bible Jesus clearly declares that he doesn't know the hour
***** It’s Understandable If Followers Don’t Study Well, But For Those Scholars Of Arabic To Translate The Word *‘Knowledge’* (علم) To Mean *’Sign’* Is Blatant Lie. You Can Also See علم In The 19th Attribute, AL ‘ALIYMU - THE KNOWER ( العَلِيم ) Sahih International: And indeed, Jesus will be [a sign for] *KNOWLEDGE of the Hour* , so be not in doubt of it, and follow Me. This is a straight path. Pickthall: And lo! verily there is *KNOWLEDGE of the Hour*. So doubt ye not concerning it, but follow Me. This is the right path. Shakir: And most surely it is a *KNOWLEDGE of the hour* , therefore have no doubt about it and follow me: this is the right path. Arberry: It is *KNOWLEDGE of the Hour*; doubt not concerning it, and follow me. This is a straight path. *_@ Soma noma_*_ - there is no such word as God in Arabic, unless you spell it (غاد) ghaad._
Fahiym Muhammad see, now he is claiming the scholars of Arabic as liars, because they don't agree with him. You are the one who follows a lair, the founder of Christianity, the devil incarnate.
***** I Showed You How They Lie With Your Own Eyes, Because Not A Single Word In That _ayat_ , Can You Find The Word _‘sign’_ (ayatan-a sign , ayatihi-his signs , ayatina-our sign).
Amazing response by the Christian brother
100% god and 100% human you say? How do you explain 'my father is greater than I'? so clearly one 100% is superior to the other 100% therefore does that make human jesus is inferior and therefore why should i follow him rather than just to the superior other 100%! makes no sense whatsoever there is no one minute hes talking as a human form- the other times hes god form, stop trying to make him divine!! hes clearly just a man whos been given gifts from god but a man nonetheless
H T a divine living incarnation, is a stage in spiritual development. Jesus spending 40 days in the wilderness which was preparation to the attainment of what he received when being baptized by john, just like that was preparatory to the transfiguration. when we totally purify our self of all contaminating influences especially of the mind, we reflect the one who we are made in the image of. jesus came to show us the way to become one with God. just as he became one with God. If you think there are no spiritual goals in life, then all those in the past have wasted their time trying to show us the way in the best way they could, that you and I might attain God consciousness.
This muslim guy Br Mohammed is a loose cannon! He actually wanted to fight me on Sunday. He needed to be calmed down by his Muslim brethren.
He was red, angry & shaking with rage. Telling me he's going to physically "lash out" at me and another person at speakers corner.
Do not let this calm demeanour fool you. The guy has anger issues.
why what happened , and did anybody get it on camera ?
Did you make one of them dirty jokes? To be honest i would want to arm bar you too. All Jokes aside, if what you said is true, he could have had a bad day or something else. The video's i have seen from the brother he looked calm and collected.
Mikel eclok in all due respect your comment is bias Muslim nonsense, how ignorant can you be?
It's simple Don't go to speakers corner if you don't like engaging in debates or negative comments
Sa Ra Garvey I noticed when Gary was speaking to him' he had a arrogant chip on his shoulder, he only seems to only challenge Christianity believers he has a weird behaviour when he is challenged by someone with intellectual
Well done for not knocking him out!!!!
+Yis-rah-el Israelite did you have any debates in speaker corner if yes send me the link
Sa Ra, Are you still speaking to your ancestors? Hahahahahahahaha
Muhammad flying with a horse.. lol
16 mins into this mohammed taweed cliams that the GOD of the old testament says that GOD has regret insinuating how can GOD have regret when GOD dose not have a heart but by saying this he dose not realize he has just contradicted his own belief(the quran).The quran and the old testament are similar but the new testament(christiananity)has pulled away from the old barbaric beliefs.Like JESUS CHRIST said"it was said before that eye for an eye and tooth for a tooth but i say to you do not resist the one who is evil,but if anyone slaps you on the right cheeck,turn to him the other also.So being a christian is also following jesus christs commands but being a christian is also how our nature in us is.
babylonian steve New Testament has pulled away as you say ,means New Testament a lie .was Old Testament lie too,guess it's all nonsence including buy one get two free gods too .
Actually the verse about the hour he says only the father so within the trinity only the father knows
18:24
Muslims often appeal to Jeremiah 8:8 as proof that the Torah has been corrupted:
"How can you say, ‘We are wise, for we have the law of the LORD,’ when
actually the lying pen of the scribes has handled it falsely?" Jeremiah 8:8
Several comments are in order. First, even if this passage were speaking about an
actual corruption of the text, this would only be referring to the copies that were in the
possession of the scribes. It wouldn’t refer to all the copies that were in the hands
of others such as Daniel the prophet. More on this later. Secondly, Jeremiah was a prophet
of God, which means that he was receiving revelation from God. As such, Jeremiah would
have been quite capable of restoring the Torah to its true pristine form at the direct
orders of God, and hence nothing of the Torah could be corrupted! In fact, something
similar happened with Jeremiah’s own revelation:
Read Jeremiah 36: 1-7, 20-32, 27-32
If God was capable of restoring the revelation given to Jeremiah after it had been
destroyed, then the same God would also have been capable of restoring the original Torah
and have his prophets record it! There was, however, no such corruption in the first place.
In fact, God promises to write his Law into the hearts of true believers: Jeremiah 31:31-37
Again, if God is able to write his Law within the hearts of true believers in order to
keep it, and insure that his decrees that govern creation cannot be undone, wouldn’t
he also be able to preserve his written Law from corruption? In fact, if God won’t
permit his decrees which govern creation from vanishing, then what makes someone think
that God will permit his written decrees to disappear? In the words of the Lord Jesus:
"I tell you the truth, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter,
not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until
everything is accomplished." Matthew 5:18
To show that Jeremiah wasn’t claiming that the Torah of God was no longer
available in its pure pristine form, note what Jeremiah writes elsewhere:
"Say to them, ‘This is what the LORD says: If you do not
listen to me and follow MY LAW, which I have set before you, and if you do
not listen to the words of my servants the prophets, whom I have sent to you again and
again (though you have not listened) then I will make this house like Shiloh and this city
an object of cursing among all the nations of the earth.’" Jeremiah 26:4-6
How could Israel follow the Law, i.e. the Torah, if it had been corrupted? This
presupposes that the Torah was uncorrupt and available during the time of Jeremiah.
Since Jeremiah wrote Jeremiah 8:8, who is more qualified than him to tell us the precise
meaning of the passage in question? The fact that Jeremiah appeals to the Law of Moses
throughout his book demonstrates that the Prophet did not believe that the scribes had corrupted
the actual text of the Torah.
Furthermore, other godly men also had copies of the Torah in their possession.
For instance, the prophet Daniel wrote:
"In the first year of Darius son of Xerxes (a Mede by descent), who was made ruler
over the Babylonian kingdom - in the first year of his reign, I, Daniel, understood from
the Scriptures, according to the word of the LORD given to Jeremiah the prophet, that
the desolation of Jerusalem would last seventy years. So I turned to the LORD and pleaded
with him in prayer and petition, in fasting, and in sackcloth and ashes." Daniel 9:1-3
Daniel is reading Jeremiah 25:11, 12 and 29:10 where God predicts that Israel would be
taken into captivity to Babylon for 70 years. After reading this, Daniel continues to pray
and says: "Therefore the curses and sworn judgments WRITTEN IN THE LAW OF MOSES, the
servant of God, have been poured out on us, because we have sinned against you. You have
fulfilled the words spoken against us and against our rulers by bringing upon us great
disaster. Under the whole heaven nothing has ever been done like what has been done to
Jerusalem. JUST AS IT IS WRITTEN IN THE LAW OF MOSES, all this disaster has come
upon us, yet we have not sought the favor of the LORD our God by turning from our sins
and giving attention to your truth." Daniel 9:11b-13
In order for Daniel to appeal to what was written in the Law of Moses presumes that
there was an uncorrupt Torah available for reading. Furthermore, after having read
Jeremiah Daniel never concludes that the Torah had been corrupted, but appeals to it as
the inspired word of God. This would be a strange conclusion for Daniel to come to if
Jeremiah 8:8 indeed meant that the text of the Torah had been corrupted during Jeremiah's
time. Therefore, seeing that Daniel was a contemporary of Jeremiah and had an uncorrupt
copy of the Torah in his possession conclusively proves that the Torah existed in an
unadulterated form during Jeremiah's time.
Other prophets affirm that the book of Moses was still available during their day:
Read Nehemiah 8:13-14,18
This occurred approximately 430 B.C., nearly 180 years after Jeremiah's temple address,
which took place in 609 or 608 B.C. (see Jeremiah 26:1). Again, in order for Ezra the
scribe to be able to both read from the Law of Moses and expound it presupposes that
a true, uncorrupt copy of the Torah was available at that time.
The Lord Jesus and his followers quoted from the Torah as we know it today and never
assumed that it was corrupt (cf. Matthew 4:4,7,10; 22:31-32; 1 Timothy 5:18).
Even Jeremiah's enemies knew that the Law could never disappear:
Read Jeremiah 18:18
In light of the preceding factors, the only plausible contextual meaning is that the
scribes were misleading the people either through their oral traditions and/or the writing
down of erroneous interpretations of the Law. A similar situation existed in the time of
the Lord Jesus Christ: "Then some Pharisees and teachers of the law came to Jesus from Jerusalem and
asked, ‘Why do your disciples break the tradition of the elders? They don't wash
their hands before they eat!’ Jesus replied, ‘And why do you break the command
of God for the sake of your tradition? ... Thus you nullify the word of God
for the sake of your tradition. You hypocrites! Isaiah was right when he prophesied
about you: "these people honor me with their lips, but their hearts are far from me.
They worship me in vain; their teachings are but rules taught by men."’"
Matthew 15:1-3,6b-9
It is therefore quite plausible that Jeremiah was rebuking the scribes for their
traditions that led people astray from the word of God. That this is the more plausible
meaning becomes evident in light of what immediately follows: "The wise will be put to shame; they will be dismayed and trapped. Since they have rejected the word of the LORD, what kind of wisdom do they have." Jeremiah 8:9
In conclusion, we saw that a careful examination of the context in Jeremiah shows
that the verse Jeremiah 8:8 does not speak of a textual corruption by the scribes that
left us only with a corrupted Torah. The Torah always was and continued to remain accessible.
The issue was severe misinterpretations.The situation is different for the Qur'an. Serious disagreements led to a whole revision
of the Qur'an and a destruction of all evidence of what forms it had originally.
4:40
Jesus asking, "why do you call me good" doesn't equate to Him saying, "I am bad". Jesus was sinless aka GOOD. Jesus used this question to get the one asking Him that question to realize who he was talking to. This verse has been misunderstood for so long and it's so simple.
6:00
Jesus having two natures doesn't mean that He is 200% of anything. It's heretical to combine the natures of Christ together in order to add them up to 200%.
9:30
In Mark 13:32, Jesus says that no man knows the day or hour, not the angels, not even the Son, but only the
Father. The limit in the knowledge of Jesus is sometimes explained by
saying he was speaking from His humanity, and that there are many more
examples in Scripture that He was not omniscient in His humanity.
This is related to another matter, actually, that of places where
Jesus somehow seems to be ignorant of things -- leading to the
question, "How can Jesus be God, yet not know things (i.e., not be
omniscient)?" This includes cites like Luke 8:43-5 (where Jesus does not
know who in the crowd touched him).
My own ruminations in this area lead me to believe that the typical
answer -- that Jesus emptied himself of his power, while making a good
point, does not go far enough -- partly because it doesn't explain the
Holy Spirit's implicit "ignorance" in Mark 13:32. What I believe
is happening here has to get into some Trinitarian theology, and the
crossover temporality of two members of the Trinity which requires them
to divest themselves of certain abilities -- what we refer to, in terms
of Christ, as a kenotic emptying (Phil 2:6-11). Note that this
should be viewed in line with the "dual nature" (human/divine) of Christ
and NOT the "kenotic heresy" which misuses Phil. 2:6-11. In the view
being explained here, Christ's "human nature" is the kenoticized one.
The divine consciousness remains intact but is not accessed or used
under typical circumstances. To put it another way, the incarnated Jesus
is divine Wisdom with "half its brain tied behind its back." The
attributes are accessible, but not used.
The key for me lies in the verses that indicate a "subordinate"
position of Jesus to God the Father. (Like, "The Father is greater than
I.") Skeptics often ask how this equates with Jesus being "God" -- the
question misses something; we regard Jesus as "God the Son". More
literally, Jesus is the Word and Wisdom of God incarnate. (It would take
too long to explain here, but for a good start, see my article on
Wisdom linked below.)
Now if Jesus is the "Word" of God, and subordinate to God, then Jesus
is dependent upon God the Father for his existence. If the Father
ceased to exist, so would Jesus. My thought on this related to Mark
13:32//Matthew 24:36 is that Jesus does not know the day or the hour
because the Father has not yet "spoken" the word yet (in the temporal
realm, related to the human nature; this does not speak to knowledge in
the eternal realm and the divine nature) that declares the day and hour.
But Christ "emptied" himself of his divine power to come to
earth -- as would be needed, for had he not done so, even practically
speaking, it would destroy the world. So in this context, the Father has
given some signs to look for, but that is all. (By the way, I hold to a
preterist view of this passage, but it doesn't make any difference in
the context of this discussion.)"
-James Patrick Holding
15:30
How does one explain this puzzling verse?
“And it repented Jehovah that he had made man upon the earth, and it grieved him at his heart” (Gen. 6:6).
First, let us demonstrate what the passage cannot mean.It does not
mean that God created the human family, expecting that it would remain
loyal to him, but that, eventually, humanity strayed.The Lord was then
disappointed, and so regretted he had made us.That cannot be the meaning
for the following reasons.
God is omniscient; that means he knows everything.“Great is our
Lord, and mighty in power; his understanding is infinite” (Psa.
147:5).If the Lord’s understanding is infinite, he must have known,
before he created man, that he would fall.This is further evidenced by the fact that the plan of salvation was
purposed before humanity was created.Paul affirms that God “chose us in
[Christ] before the foundation of the world,” and that our redemption
was “through [Jesus’] blood” (Eph. 1:4,7; cf. 1 Pet. 1:2; Rev. 13:8).
Since the sacrifice for human sin was provisioned even before the world
was created, it necessarily follows that our Creator knew we would
transgress long before Adam and Eve were placed in Eden.
How, then, is Genesis 6:6 to be explained?
There are several figures of speech in the Bible that accommodate the human level of understanding.One is anthropomorphism
(man form), where physical features are ascribed to God, e.g., the eyes
of the Lord (1 Pet. 3:12), Jehovah’s arm (Jn. 12:38), etc.These depict
God’s watchfulness and his power.
There is another figure called anthropopathism
(man feeling), whereby human emotions are sometimes attributed to
God.To say, therefore, that God “repented,” or that he was “grieved,” is
simply a symbolic way of asserting that man’s conduct did not meet the
divine standard. This language vividly portrays, from a human
perspective, God’s displeasure at our rebellion.
Underline “repented” and “grieved,” and in your margin note: Human emotions figuratively ascribed to God." (Jackson, Wayne. "Genesis 6:6 - Did God Repent?"
OT equates to Jesus saying I am not God so dont call me good.
Michelle Mackey Actually, Jesus never says hat He isn't good. Jesus calls Himself good on numerous occasions. You're just putting words into His mouth to fit your Islamic beliefs instead of reading the text for what it says.
Angelic Doctor It really is simple but Muslims don't usually read the New Testament in its full context. They simply cherry pick verses out to misuse them to fit their narratives.
don't all religions have things in common,i read once where it claimed Muhammad was vatican trained? same as jesus,all the same they are peoples story that's where we get his-story from.
you read once? lol
12 minuets into this br mohammed claims he has 100 percent proff that the god of the quran is real and proven,the real and only god.The truth is not one person in this hole world can prove that there is a god let alone allah the god of islam.So,bottom line,which god would you rather follow,the christian faith in god(new testament) or the god of islam which is still barbaric?
babylonian steve
Your stupid god sent himself down by impregnate his 12yr old girlfriend name mary and give his stupid holy ghost to himself and name himself stupid fucking jesus aka son of stupid god. Stupid jesus begins his career by preaching to the jews that he is the only begotten son of himself. The jews capture jesus put him on trial and found guilty of blasphemy. Nailed jesus aka son of god on the cross and eye witness account confirms that jesus aka son of god yelling, me, me why am I forsaken myself? jesus aka son of god resurrected to himself and sitting beside himself leaving his followers in confusions!
P.S,i can see you are an authiest by the dirtyness that comes out of your mouth.It seems like you had a bad up bringin so i prey for your perthitic soul
ruclips.net/video/zgJ4JN8E9_c/видео.html
It's your scholars talking obout your religion and your god in this link above.
So long as JESUS CHRIST is mentioned in there belief,the both of them,then im happy.Some people say JESUS CHRIST is GOD but ive heard worse,ive heard some people say JESUS CHRIST is a profet.
Jesus take the place of human bein, when you see me you see my father.
There Should Be No Confusion About "The Hour" - The Prophet/Apostle Muhammad (ص) Didn’t Know The Hour, He Was Told That None Shall Manifest It, He Was Told That It Is With _"My Master, Who Is Rabb"_. This Information Was Revealed To The Prophet/Apostle Muhammad (ص) In The Year 618 A.D. - In The Next Year It Was Revealed To The Prophet/Apostle Muhammad (ص) That The Knowledge Of *Al Saa’ati* _‘The (Final) Hour’_ Is In The Possession Of ALLAH (س) And That The Prophet/Messiah Yashu’a (ص) Is The *‘Ilmun* _‘Knowledge’_ For *Al Saa’ati* _‘The (Final) Hour’_.
Fahiym Muhammad
.?? Jesus is Illm alsaah ??? And rab means God in this context so why are you spinning the verses around? The verses are straight forward and in the bible Jesus clearly declares that he doesn't know the hour
Soma noma he is lying, Quran says he is "a sign" of final hour, not knowledge. He is a Christian in disguise
*****
It’s Understandable If Followers Don’t Study Well, But For Those Scholars Of Arabic To Translate The Word *‘Knowledge’* (علم) To Mean *’Sign’* Is Blatant Lie. You Can Also See علم In The 19th Attribute, AL ‘ALIYMU - THE KNOWER ( العَلِيم )
Sahih International: And indeed, Jesus will be [a sign for] *KNOWLEDGE of the Hour* , so be not in doubt of it, and follow Me. This is a straight path.
Pickthall: And lo! verily there is *KNOWLEDGE of the Hour*. So doubt ye not concerning it, but follow Me. This is the right path.
Shakir: And most surely it is a *KNOWLEDGE of the hour* , therefore have no doubt about it and follow me: this is the right path.
Arberry: It is *KNOWLEDGE of the Hour*; doubt not concerning it, and follow me. This is a straight path.
*_@ Soma noma_*_ - there is no such word as God in Arabic, unless you spell it (غاد) ghaad._
Fahiym Muhammad see, now he is claiming the scholars of Arabic as liars, because they don't agree with him. You are the one who follows a lair, the founder of Christianity, the devil incarnate.
*****
I Showed You How They Lie With Your Own Eyes, Because Not A Single Word In That _ayat_ , Can You Find The Word _‘sign’_ (ayatan-a sign , ayatihi-his signs , ayatina-our sign).
Mo Why you talking rabish with no point? ?
Jesus raise the dead, because he's body a human bein his spirit God.
Brain washed ...
Muhammad flying with a horse.. lol