How to find Cumulative Distribution Function from Probability Density Function PDF to CDF

[@ahlamahmed6036]

When you finally wrote the result for Fx(x), the last one when x>1, it should be 1 not 0.
Thanks for your clear explanation.

[@anjanadamodaran]

Yes

[@gool7947]

Exactly. Because cdf value limits from 0 to 1 .

[@shaveenh.husien]

Can you explain Why?

[@mcchikin2751]

@@shaveenh.husien no

[@GRAVENAP]

@@mcchikin2751 Based

[@tim-duncan2137]

good explanation

[@m.j.8527]

F(x) equals 1 for x>1

[@nelsonhallwhitington405]

you are a legend!!!!

[@AJ-et3vf]

great video sir. Thank you.

[@giriprasadp1726]

iF X has moment generating function m(t)=0.6e^t+0.4 find value of P X≤3

[@VivoV-ub8ku]

Which pen is this?

[@sheelawate8194]

Trimax

[@kashishchopra7708]

Thank u sir

[@dalalbinmahfouz5022]

F(x)={((1-(1+x) e^(-x) for x>0)) how to find the probability distribution of X ??

[@shivakantdwivedi-rq3sg]

hello sir,
I need online tuition on Probability. Could you please provide?

[@kamelakriche6506]

F(x) = 1 (not 0) for x >1 ......F(x) limits from 0 to 1.

[@madhavienugula2423]

Please explain why less than zero is zero

[@learncseasily3385]

Because function is not given for x

[@ekaterinafeldman5394]

Great video

[@kasunsilva1789]

Sir can you please teach me how to solve this: Define the cumulative distribution function F(t) of t by F(t) = P(W ≤ t). Shade the region consisting of each point (x, y) in which x ≥ 0, and F(X) ≤ y ≤ 1.
Compute the area of the shaded region.

[@passiveincome1013]

Thx sir

[@ClearShotBall]

F(x)>0 should be 1

[@anilkumarsharma8901]

stock market probability for sure become possible or not 😁😁😁😁😁😁😁😁

[@alaminshawon5098]

F(x)>0 should be 1

[@rajat1548]

Wrong answer and concept.

[@Mudas3r]

What's the right concept then?