This lecture was eye opening. As a native Hindi speaker and an English speaker from a young age I realised that I can differentiate ph and p and kh and k in Hindi words but not in English words. Before this lecture phat and pat sounded the same😮
Thank you for a great video. It strikes me that allophones are distributed differently within different accents: South African English predominantly using the unaspirated version of /p/ everywhere and Scottish English accents preferring the “dark L”. Strangely, among Hindi speakers, who can use both sounds, [p] and [ph] when speaking Hindi, tend to use only [p] in Indian English speech. Furthermore, Hindi speakers, when transliterating English, invariably employ the unaspirated [p], even though the two sounds can be represented in Devanagari script. Same for [k] over [kh], etc. Why would that be? Another strange phenomenon is that the retroflex /t/ and /d/ are used when representing those English consonants in Hindi, but the dental/alveolar equivalents when representing the Spanish sounds! It makes sense if you want to learn Spanish through Hindi of course, but why not extend that to aspirated stops when representing English allophones?
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This lecture was eye opening. As a native Hindi speaker and an English speaker from a young age I realised that I can differentiate ph and p and kh and k in Hindi words but not in English words. Before this lecture phat and pat sounded the same😮
i wish i had found this video sooner. for my phonetics and transcription classes this would have been very helpful.
A bunch of thanks for your explanation especially how to distinguish the nasal sounds.
Awesome explanations! Thanks!
great lecture
Great lecture. Thank you.
Nicely described 👍
I slept so well after this thank you
Thanks a lot.
Hello. 1st, I would like to appreciate the amazing work. Is PHONE the same as ALLOPHONE ?
Thank you so much sir you really helped me out with this😢
Thank you for a great video.
It strikes me that allophones are distributed differently within different accents: South African English predominantly using the unaspirated version of /p/ everywhere and Scottish English accents preferring the “dark L”. Strangely, among Hindi speakers, who can use both sounds, [p] and [ph] when speaking Hindi, tend to use only [p] in Indian English speech.
Furthermore, Hindi speakers, when transliterating English, invariably employ the unaspirated [p], even though the two sounds can be represented in Devanagari script. Same for [k] over [kh], etc. Why would that be?
Another strange phenomenon is that the retroflex /t/ and /d/ are used when representing those English consonants in Hindi, but the dental/alveolar equivalents when representing the Spanish sounds! It makes sense if you want to learn Spanish through Hindi of course, but why not extend that to aspirated stops when representing English allophones?
Hello. is the sound /æ/ changed to /eɪ/ before /ŋ/. as in bank /bæŋk/ or thanks /θæŋks/
I'm not sure why but i interperate /p/ as a 'b' when said alone but in /sp/ it's a 'p'