for the "The sheep left its keys in the tower" example at the beginning, Romanian forbids the use of the definite form of nouns in indirect object position, so for "the tower" («...în turnul») if the noun is not further determined (e.g. "in the wizard's tower" => «în turnul vrăjitorului») it is forced to surface as an indefinite noun («... cheile ... în turn»), and in addition to that this kind of sentence with an agent doing something to/with a direct object that belongs to them or to someone/something else ("the sheep's keys" here) promotes the possessive (">>her
@@watchyourlanguage3870It would be nice to have a video on Indo Aryan although I think that is not really up your alley. Still if possible I would like it as there isn't enough good content for Indo Aryan languages online.
The "-mente" construction for adverbs is actually a retention of the ablative case, not the accusative. In Latin, the ablative could be used for instrumental constructions, so by declining an adjective + mēns in the ablative case, one could express the idea of doing something with a certain mind, spirit or intention. So "pacificā mente veniēmus" - in the ablative, meaning "we have come with a peaceful spirit" - becomes "pacificamente viemos" in portuguese, for example, meaning "we have come in peace/peacefully". This type of ablative construction is attested from later Latin.
In Romanian the sentence at 3:04 is very unnatural and also grammatically wrong. It should be "Capra si-a lasat cheile in turn" or "Capra a lasat cheile sale in turn".
14:40 There is also T-V distiction in european portuguese. Informally, "Tu" is used instead of the Brazilian "Você", which has a formal conotation in european portuguese. Also, the use of "Vós" in Portugal is still present with the elders, the church and everyone knows how to conjugate the verbs for this pronoun in Portugal
In Rio de Janeiro people use "Tu" with the "você" conjugation in very informal situations. Sometimes it can even be used to show strong disrespect for the person you're talking to
I thought the most accepted view was that the plural in italian was in fact descended from the accusative, but their sound shift of word-final /s/ deletion left a trace by raising/fronting the previous vowel so that /a:s/ > /aj/ > /e/ and /o:s/ > /oj/ > /i/. This makes much more sense as the same phenomenon is noticeable in the second person singular conjugations where /i/ stands where Latin undoubtably had a vowel proceeded by /s/, and also in the pronouns and other monossylables, where stress kept /j/ from assimilating into the vowels, resulting in "voi" and "noi" from "vōs" and "nōs" as well as "suoi" and "tuoi" from "suōs" and "tuōs". And the same can be said of Romanian and the other Eastern Romance languages as well.
In the feminine this is correct but not in the masculine. The main evidence of this is that pluralizing feminine nouns does not cause palatalization (amica>amiche) implying it descends from the from ending in as. However, there is no other examples of os>i in Italian (note 1pl ending -mos>mo, rather than mi) and masculine nouns do have palatalization in the plural (amico>amici). TLDR: most Italian forms descend from the Latin accusative, with the sole exception of the masculine plural.
@@lawofseven1465 everything that’s happening here is due to a series of sound shifts. The first one was word final s>j. After that Italian had ej>i and aj>e in unstressed syllables, and j was lost after u and o in unstressed syllables. However word final j is still kept to modern Italian (spelled is i). This is also why the word for 6 in Italian is sei (siks>seks>ses>sei) and totally unrelated to the i in western romance (siks>seks>sehs>seis).
Excited for this video! Not too far in but fyi the Romanian translations are quite clumsy. Instead of "Capra le a lăsat în turnul", which is almost non-gramatical, we'd say "Capra le-a lăsat în turn", combining the pronoun with the auxiliary verb and without a definite article. Using the definite article for a location feels very very weird in Romanian.
I thought that the Eastern Romance languages didn't actually keep the Nominative form, but the Accusative form, and had a sound change where final /s/ becomes /j/ which coalesces into a more raised/fronted version of the original vowel. Italian does this in some of its verb forms (2nd person singular for example). There are two main pieces of evidence for this: Latin 3rd declension nominative singulars had irregular forms compared to the stem for the rest of the paradigm. None (or little to none) of these irregular forms survive in Modern Romance. Final original -i has palatalising effects on Latin C/G, which (besides a couple irregularities in Latin) do not show in modern Italian. Some languages also have vowel affection umlaut from final -i, but not from final -i that comes from Latin -es. (I know far more about Italian than Romanian though, so I may be wrong).
This is indeed how it happened, final -as in Classical Latin became -aj in pre-Italian, whence it developed into -e /ɛ/ in plural nouns, and this explains why nouns ending in -ca don't get palatalized in the plural and become -che (vacca => vacche, not *vacce, compare cielo < caelum) And with -os plurals, -os > -oj > -i, oj would normally have developed into /e/, but since it was often before stressed syllables, it raised to /i/ in final position (compare the raising of re- to ri- and en- to in-, as well as eo > io and deo > Dio) An interesting case is "amico", where the plural did come from the nominative and gave amici, not *amichi, yet the feminine plural was modeled after the more dominant accusative pattern to become amica => amiche, not *amice Knowing that Latin diphthongs ae and oe already began to merge into /ɛ/ and /e/ in Classical Latin, we can safely assume that /aj/ and /oj/ underwent a similar fate, while still retaining their backness for long enough to not palatalize the consonants before them
I love how this video is like "the Romance languages lost this feature, but Romanian is special and has something more complex, and often more preserved". Second closest is Catalan, then French.
A couple of notes for Italian: - You say that all Romance languages did away with the future perfect, but (unless I've misunderstood something) that corresponds to the Futuro anteriore (La capra avrà lasciato le chiavi nella torre) - The present perfect tense (and all compound tenses for that matter) don't just use "have" but may also use "be" as the auxiliary verb depending on the succeeding verb and the meaning. - 20:31 You put the Italian flag in the corner but Italian doesn't have a "going to..." future structure like English or Spanish do. Feel free to correct me if I got anything wrong.
I agree! For point one, I think he just means the original conjugation dropped and got replaced by the “have” form, similarly to the simple future but in reverse
3:48 Romanian adjectives CAN go in front of the noun, but only for emphasis, but it sounds weird if you do it often, since it sounds like you're trying to make poetry.
If I remember correctly Old French had a nominative (cas sujet) and an oblique case (cas régime, derived from the accusative) in nouns. Most often only the oblique case is preserved, with a couple of exceptions like French soeur (< old French suer < Latin sōror, instead of Old French seror < Latin sorōrem), in this case maybe because of vocative usage. (also fun: copain < Old French cas. suj. compain, compaing < Latin companio, French and Old French cas. reg. compagnon < Latin companionem, 'person with whom you have bread', a Germanic loan translation)
20:37 Every future in Romanian(except the one that shouldn't be used for writing) uses the verb "a vrea" which means to want, not present tense for "go" + infinitive verb(which is half correct cause we use it for the standard future but for future in the past (viitor anterior) we use the participle of the verb. E.g I will eat=Voi mânca. I will have eaten=Voi fi mâncat. Also î is pronounced a bit wonky but other than that and all the other things the other guys said like the thing with "turnul" cause we don't do that when we don't have an adjective/noun in genitive case after it the video is great! Keep it up!
Sicilian also adds the "otros" at the end of the first and second persons, but doesn't distinguish between feminine and masculine because it's lost the gendered plurals (it's all one big gender) we have: Nuatri/Nautri/Nuiautri/Nuantri Vuatri/Vautri/Vuiautri/Vuantri Depending on dialect. Let me know if you have other questions as sicilian is afterall still one of the most spoken romance languages Ed. There's also much to say about sicilian verbs: sicilian uses the preterite, just like the iberian languages, and it doesn't compound aviri to make a new verbal forms (so there's already half the forms of normal romance languages), sicilian then proceded to: Merge subjunctive present with indicative present, leaving the subjunctive past as the only subjunctive, and erase the conditional leaving only the subjunctive in hypotetical phrases. "If I were 50, I'd be old" is formed in other romance languages using Subjunctive+Conditional, italian "Se avessi 50 anni, sarei vecchio", but in sicilian there's no distinction, so you use either the subjunctive both times (if it needs both versions to be past) or subjunctive+present indicative (that supplanted present subjunctive) rendering it "S'avissi 50 anni, fussi vecchiu". Another innovation is the loss of a future indicative, which means that the future is rendered using "go+a+infinitive" "Vaiu a mangiari" or "to have+a+infinitive" "Aiu a mangiari" but this is also indicates a sense of obligation "I got to eat". Some sicilian dialects still retain the plusquamperfecto but it just serves as a subjunctive to form hypotheticals. Sicilian also distinguishes between "fortis" (before the noun) and "lenis" (after the noun) possessives, so that (depends on dialect) "my thing" can be said as: Lu ma cosu/Lu cosu mia. Note that possessives are not gendered, "La ma casa/Lu ma cosu.
Good point, however, I disagree over the gendered plurals, desping "i" being the most used plural ending, we also have -a and -ura as neuter plural forms.l
@esti-od1mz yeah, I forgot about them. For context (to readers) unlike other romance languages which put masculine endings on most neuter words in latin, sicilian rather kept them intact, so we have for example "Reedbed" Cannētum/Cannēta in latin, becoming Canneto/Canneti in italian but Cannitu/Cannita in sicilian. The plural article is still ungendered though, in fact, it's just one, "li" unlike italian "i, gli, le" or spanish "los, las".
As a Romanian native speaker, I feel the need to add some remarks: - You got the goat-tower sentence pretty wrong. It should have been "Capra și-a uitat cheile în turn"; - The SVO word order is preferred, but sometimes the order can differ in casual, informal discussions and especially in poetry. The same thing can be said about the adjectives going before nouns. - I always thought that the masculine romanian vocative is similar to the Latin one, especially when used on names - The future in Romanian is not formed with the verb "to go", I think it was formed with "to want" - "-mente" was actually adopted in Romanian sometimes in the 19th century to a lesser extent. That's why you can find in Romanian words like: actualmente, totalmente, finalmente, completamente, realmente, absolutamente, socialmente etc
For anyone who's wondering how the Latin noun declensions map out onto other Indo-European declensions, here's that: (PI - Proto-Italic, PS - Proto-Slavic, PG - Proto-Germanic, followed by the nominative singular forms in brackets, also sorry if it looks unreadable on mobile) I declension: PI ā-stem (-ā), PS a-stem (-a), PG ō-stem (-ō) II declension: PI o-stem (m. -os, n. -om), PS o-stem (m. -ŭ, n. -o), PG a-stem (m. -az, n. -ą) III declension (-is): PI i-stem (-is), PS i-stem (-ĭ), PG i-stem (-iz) III declension (-s): PI consonant stem (-s), PS i-stem (-ĭ), PG consonant stem (-s/-z) III declension (-us): PI consonant stem (-os), PS s-stem (-o), PG z-stem (-az) IV declension: PI u-stem (-us), PS u-stem (-ŭ), PG u-stem (-uz)
This is so damn convenient, i just started work yesterday on a conlang about my own romance language, this along with your summarizing romance sound shifts video are going to be great for that! 👍👍
Capra și-a lasat cheile in turn* Romanian doesn't use articles with preposition, in turn, pe mare, la plajă, etc,or rather it doesn't so long you don't ,,add" something to the word, for exemple adjectives(în turnul vechi,în turnul înalt, în turnul negru) and with demonstratives, though if the demonstrative comes before the word, it still remains indefinite, exemple: în turnul acela/în acel turn. Also, about the accusative/nominative thing, I'm a romanian native speaker, and when I started learning german, I was unaccostumed to a nominative/accusative distinction, and also the existence of three genders, and as such, I defaulted to using the masculine accusative for both masculine and neuter nouns, which I find interesting since that's what also happened in latin, the neuter nominative and the masculine accusative merged
Sometimes in Romanian, the adjective can go before the noun, when you want to place emphasis on the adjective. Example: "o fată frumoasă" (a beautiful girl) can become "frumoasa fată " (and let me quote the Poet here "o prea frumoasă fată "😉).
Pardon me if you know this already, but I think you might be missing something important about the perfect vs. imperfect distinction: It's about whether the verb's action has _finished._ 😻
About Sardinian Language The structure of a sentence in Sardinian is generally SVO, but with focus fronting, it can become SOV (even the auxiliary can appear after the past participle) in enunciative or interrogative sentences, or OSV in passive ones (though this is a recessive trait). Here is the translation of the given examples: Sa craba is craes suas in sa turre lassadu at. Sa craba in sa turre lassadas l'at. Adjectives generally follow the noun, except for those expressing esteem (good, great, etc.) Sardinian has two genders (masculine and feminine), with no neuter. Most nouns derive from the accusative case, except for a few that come from the nominative case: Corpus (body) Tempus (time) Petus (chest) Pecus (cattle) Deus (God) Gesus (Jesus) The plural is always sigmatic, but with sandhi, or a paragogic vowel before a pause. The object pronoun derives from the illum case, while articles come from the ipsum case, as follows: su (masculine singular) sa (feminine singular) sos and sas (plural counterparts in northern varieties) is (plural article for both genders in the south). From the ipsorum case comes the possessive "issoru" (their). Note: if the possession belongs to someone else, it is described as "alien," as in Spanish. The partitive article uses the plural indefinite article but is slightly different from other Western Romance languages: it is "unus/as cantu(s)" (translatable as "some quantity/ies"). Personal pronouns aren't dissimilar from the other Romance languages. The most conservative dialect still uses latin "ego" (with dialectal variations such as dego, deo, jeo, deu, eu,...), but the third person singular and plural forms again derive from the ipsum case: issu, issa, issus, issas (he, she, they). The first-person plural, from "nos" becomes "nois" in the north and "nosu" in the south, with the exclusive form being indicated by adding "others" (nosàteros/as). The same applies to the second-person plural: bois and bosu (from "vos"). In the south, bosu is used for politeness in the T-V distinction, while adding "others" gives the standard second-person plural (bosàterus/as). In the north, the same polite form is "bos" which, like bosu, is reserved for strangers (a non-honorific form). Borrowed from Catalan, there is the honorific third-person singular form "bostè" or "fustei" (with the mentioned north-south distinction). Another more honorific, though recessive, form is "sa mertzè" (Your Grace). Verbs belong to three conjugations (-are, -ere, -ire) in the north and two in the south (-ai and -i-ri, with the last syllable of the present participle being syncopated in proparoxytone pronunciation) Verbs are generally regular, except for the usual verb "to be." The preterite tense is in disuse, especially in the south, where a compound tense is preferred to express a perfect tense, but it endures in the north. The future tense in the indicative mood has an analytic construction using the auxiliary "to have" in the present tense. The conditional mood is also analytic, using a past tense ("to have" in the south, "to have to" in the north). The present progressive uses "to be" and not "to stay", this verb is rarely used in Sardinian, especially in the south. In the south, "to finish to" (amegai) is also used as a periphrastic form, particularly to indicate an imminent or recently completed action (as for Spanish acabar) Intransitive verbs, as in Italian, require the auxiliary verb "to be." Sardinian is a pro-drop language, even in the subjunctive mood, unlike Italian.
3:51 Look at "Vermont" for exemple, comming from french "vert mont" (green hill), but usually the word order should be "mont vert". So, what's going on in this case? Speaking for the romance languages that I know, portuguese; spanish and french, the changing from "noun then adjective" to "adjective then noun" can *also* be something situacional. Sometimes making this change makes your phrase sound more elegant and poetic
Important correction about Portuguese pluperfect. At least in Brazil it is considered archaic and isn't used except for literary language and even then it's falling out of favor. We use imperfect "haver/ter" + past participle
You have no idea how entertaining I find this video. Seeing the acc/nom latin demonstrative pronouns become the romance pronouns deeply satisfies me. thank you sir
Strong video. Two comments. One, although sound changes may have contributed to French’s non-pro-dropness, there is also an intriguing possibility that the Frankish superstratum contributed. Two, some of you plosives are too loud, especially on headphones. You can fix this with microphone technique (my preference) or by using a pop filter or foam mic cover. I made a video about this and other audio-quality subjects.
Aragonese: year : anyo "La craba deixó las suyas claus en a torre" (the goat left her keys in the tower) night: nueit Aragonese plurals are just adding -s, sometimes -es. Man (hand) -> Mans (hands) Peix (fish) -> Peixes (fish, plural) However, if the last letter of the word is -t (which is usually silent) the plural is made with -z /θ/ Piet (foot) -> Piez (feet) Part (part) -> Parz (parts) Definite articles in Aragonese: Lo, La, Los/Es, Las which can lose the initial L depending on what comes before them. Indifenite articles: un, una, uns, unas. We (nosotros, nosaltres): nusatros/as You pl. (vosotros, vosaltres): vusatros/as You formal (usted, vostè): vusté Other subject pronouns: el, ella, els, ellas Better: millor Mind: ment (grieument, talment, totalment...) Conjugation (I'll compare to Spanish) with 1st pers. singular and 2nd pers. plural. Verb redir meaning to laugh: Present: Rido/Río Rediz/Reís Imperfect: Rediba/Reía Redibaz/Reíais Past: Ridié/Reí Ridiez/Reísteis FUTURE: Redir/reír + he: rediré/reiré Redir/reír+ hez/habéis: redirez/reiréis CONDITIONAL: Redir/reír + heba/había: redirba/reiría Redir/reír: hebaz/habíais: redirbaz/reiríais Aragonese unlike Catalan or Spanish doesn't have 2 verbs meaning "to be", Arag. vs Spanish: You're doing: Yes fendo / Estás haciendo You're a woman: Yes una muller / Eres una mujer. The verb in infinitive form is "estar" but it uses conjugations from other latin verbs just like french. Like in present simple (soi, soz, son...), imperfect past (yera, yeras, yeranos...) or even subjunctive (siga, sigas, sigaz...). It has a different root for past (fue, fues, fuez, fuemos...)
Fun fact since you used the balearic flag for catalan: In balearic catalan, the articles are actually es sa es ses, which come from ipse just as sardinian, although they coexist with the other articles which are used for (more or less) important things
I'd imagine the reason the Latin perfect is called that instead of preterite is because that's what the ancient grammarians called it. In Latin "perfectus" just meant "finished." It may have something to do with the Greek perfect which was closer to the modern linguistic definition of the term and which is partially cognate with the Latin. Or perhaps it was just a matter of "perfectus" being contrasted with "imperfectus." I'm just speculating.
Video's pretty good but as a native speaker of the langauge, I have to say that the Romanian you use can be pretty sloppy at times. If you ever do something with it again, I'd be totally down to proofread your stuff!
Small correction at 16:53. The adverbial ending does not derive from the accusative but from the ablative. This was an ablative of instrument or ablative of manner, which has a very natural adverbial meaning. Even in English, “with rapid speed” intuitively should means “speedily”. That said, I am well aware the ablative and accusative became identical in pronunciation but this construction appears in documents which clearly mark final -m. We see the construction “altera mente” in a legal document and “sola mente” in the Vulgate by the 8th century but we know people wrote “ide” for “idem” by the 4th century thanks to the Appendix Probi. Therefore speakers knew it was an ablative “mente” and not accusative “mentem” even as the cases blurred
Aaamm short correction about romanian, on adjectice placement where you`re saying that all adjectives go after the noun it`s not entirely true......adjective can also be positioned before or after the noun it`s just the sentences will change a little bit depending how you say it, but in some instances where you put the adjective in front of the noun the rest of sentence will remain unchanged...and also with the grammatical cases I`m not sure about the slavic borrowing, the way the case system is formed in romanian is the same as how the definite article is form....it take place inside the word marges with it, called enclitic, wich this could be something native to the balkans, because it happens also in albanian and greek language, bulgarian being the only slavic language that does this, wich lead some of the linguists to theorise that when the roman colonists came in the region and interacted with the locals, they adopted this feature, like I said the thing with ,,slavic influence,, is inflated a bit too much to almost stupidity....like I said the bulgarian launguage is the only slavic language that does this
very specific add on, since you saw fit to add the balearic flag to represent catalan: just as in sardinian, the definite articles in the balearic dialect also descend from ipse!! as such, you get es, sa, s', sos and ses as the definitive article. you also get llur as a very formal third person possessive, but i haven't seen it used outside of either academic texts or just straight up historical medieval texts like les quatre grans cròniques
10:06 I see that in the Mallorcan dialect of Catalan, the definite articles are quite similar to Sardinian. Standard Catalan definite articles are: *el* (masc. sing.), *la* (fem. sing.), *l'* (masc. or fem. sing., if following noun starts with a vowel), *els* (masc. pl.), *les* (fem.pl.). Mallorcan definite articles are: *so* (masc. sing.), *sa* (fem. sing.), *s'* (masc. or fem. sing., if following noun starts with a vowel), *sos* (masc. pl.), *ses* (fem.pl.). (Some exceptions exist.)
Italian has a nominative/vocative distinction. When discussing someone you normally but an article in front of their name, but if you are calling out to them (vocative) then you drop the article.
So, Portuguese is the only language with either pluperfect tense or future subjunctive? Well I guess I must fight anglicization of the language all the harder.
The present active infinitive in Latin could sometimes be used as a nominative gerund, so I wonder if the thing with -re in Romanian has anything to do with that
16:02 -- There are three superlative suffixes in Latin. -issimus/um/a for most 1st and 2nd declensions, -errimus/a/um for 1st and 2nd declinations with a -er stem, and -illimus for 3rd declension. These suffixes still survive, at least in Portuguese. Nobre/nobilíssimo (noble), Fácil/facílimo (easy), pobre/paupérrimo (poor).
21:55 Catalan and Aragonesd also do this in some cases (they have the pas, mica, gota, brenca...). Occitan does the same as French or even just drop the "no" part
Actually in Spanish the Latin pluperfect survived! Only, it changed its function to be one of the two possible forms of the imperfect subjunctive (the other form evolved from the latin perfect subjunctive), such as "amara" (o amase)
You forgot "ello" and "- ilo" for Spanish and Portuguese. One of the rare instances it can me neuter. For example, "aquel, aquella, aquello" and "aquele, aquela, aquilo"
4:00 There are at least 2 adjectives that as far as I know cannot go after the noun, "biet" (poor dog) and "ditai/ditamai" (huge) "biet câine" and not "câine biet" "ditamai câinele" (ditamai also has the quirk of making the noun it modifies definite due to etymology)
Catalan from the Balearic islands and some costal towns in Catalonia also use articles that come from IPSE instead of ILLE. I think it would've been nice to note that since the Catalan flag you use represents those dialects 😅
One thing that’s infuriating is how in Portuguese the personal infinitive and the future subjunctive actually use two different stems. Most of the time the stem of the verb doesn’t change but for some verbs it does. So take ‘fazer’ the infinitive is of course ‘fazer’ but the future subjunctive is ‘fizer’ using the same stem as the preterit. So you have to be careful not to think of these two tenses as the same
As a native speaker, I have no trouble understanding him, but I concede that he speaks rapider than average. I enjoy the on-screen mots, sometimes pausing the video to more closely examine, for example, tables of conjugations.
I agree! If the words are necessary, they must be left with enough time to be read and digested. The same with every sentence uttered. Make short pauses and slow down!
IN Romanian the adjective before the noun changes the affectional meaning. In the case like this: Săracul Ion vs Ion cel sărac have different meanings.
I think using classical Latin at first to show the general tendencies is important, but obviously to get into the logic of the actual evolution that happened, Late Latin would be better.
To be fair though his take is on them is kinda off. He uses mostly velar sounds but, as a brazilian native speaker, they tend to be either uvular or an aspirate /h/. As far as I'm aware, portuguese from portugal is the same, but given he uses the brazilian flag I suppose his attempt was to capture brazilian pronunciation.
18:44 Si no estoy mal has dicho que eres hablante nativo de español, y yo como otro hablante nativo de español te digo que nunca he escuchado a a alguien usar el verbo "prender" para "atrapar", sino como sinónimo de encender, no se si sea algo de tu dialecto o no sé. Igual el vídeo estuvo increíble y muy completo.
No soy hablante nativo, sólo tengo mucha experiencia con el idioma. No creo que he dicho "prender" ninguna vez en mi vida en español, tenía que buscar la palabra para encontrar una traducción. Quizás es una diferencia dialectal
3:04 “Capra a lasat cheile ei in turnul “ is wrong The correct-ish one would be “Capra a lasat cheile ei in turn” - no article when the noun is preceeded by a preposition and not followed by an adjective or clause The gramatically correct one would be “Capra și-a lasat cheile in turn” or “Și-a lasat capra cheile in turn” Both using the dative/genitive possesive on the verb ( which is obligatory when the direct object is posessed ) and omitting it (optionally) on the noun “cheile” to avoid redundancy Also in the second one the verb is first ( word order is flexible in romanian, and quite usually in speech in subordinate sentences comes first )
the red and yellow flag is present on all catalan speaking regions because of the crown of aragon they belonged to. It's also present in Aragón, Provenza and other plaaces. The empty senyera is a symbol of all the places that belonged to this crown, not only Catalonia, but Catalonia chose it as it's flag with no additions becuase they were the first territory out of all the crown of Aragon members to become an autonomous community. It's not like Catalonia owned any of the other places around it or something, just clearing this up
"I'll just use the Balearic Islands' flag for this video" Ah, yes. You can't please everybody, but you sure can piss everybody the same. The old reliable. (I am not mad at all I just found it funny how you reached that conclusion LMAO) ((Also you're probably pissing off the Balearians because a good bunch of them will die swearing they don't speak Catalan but Balearic, pretty much like a sizable amount of Valencians. We bunch at els països catalans sure are weird lmao 💀💀greetings from Barcelona))
A couple of notes on Italian that somebody could find interesting. In Italian the position of adjectives can give a different nuance in some cases. The most common example is "buon uomo" ("good man", as in an honest and law-abiding man, but nothing particularly good with respect to other people) and "uomo buono" ("man good", ethically better than others), which are used in different contexts and are not interchangeable. In other cases the adjective can come before the noun to emphasise the adjective or for other more or less poetic purposes (so as to make prose sound more formal and poetic, where the position can also give some nuances) Regarding the pronouns, it could be interesting to note that the function of "is, ea, id" in Latin has been assumed by "esso, essa" (something/someone aleady known), coming from "ipse" & co., but they're not much used anymore, I guess. In addition, the plural 2nd person is also a polite form still in use to an extent (in the South mostly, I've been told), and is perceived as respectful as "lei" but without the willingly cold disattachment "lei" might sometimes convey. It could be due to Spanish influence, though.
There is no reason to think that the Vocative in Romanian is borrowed from Slavic, except for the -o ending for feminine nouns (also thisnk of the substratum), which is compettion with the -ă/-e ending: Mario / Marie , Ileană/Ileană. We know that the transformation of Latin into proto-Romanian was finished by the time the Slavs migrated into Roman/ian area North and South of Danube. Maybe it could suggested that the Slavic enriched or maube supported the use of Vocative in Romanian. Also notice, that some Slavic languages, like Slovak, do not have vocative.
I'm still trying to find the answer of why all those languages developed definite articles in their own. Why the sudden need to talk about definitiveness?
14:49 if I understand correctly you’re implying that vos is less formal than vostè in Catalan (which is certainly not the case, you would only use vos in literary or historical contexts, while vostè is the usual respectful form, just like usted in Spanish). If anything that would be the case with some American varieties of Spanish (Argentinian), that use voseo
12:40 don't know about france but here in canada to add emphasis we can add autres at the end of vous and nous. i speak spanish and i never made the connection until now.
i wonder is the modern Italian passato remoto tense (andare -> andai) and the french passe' simple tense derive from the perfect tense in latin? I don't know how else they would have contrived it
3:15 I was about to correct you to say that it should be "la chèvre les a laissé" not "la chèvre les a laissées", but then I double checked and apparently a participe passé after avoir does agree with a noun, but only when it's a direct object pronoun?? I didn't think French verbs ever agreed with their objects, how confusing. I wonder how that happened!
basically scolars maked up this bullshit 2 rules : to be "être" : always agree to have "avoir" : agree ONLY IF THE PAST PARTICIPEL IS PLACE BEFORE But aniway, it's not even prononce
Lol, the Latin in the end was pretty butchered, but by far most sentences were intelligible, especially for someone who knows modern European languages.
I thought that Romanian didn't retain a case system from Latin in nouns, except in the masculine vocative. I've always heard it explained as the suffixation of pronouns (or something like that, i don't remember). but i don't know i don't know that much about romanian
Yeah, when I learned Romanian many years back I was kinda "disappointed" to see that the case system on the surface at least looked like nothing more than pronouns being attached to the nouns.
Also romanian has 5 cases, but the N/Acc and G/D are identical in nouns. We do learn them as different cases in school, and in pronouns they are very different
Hey, as a Valencian: don't you know of the concept of pancatalanism? "Països Catalans"? The estelada is a pancatalanist symbol too, it's common in nationalist manifestations in the País Valencià. I mean, it's more complicated than that, but it would be wrong to call it just a symbol of Catalonia. I would consider it the best option as a flag for the whole language, better than the plain senyera, even if the plain senyera is in fact the flag of some valencian towns like Ontinyent and prefered by some valencian people to the official Comunitat Valenciana València-centric blue-striped flag
I didn't comment it on last video but as a Valencian speaker the claim that "Catalan reduced final [a] to [ə]" feels very wrong. I am totally sincere when I tell you I was disoriented for a moment, not understanding what you where talking about. And the same happened even this second time
for the "The sheep left its keys in the tower" example at the beginning, Romanian forbids the use of the definite form of nouns in indirect object position, so for "the tower" («...în turnul») if the noun is not further determined (e.g. "in the wizard's tower" => «în turnul vrăjitorului») it is forced to surface as an indefinite noun («... cheile ... în turn»), and in addition to that this kind of sentence with an agent doing something to/with a direct object that belongs to them or to someone/something else ("the sheep's keys" here) promotes the possessive (">>her
Yeah, I stopped watching after noticing that flagrant mistake. Unreliable information = bad channel.
Are you ever going to do a similar video for the Slavic languages? It would be nice to complete the 3 big families of Europe
@@aline_04 Yes
@@watchyourlanguage3870 So excited!!!
@@watchyourlanguage3870It would be nice to have a video on Indo Aryan although I think that is not really up your alley. Still if possible I would like it as there isn't enough good content for Indo Aryan languages online.
@@leonhardeuler7647 I think separating Iranic and Indic would be more practical
@@leonhardeuler7647 what about iranian languages😢
The "-mente" construction for adverbs is actually a retention of the ablative case, not the accusative. In Latin, the ablative could be used for instrumental constructions, so by declining an adjective + mēns in the ablative case, one could express the idea of doing something with a certain mind, spirit or intention. So "pacificā mente veniēmus" - in the ablative, meaning "we have come with a peaceful spirit" - becomes "pacificamente viemos" in portuguese, for example, meaning "we have come in peace/peacefully". This type of ablative construction is attested from later Latin.
Fun fact: Old French had _estre_ (< VL _*essere_ < L _esse_ ) and _ester_ (< VL _*estare_ < L _stare_ ), which fell together pretty early on.
He talks about this by the end of video
In Romanian the sentence at 3:04 is very unnatural and also grammatically wrong. It should be "Capra si-a lasat cheile in turn" or "Capra a lasat cheile sale in turn".
14:40 There is also T-V distiction in european portuguese. Informally, "Tu" is used instead of the Brazilian "Você", which has a formal conotation in european portuguese. Also, the use of "Vós" in Portugal is still present with the elders, the church and everyone knows how to conjugate the verbs for this pronoun in Portugal
This tu-você distinction also exists in Brazil, but only in some regions
In Rio de Janeiro people use "Tu" with the "você" conjugation in very informal situations. Sometimes it can even be used to show strong disrespect for the person you're talking to
Tu with Você conjugation is the primary form in Rio Grande do Sul, if you wanted to be properly formal here you'd just use the correct conjugation.
I thought the most accepted view was that the plural in italian was in fact descended from the accusative, but their sound shift of word-final /s/ deletion left a trace by raising/fronting the previous vowel so that /a:s/ > /aj/ > /e/ and /o:s/ > /oj/ > /i/. This makes much more sense as the same phenomenon is noticeable in the second person singular conjugations where /i/ stands where Latin undoubtably had a vowel proceeded by /s/, and also in the pronouns and other monossylables, where stress kept /j/ from assimilating into the vowels, resulting in "voi" and "noi" from "vōs" and "nōs" as well as "suoi" and "tuoi" from "suōs" and "tuōs". And the same can be said of Romanian and the other Eastern Romance languages as well.
In the feminine this is correct but not in the masculine. The main evidence of this is that pluralizing feminine nouns does not cause palatalization (amica>amiche) implying it descends from the from ending in as. However, there is no other examples of os>i in Italian (note 1pl ending -mos>mo, rather than mi) and masculine nouns do have palatalization in the plural (amico>amici).
TLDR: most Italian forms descend from the Latin accusative, with the sole exception of the masculine plural.
@@novaace2474 hmmm, makes sense. Thanks for clarifying. What's with the pronouns though? Could it be just a case of analogy?
@@lawofseven1465 everything that’s happening here is due to a series of sound shifts. The first one was word final s>j. After that Italian had ej>i and aj>e in unstressed syllables, and j was lost after u and o in unstressed syllables. However word final j is still kept to modern Italian (spelled is i). This is also why the word for 6 in Italian is sei (siks>seks>ses>sei) and totally unrelated to the i in western romance (siks>seks>sehs>seis).
@@novaace2474 When you said "does not cause pluralization (amica>amiche)", did you mean "does not cause _palatalization"_ ?
@@Ice_Karma ya I did, I’ll edit it
Excited for this video! Not too far in but fyi the Romanian translations are quite clumsy. Instead of "Capra le a lăsat în turnul", which is almost non-gramatical, we'd say "Capra le-a lăsat în turn", combining the pronoun with the auxiliary verb and without a definite article. Using the definite article for a location feels very very weird in Romanian.
Oh and the Romanian honorific "dumneavostră" is still conjugated as the second-person plural, unlike in the other languages.
I thought that the Eastern Romance languages didn't actually keep the Nominative form, but the Accusative form, and had a sound change where final /s/ becomes /j/ which coalesces into a more raised/fronted version of the original vowel. Italian does this in some of its verb forms (2nd person singular for example).
There are two main pieces of evidence for this:
Latin 3rd declension nominative singulars had irregular forms compared to the stem for the rest of the paradigm. None (or little to none) of these irregular forms survive in Modern Romance.
Final original -i has palatalising effects on Latin C/G, which (besides a couple irregularities in Latin) do not show in modern Italian. Some languages also have vowel affection umlaut from final -i, but not from final -i that comes from Latin -es.
(I know far more about Italian than Romanian though, so I may be wrong).
This is indeed how it happened, final -as in Classical Latin became -aj in pre-Italian, whence it developed into -e /ɛ/ in plural nouns, and this explains why nouns ending in -ca don't get palatalized in the plural and become -che (vacca => vacche, not *vacce, compare cielo < caelum)
And with -os plurals, -os > -oj > -i, oj would normally have developed into /e/, but since it was often before stressed syllables, it raised to /i/ in final position (compare the raising of re- to ri- and en- to in-, as well as eo > io and deo > Dio)
An interesting case is "amico", where the plural did come from the nominative and gave amici, not *amichi, yet the feminine plural was modeled after the more dominant accusative pattern to become amica => amiche, not *amice
Knowing that Latin diphthongs ae and oe already began to merge into /ɛ/ and /e/ in Classical Latin, we can safely assume that /aj/ and /oj/ underwent a similar fate, while still retaining their backness for long enough to not palatalize the consonants before them
I love how this video is like "the Romance languages lost this feature, but Romanian is special and has something more complex, and often more preserved".
Second closest is Catalan, then French.
A couple of notes for Italian:
- You say that all Romance languages did away with the future perfect, but (unless I've misunderstood something) that corresponds to the Futuro anteriore (La capra avrà lasciato le chiavi nella torre)
- The present perfect tense (and all compound tenses for that matter) don't just use "have" but may also use "be" as the auxiliary verb depending on the succeeding verb and the meaning.
- 20:31 You put the Italian flag in the corner but Italian doesn't have a "going to..." future structure like English or Spanish do.
Feel free to correct me if I got anything wrong.
I agree! For point one, I think he just means the original conjugation dropped and got replaced by the “have” form, similarly to the simple future but in reverse
3:48 Romanian adjectives CAN go in front of the noun, but only for emphasis, but it sounds weird if you do it often, since it sounds like you're trying to make poetry.
And the adjective assumes the definite article if reversed like this.
19:33 The pluperfect was also kept in Romanian, but it was the pluperfect subjunctive form. For example "I had played" is "Jucasem"
If I remember correctly Old French had a nominative (cas sujet) and an oblique case (cas régime, derived from the accusative) in nouns. Most often only the oblique case is preserved, with a couple of exceptions like French soeur (< old French suer < Latin sōror, instead of Old French seror < Latin sorōrem), in this case maybe because of vocative usage.
(also fun: copain < Old French cas. suj. compain, compaing < Latin companio, French and Old French cas. reg. compagnon < Latin companionem, 'person with whom you have bread', a Germanic loan translation)
20:37 Every future in Romanian(except the one that shouldn't be used for writing) uses the verb "a vrea" which means to want, not present tense for "go" + infinitive verb(which is half correct cause we use it for the standard future but for future in the past (viitor anterior) we use the participle of the verb. E.g I will eat=Voi mânca. I will have eaten=Voi fi mâncat. Also î is pronounced a bit wonky but other than that and all the other things the other guys said like the thing with "turnul" cause we don't do that when we don't have an adjective/noun in genitive case after it the video is great! Keep it up!
Sicilian also adds the "otros" at the end of the first and second persons, but doesn't distinguish between feminine and masculine because it's lost the gendered plurals (it's all one big gender) we have:
Nuatri/Nautri/Nuiautri/Nuantri
Vuatri/Vautri/Vuiautri/Vuantri
Depending on dialect. Let me know if you have other questions as sicilian is afterall still one of the most spoken romance languages
Ed. There's also much to say about sicilian verbs: sicilian uses the preterite, just like the iberian languages, and it doesn't compound aviri to make a new verbal forms (so there's already half the forms of normal romance languages), sicilian then proceded to: Merge subjunctive present with indicative present, leaving the subjunctive past as the only subjunctive, and erase the conditional leaving only the subjunctive in hypotetical phrases. "If I were 50, I'd be old" is formed in other romance languages using Subjunctive+Conditional, italian "Se avessi 50 anni, sarei vecchio", but in sicilian there's no distinction, so you use either the subjunctive both times (if it needs both versions to be past) or subjunctive+present indicative (that supplanted present subjunctive) rendering it "S'avissi 50 anni, fussi vecchiu". Another innovation is the loss of a future indicative, which means that the future is rendered using "go+a+infinitive" "Vaiu a mangiari" or "to have+a+infinitive" "Aiu a mangiari" but this is also indicates a sense of obligation "I got to eat". Some sicilian dialects still retain the plusquamperfecto but it just serves as a subjunctive to form hypotheticals. Sicilian also distinguishes between "fortis" (before the noun) and "lenis" (after the noun) possessives, so that (depends on dialect) "my thing" can be said as: Lu ma cosu/Lu cosu mia. Note that possessives are not gendered, "La ma casa/Lu ma cosu.
Good point, however, I disagree over the gendered plurals, desping "i" being the most used plural ending, we also have -a and -ura as neuter plural forms.l
@esti-od1mz yeah, I forgot about them. For context (to readers) unlike other romance languages which put masculine endings on most neuter words in latin, sicilian rather kept them intact, so we have for example "Reedbed" Cannētum/Cannēta in latin, becoming Canneto/Canneti in italian but Cannitu/Cannita in sicilian. The plural article is still ungendered though, in fact, it's just one, "li" unlike italian "i, gli, le" or spanish "los, las".
@flaviomongiovi8105 yep, pretty much
'rien' is pronounced /ʁjɛ̃/, not /ʁjɑ̃/
As a Romanian native speaker, I feel the need to add some remarks:
- You got the goat-tower sentence pretty wrong. It should have been "Capra și-a uitat cheile în turn";
- The SVO word order is preferred, but sometimes the order can differ in casual, informal discussions and especially in poetry. The same thing can be said about the adjectives going before nouns.
- I always thought that the masculine romanian vocative is similar to the Latin one, especially when used on names
- The future in Romanian is not formed with the verb "to go", I think it was formed with "to want"
- "-mente" was actually adopted in Romanian sometimes in the 19th century to a lesser extent. That's why you can find in Romanian words like: actualmente, totalmente, finalmente, completamente, realmente, absolutamente, socialmente etc
For anyone who's wondering how the Latin noun declensions map out onto other Indo-European declensions, here's that:
(PI - Proto-Italic, PS - Proto-Slavic, PG - Proto-Germanic, followed by the nominative singular forms in brackets, also sorry if it looks unreadable on mobile)
I declension: PI ā-stem (-ā), PS a-stem (-a), PG ō-stem (-ō)
II declension: PI o-stem (m. -os, n. -om), PS o-stem (m. -ŭ, n. -o), PG a-stem (m. -az, n. -ą)
III declension (-is): PI i-stem (-is), PS i-stem (-ĭ), PG i-stem (-iz)
III declension (-s): PI consonant stem (-s), PS i-stem (-ĭ), PG consonant stem (-s/-z)
III declension (-us): PI consonant stem (-os), PS s-stem (-o), PG z-stem (-az)
IV declension: PI u-stem (-us), PS u-stem (-ŭ), PG u-stem (-uz)
Wow, thank you. That is enormously informative. Thanks!!!
@prywatne4733 I love this!
This is so damn convenient, i just started work yesterday on a conlang about my own romance language, this along with your summarizing romance sound shifts video are going to be great for that! 👍👍
Capra și-a lasat cheile in turn*
Romanian doesn't use articles with preposition, in turn, pe mare, la plajă, etc,or rather it doesn't so long you don't ,,add" something to the word, for exemple adjectives(în turnul vechi,în turnul înalt, în turnul negru) and with demonstratives, though if the demonstrative comes before the word, it still remains indefinite, exemple: în turnul acela/în acel turn.
Also, about the accusative/nominative thing, I'm a romanian native speaker, and when I started learning german, I was unaccostumed to a nominative/accusative distinction, and also the existence of three genders, and as such, I defaulted to using the masculine accusative for both masculine and neuter nouns, which I find interesting since that's what also happened in latin, the neuter nominative and the masculine accusative merged
20:06
It's not known just as "preterite", but "preterite perfect"
Sometimes in Romanian, the adjective can go before the noun, when you want to place emphasis on the adjective. Example: "o fată frumoasă" (a beautiful girl) can become "frumoasa fată " (and let me quote the Poet here "o prea frumoasă fată "😉).
Pardon me if you know this already, but I think you might be missing something important about the perfect vs. imperfect distinction: It's about whether the verb's action has _finished._ 😻
About Sardinian Language
The structure of a sentence in Sardinian is generally SVO, but with focus fronting, it can become SOV (even the auxiliary can appear after the past participle) in enunciative or interrogative sentences, or OSV in passive ones (though this is a recessive trait).
Here is the translation of the given examples:
Sa craba is craes suas in sa turre lassadu at.
Sa craba in sa turre lassadas l'at.
Adjectives generally follow the noun, except for those expressing esteem (good, great, etc.)
Sardinian has two genders (masculine and feminine), with no neuter. Most nouns derive from the accusative case, except for a few that come from the nominative case:
Corpus (body)
Tempus (time)
Petus (chest)
Pecus (cattle)
Deus (God)
Gesus (Jesus)
The plural is always sigmatic, but with sandhi, or a paragogic vowel before a pause.
The object pronoun derives from the illum case, while articles come from the ipsum case, as follows:
su (masculine singular)
sa (feminine singular)
sos and sas (plural counterparts in northern varieties)
is (plural article for both genders in the south).
From the ipsorum case comes the possessive "issoru" (their).
Note: if the possession belongs to someone else, it is described as "alien," as in Spanish.
The partitive article uses the plural indefinite article but is slightly different from other Western Romance languages: it is "unus/as cantu(s)" (translatable as "some quantity/ies").
Personal pronouns aren't dissimilar from the other Romance languages.
The most conservative dialect still uses latin "ego" (with dialectal variations such as dego, deo, jeo, deu, eu,...), but the third person singular and plural forms again derive from the ipsum case:
issu, issa, issus, issas (he, she, they).
The first-person plural, from "nos" becomes "nois" in the north and "nosu" in the south, with the exclusive form being indicated by adding "others" (nosàteros/as).
The same applies to the second-person plural:
bois and bosu (from "vos").
In the south, bosu is used for politeness in the T-V distinction, while adding "others" gives the standard second-person plural (bosàterus/as). In the north, the same polite form is "bos" which, like bosu, is reserved for strangers (a non-honorific form).
Borrowed from Catalan, there is the honorific third-person singular form "bostè" or "fustei" (with the mentioned north-south distinction). Another more honorific, though recessive, form is "sa mertzè" (Your Grace).
Verbs belong to three conjugations (-are, -ere, -ire) in the north and two in the south (-ai and -i-ri, with the last syllable of the present participle being syncopated in proparoxytone pronunciation)
Verbs are generally regular, except for the usual verb "to be."
The preterite tense is in disuse, especially in the south, where a compound tense is preferred to express a perfect tense, but it endures in the north.
The future tense in the indicative mood has an analytic construction using the auxiliary "to have" in the present tense. The conditional mood is also analytic, using a past tense ("to have" in the south, "to have to" in the north).
The present progressive uses "to be" and not "to stay", this verb is rarely used in Sardinian, especially in the south.
In the south, "to finish to" (amegai) is also used as a periphrastic form, particularly to indicate an imminent or recently completed action (as for Spanish acabar)
Intransitive verbs, as in Italian, require the auxiliary verb "to be."
Sardinian is a pro-drop language, even in the subjunctive mood, unlike Italian.
3:51
Look at "Vermont" for exemple, comming from french "vert mont" (green hill), but usually the word order should be "mont vert". So, what's going on in this case?
Speaking for the romance languages that I know, portuguese; spanish and french, the changing from "noun then adjective" to "adjective then noun" can *also* be something situacional. Sometimes making this change makes your phrase sound more elegant and poetic
Your Latin pronunciation is the most Brazilian thing I’ve ever heard
Important correction about Portuguese pluperfect. At least in Brazil it is considered archaic and isn't used except for literary language and even then it's falling out of favor. We use imperfect "haver/ter" + past participle
You have no idea how entertaining I find this video. Seeing the acc/nom latin demonstrative pronouns become the romance pronouns deeply satisfies me. thank you sir
In catalan, you can also optionally use "pas" for negation alongside "no", so you could say "no l'he vist pas" for "I haven't seen him"
Strong video. Two comments. One, although sound changes may have contributed to French’s non-pro-dropness, there is also an intriguing possibility that the Frankish superstratum contributed. Two, some of you plosives are too loud, especially on headphones. You can fix this with microphone technique (my preference) or by using a pop filter or foam mic cover. I made a video about this and other audio-quality subjects.
Aragonese:
year : anyo
"La craba deixó las suyas claus en a torre" (the goat left her keys in the tower)
night: nueit
Aragonese plurals are just adding -s, sometimes -es.
Man (hand) -> Mans (hands)
Peix (fish) -> Peixes (fish, plural)
However, if the last letter of the word is -t (which is usually silent) the plural is made with -z /θ/
Piet (foot) -> Piez (feet)
Part (part) -> Parz (parts)
Definite articles in Aragonese: Lo, La, Los/Es, Las which can lose the initial L depending on what comes before them.
Indifenite articles: un, una, uns, unas.
We (nosotros, nosaltres): nusatros/as
You pl. (vosotros, vosaltres): vusatros/as
You formal (usted, vostè): vusté
Other subject pronouns: el, ella, els, ellas
Better: millor
Mind: ment (grieument, talment, totalment...)
Conjugation (I'll compare to Spanish) with 1st pers. singular and 2nd pers. plural. Verb redir meaning to laugh:
Present: Rido/Río Rediz/Reís
Imperfect: Rediba/Reía Redibaz/Reíais
Past: Ridié/Reí Ridiez/Reísteis
FUTURE:
Redir/reír + he: rediré/reiré
Redir/reír+ hez/habéis: redirez/reiréis
CONDITIONAL:
Redir/reír + heba/había: redirba/reiría
Redir/reír: hebaz/habíais: redirbaz/reiríais
Aragonese unlike Catalan or Spanish doesn't have 2 verbs meaning "to be", Arag. vs Spanish:
You're doing: Yes fendo / Estás haciendo
You're a woman: Yes una muller / Eres una mujer.
The verb in infinitive form is "estar" but it uses conjugations from other latin verbs just like french. Like in present simple (soi, soz, son...), imperfect past (yera, yeras, yeranos...) or even subjunctive (siga, sigas, sigaz...). It has a different root for past (fue, fues, fuez, fuemos...)
Fun fact since you used the balearic flag for catalan: In balearic catalan, the articles are actually es sa es ses, which come from ipse just as sardinian, although they coexist with the other articles which are used for (more or less) important things
i know i already commented something but i would love to see a video on the sound/grammatical shifts of the austronesian languages.
I was waiting for this vid, thanks for the cool summary! Fascinating, the winding path Romanian took.
I'd imagine the reason the Latin perfect is called that instead of preterite is because that's what the ancient grammarians called it. In Latin "perfectus" just meant "finished." It may have something to do with the Greek perfect which was closer to the modern linguistic definition of the term and which is partially cognate with the Latin. Or perhaps it was just a matter of "perfectus" being contrasted with "imperfectus." I'm just speculating.
Video's pretty good but as a native speaker of the langauge, I have to say that the Romanian you use can be pretty sloppy at times. If you ever do something with it again, I'd be totally down to proofread your stuff!
Small correction at 16:53. The adverbial ending does not derive from the accusative but from the ablative. This was an ablative of instrument or ablative of manner, which has a very natural adverbial meaning. Even in English, “with rapid speed” intuitively should means “speedily”. That said, I am well aware the ablative and accusative became identical in pronunciation but this construction appears in documents which clearly mark final -m. We see the construction “altera mente” in a legal document and “sola mente” in the Vulgate by the 8th century but we know people wrote “ide” for “idem” by the 4th century thanks to the Appendix Probi. Therefore speakers knew it was an ablative “mente” and not accusative “mentem” even as the cases blurred
Aaamm short correction about romanian, on adjectice placement where you`re saying that all adjectives go after the noun it`s not entirely true......adjective can also be positioned before or after the noun it`s just the sentences will change a little bit depending how you say it, but in some instances where you put the adjective in front of the noun the rest of sentence will remain unchanged...and also with the grammatical cases I`m not sure about the slavic borrowing, the way the case system is formed in romanian is the same as how the definite article is form....it take place inside the word marges with it, called enclitic, wich this could be something native to the balkans, because it happens also in albanian and greek language, bulgarian being the only slavic language that does this, wich lead some of the linguists to theorise that when the roman colonists came in the region and interacted with the locals, they adopted this feature, like I said the thing with ,,slavic influence,, is inflated a bit too much to almost stupidity....like I said the bulgarian launguage is the only slavic language that does this
very specific add on, since you saw fit to add the balearic flag to represent catalan: just as in sardinian, the definite articles in the balearic dialect also descend from ipse!! as such, you get es, sa, s', sos and ses as the definitive article. you also get llur as a very formal third person possessive, but i haven't seen it used outside of either academic texts or just straight up historical medieval texts like les quatre grans cròniques
10:06 I see that in the Mallorcan dialect of Catalan, the definite articles are quite similar to Sardinian.
Standard Catalan definite articles are: *el* (masc. sing.), *la* (fem. sing.), *l'* (masc. or fem. sing., if following noun starts with a vowel), *els* (masc. pl.), *les* (fem.pl.).
Mallorcan definite articles are: *so* (masc. sing.), *sa* (fem. sing.), *s'* (masc. or fem. sing., if following noun starts with a vowel), *sos* (masc. pl.), *ses* (fem.pl.).
(Some exceptions exist.)
Italian has a nominative/vocative distinction. When discussing someone you normally but an article in front of their name, but if you are calling out to them (vocative) then you drop the article.
RAHHHHH IVE BEEN WAITING FOR THIS
So, Portuguese is the only language with either pluperfect tense or future subjunctive? Well I guess I must fight anglicization of the language all the harder.
wtf is a future subjonctive ???
Spanish has the future subjunctive but it isn’t used much anymore
Fun fact in some parts of Colombia we still use the second person pronoun “su merced” or “sumercé”.
The present active infinitive in Latin could sometimes be used as a nominative gerund, so I wonder if the thing with -re in Romanian has anything to do with that
I suspect it does
I got clickbaited by friulan in the thumbnail, it's the second time in my life that I hear foreigners mention it
16:02 -- There are three superlative suffixes in Latin. -issimus/um/a for most 1st and 2nd declensions, -errimus/a/um for 1st and 2nd declinations with a -er stem, and -illimus for 3rd declension. These suffixes still survive, at least in Portuguese. Nobre/nobilíssimo (noble), Fácil/facílimo (easy), pobre/paupérrimo (poor).
I really appreaciate your focus on small details like this with catalan flag
21:55 Catalan and Aragonesd also do this in some cases (they have the pas, mica, gota, brenca...). Occitan does the same as French or even just drop the "no" part
I was so waiting for this one because I never found a pleasant explanation for why the accusative got chosen over the more intuitive nominative
Actually in Spanish the Latin pluperfect survived! Only, it changed its function to be one of the two possible forms of the imperfect subjunctive (the other form evolved from the latin perfect subjunctive), such as "amara" (o amase)
3:26 the french sentence (specifically "les a laissées") is very fun to say lmao
You forgot "ello" and "- ilo" for Spanish and Portuguese. One of the rare instances it can me neuter. For example, "aquel, aquella, aquello" and "aquele, aquela, aquilo"
4:00 There are at least 2 adjectives that as far as I know cannot go after the noun, "biet" (poor dog) and "ditai/ditamai" (huge)
"biet câine" and not "câine biet"
"ditamai câinele" (ditamai also has the quirk of making the noun it modifies definite due to etymology)
Will Romanian ever stop being so based?
Catalan from the Balearic islands and some costal towns in Catalonia also use articles that come from IPSE instead of ILLE. I think it would've been nice to note that since the Catalan flag you use represents those dialects 😅
15:06: I tried *dumneanoastră* with my Romanian wife, but she just said that it was not a thing.
"DumneaNoastră" 😂
good job! love your vids man
9:46 some dialects of Catalan (like Balearic) also did that
for example, 'the islands":
"standard' Catalan: les illes
Majorcan Catalan: ses illes
The periphrastic past is a confusion from occitan
One thing that’s infuriating is how in Portuguese the personal infinitive and the future subjunctive actually use two different stems. Most of the time the stem of the verb doesn’t change but for some verbs it does. So take ‘fazer’ the infinitive is of course ‘fazer’ but the future subjunctive is ‘fizer’ using the same stem as the preterit. So you have to be careful not to think of these two tenses as the same
18:35 did this also happen to Catalan? (And Occitan)
Deux observations
1) Plus lentement!!
2) Moins mots sur l'ecran
Ακόμα περιμένουμε το βίντεο για τα ελληνικά :)
As a native speaker, I have no trouble understanding him, but I concede that he speaks rapider than average. I enjoy the on-screen mots, sometimes pausing the video to more closely examine, for example, tables of conjugations.
I agree! If the words are necessary, they must be left with enough time to be read and digested. The same with every sentence uttered. Make short pauses and slow down!
IN Romanian the adjective before the noun changes the affectional meaning. In the case like this: Săracul Ion vs Ion cel sărac have different meanings.
I think using classical Latin at first to show the general tendencies is important, but obviously to get into the logic of the actual evolution that happened, Late Latin would be better.
What about the neuter gender in astur-leonese? How did that evolve?
Seeing you use different ways "r" is pronounced in portuguese threw me off a lot lol
The rules for Portuguese rhotics are complicated. Sometimes uvular, sometimes alveolar.
To be fair though his take is on them is kinda off. He uses mostly velar sounds but, as a brazilian native speaker, they tend to be either uvular or an aspirate /h/. As far as I'm aware, portuguese from portugal is the same, but given he uses the brazilian flag I suppose his attempt was to capture brazilian pronunciation.
@@lawofseven1465 Yeah, seeing two velar fricatives instead of h or small caps R w/ our flag is what threw me off
18:44 Si no estoy mal has dicho que eres hablante nativo de español, y yo como otro hablante nativo de español te digo que nunca he escuchado a a alguien usar el verbo "prender" para "atrapar", sino como sinónimo de encender, no se si sea algo de tu dialecto o no sé.
Igual el vídeo estuvo increíble y muy completo.
No soy hablante nativo, sólo tengo mucha experiencia con el idioma. No creo que he dicho "prender" ninguna vez en mi vida en español, tenía que buscar la palabra para encontrar una traducción. Quizás es una diferencia dialectal
3:04 “Capra a lasat cheile ei in turnul “ is wrong
The correct-ish one would be
“Capra a lasat cheile ei in turn” - no article when the noun is preceeded by a preposition and not followed by an adjective or clause
The gramatically correct one would be
“Capra și-a lasat cheile in turn”
or
“Și-a lasat capra cheile in turn”
Both using the dative/genitive possesive on the verb ( which is obligatory when the direct object is posessed ) and omitting it (optionally) on the noun “cheile” to avoid redundancy
Also in the second one the verb is first ( word order is flexible in romanian, and quite usually in speech in subordinate sentences comes first )
French leur, Italian loro, Romanian lor, Catalan llur
the red and yellow flag is present on all catalan speaking regions because of the crown of aragon they belonged to. It's also present in Aragón, Provenza and other plaaces. The empty senyera is a symbol of all the places that belonged to this crown, not only Catalonia, but Catalonia chose it as it's flag with no additions becuase they were the first territory out of all the crown of Aragon members to become an autonomous community. It's not like Catalonia owned any of the other places around it or something, just clearing this up
I'm dying with the Catalan flag bit, absolute king behaviour 👑
"I'll just use the Balearic Islands' flag for this video"
Ah, yes. You can't please everybody, but you sure can piss everybody the same. The old reliable.
(I am not mad at all I just found it funny how you reached that conclusion LMAO)
((Also you're probably pissing off the Balearians because a good bunch of them will die swearing they don't speak Catalan but Balearic, pretty much like a sizable amount of Valencians. We bunch at els països catalans sure are weird lmao 💀💀greetings from Barcelona))
Friendship ended with català-valencià-balear
Ibero-oriental is my new best friend
"but what about Alguerè-" calla't
A couple of notes on Italian that somebody could find interesting.
In Italian the position of adjectives can give a different nuance in some cases. The most common example is "buon uomo" ("good man", as in an honest and law-abiding man, but nothing particularly good with respect to other people) and "uomo buono" ("man good", ethically better than others), which are used in different contexts and are not interchangeable. In other cases the adjective can come before the noun to emphasise the adjective or for other more or less poetic purposes (so as to make prose sound more formal and poetic, where the position can also give some nuances)
Regarding the pronouns, it could be interesting to note that the function of "is, ea, id" in Latin has been assumed by "esso, essa" (something/someone aleady known), coming from "ipse" & co., but they're not much used anymore, I guess.
In addition, the plural 2nd person is also a polite form still in use to an extent (in the South mostly, I've been told), and is perceived as respectful as "lei" but without the willingly cold disattachment "lei" might sometimes convey. It could be due to Spanish influence, though.
There is no reason to think that the Vocative in Romanian is borrowed from Slavic, except for the -o ending for feminine nouns (also thisnk of the substratum), which is compettion with the -ă/-e ending: Mario / Marie , Ileană/Ileană.
We know that the transformation of Latin into proto-Romanian was finished by the time the Slavs migrated into Roman/ian area North and South of Danube. Maybe it could suggested that the Slavic enriched or maube supported the use of Vocative in Romanian.
Also notice, that some Slavic languages, like Slovak, do not have vocative.
Some occitan dialects use -i for plurals, like Aranese
I'm still trying to find the answer of why all those languages developed definite articles in their own. Why the sudden need to talk about definitiveness?
@@josephang9927 I believe it was due to Greek influence
14:49 if I understand correctly you’re implying that vos is less formal than vostè in Catalan (which is certainly not the case, you would only use vos in literary or historical contexts, while vostè is the usual respectful form, just like usted in Spanish). If anything that would be the case with some American varieties of Spanish (Argentinian), that use voseo
12:40 don't know about france but here in canada to add emphasis we can add autres at the end of vous and nous. i speak spanish and i never made the connection until now.
C'est possible pour marquer une distinction de groupe
Why are you mad at friulian, what did we do know😂
I think because you use -s in plural and not -i/-e, so he had to draw a large line around you? Or that is what it looked like. :)
@weepingscorpion8739 fair enough lol
i wonder is the modern Italian passato remoto tense (andare -> andai) and the french passe' simple tense derive from the perfect tense in latin? I don't know how else they would have contrived it
They do, they're related to the preterite!
3:15 I was about to correct you to say that it should be "la chèvre les a laissé" not "la chèvre les a laissées", but then I double checked and apparently a participe passé after avoir does agree with a noun, but only when it's a direct object pronoun?? I didn't think French verbs ever agreed with their objects, how confusing. I wonder how that happened!
basically scolars maked up this bullshit
2 rules :
to be "être" : always agree
to have "avoir" : agree ONLY IF THE PAST PARTICIPEL IS PLACE BEFORE
But aniway, it's not even prononce
A thought regarding romanian 'niste': it sounds like south slavic 'nešto' (something)
To me, it sounded closer to serbo-croatian 'ništa' (nothing) lol
3:25 in Galician and European Portuguese the pronoun MUST go after the verb.
why did it sound at the end as if you where talking in portughese?
Great video! Interesting Latin pronunciation…
0:59 ✊️ lol
Oh Romanian
Pronouncing Catalan like Catalon was kind of weird to me
Eu sem entender porra nenhuma.
Lol, the Latin in the end was pretty butchered, but by far most sentences were intelligible, especially for someone who knows modern European languages.
I thought that Romanian didn't retain a case system from Latin in nouns, except in the masculine vocative. I've always heard it explained as the suffixation of pronouns (or something like that, i don't remember).
but i don't know i don't know that much about romanian
Yeah, when I learned Romanian many years back I was kinda "disappointed" to see that the case system on the surface at least looked like nothing more than pronouns being attached to the nouns.
Also romanian has 5 cases, but the N/Acc and G/D are identical in nouns. We do learn them as different cases in school, and in pronouns they are very different
Hey, as a Valencian: don't you know of the concept of pancatalanism? "Països Catalans"? The estelada is a pancatalanist symbol too, it's common in nationalist manifestations in the País Valencià. I mean, it's more complicated than that, but it would be wrong to call it just a symbol of Catalonia. I would consider it the best option as a flag for the whole language, better than the plain senyera, even if the plain senyera is in fact the flag of some valencian towns like Ontinyent and prefered by some valencian people to the official Comunitat Valenciana València-centric blue-striped flag
Salve, nação latina.
your romanian sentences are not correct
lets go
why would you use brazilian portuguese but not european portuguese...
I didn't comment it on last video but as a Valencian speaker the claim that "Catalan reduced final [a] to [ə]" feels very wrong. I am totally sincere when I tell you I was disoriented for a moment, not understanding what you where talking about. And the same happened even this second time