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sold two shares at $150 at Jan 01, 2013 à 150/2 = $75/ share price plus $3 dividend. The share was purchased at $60. So the return is 78 / 60 = 30%, i.e. 1+ 30% = 1.30. IFT Support Team
@@IFT-CFA I think there should be a $6 dividend paid out at end of year 2, due to the fact that we have 2 shares, right?. Therefore, shouldn´t it be 81/60?.
@20:58 CF 2 is 57 how? isn't she holding 2 shares at end of 2 years? shouldn't it(div) be 6 instead? (in question it says each share pays $3) and just 150 in year 3? please advise @IFT
@@anikamorrison-clarke5283 thanks! understanding it now! but share of 60 bought purchased on 1/12 - isn't that held for an year? shouldn't it be receiving dividend? so is it each stock here is held for 2 years to be eligible for a dividend?
@@pavitra1578 IMO, this makes the question even more confusing because companies are technically not guaranteed to pay out dividends. This question is making us make lots of assumptions about this and thus can come to different answers. Or maybe I'm just a baby learner and don't understand it well enough yet
While calculating the time weighted rate of return you did not include reinvestment of 1 share @ Rs 22.5 on second year. The rate of return including repurchased share will be: ((23.5+23.5+1)-(20+22.5))/(20+22.5))=12.94%. So weighted return of 2 year will be (15%+12.94%)/2=13.97%
He has directly used the financial calculator inorder to get the irr you just need to plug in Cashflows and press IRR and you get the answer on calculator. If you want to know formula you can use the same formula as NPV = PV of Cash inflows - pv of cash outflows but npv should be 0 for irr so 0= (Cash inflow/(1+irr)^n)- cash outflow and you can plug in numbers and solve this equation
at t = 2, value is $24. Thus return is 24 / 22.5 -1 = 6.67%. The dividend of $0.50 from the first share is paid out and is not considered as part of the portfolio. IFT support team
@@IFT-CFA If the dividend paid out is not considered, then in the example at @22:02 why are we not considering the dividend of $3 paid out instead of considered in TWRR calculation?
The investor received 1st dividend at the end of year 1 and then sold the shares at the end of year 2 or start of year 3, so he did receive another dividend at end of year 2. IFT support team
Active learning is proven to increase understanding and retention by 3 times! To master the Level I Curriculum in 3 simple steps - visit: ift.world/active-learning/
I’m so happy 😊😊
@IFT at 22.09, how do you get the return of 1.3 for the 2nd period sir? Much appreciated
kindly explain@IFT
sold two shares at $150 at Jan 01, 2013 à 150/2 = $75/ share price plus $3 dividend. The share was purchased at $60. So the return is 78 / 60 = 30%, i.e. 1+ 30% = 1.30.
IFT Support Team
@@IFT-CFA I think there should be a $6 dividend paid out at end of year 2, due to the fact that we have 2 shares, right?. Therefore, shouldn´t it be 81/60?.
@@juliogonzalez1613 But you are also dividing by 2. Hence you are only left with $3 per dividend
ruclips.net/video/FePaJoXno_M/видео.html for those who still don't understand
at 22:29 for tw, in 2nd year won't dividend also come in calculating the return?
@20:58 CF 2 is 57 how? isn't she holding 2 shares at end of 2 years? shouldn't it(div) be 6 instead? (in question it says each share pays $3) and just 150 in year 3? please advise @IFT
I had an issue with that too. I just hope he sees this and clarifies why it isn't $6
@@anikamorrison-clarke5283 thanks! understanding it now! but share of 60 bought purchased on 1/12 - isn't that held for an year? shouldn't it be receiving dividend?
so is it each stock here is held for 2 years to be eligible for a dividend?
@@pavitra1578 IMO, this makes the question even more confusing because companies are technically not guaranteed to pay out dividends. This question is making us make lots of assumptions about this and thus can come to different answers. Or maybe I'm just a baby learner and don't understand it well enough yet
I love how I can hear the classroom in the back xD
While calculating the time weighted rate of return you did not include reinvestment of 1 share @ Rs 22.5 on second year. The rate of return including repurchased share will be: ((23.5+23.5+1)-(20+22.5))/(20+22.5))=12.94%.
So weighted return of 2 year will be (15%+12.94%)/2=13.97%
could you show the calculations for IRR of -50, -57 and +156
Sir, at 9:16, how did you calculate the IRR to be 6.62%? What is the formula used please? Thanks a lot!
does anyone know the answer please?
He has directly used the financial calculator inorder to get the irr you just need to plug in Cashflows and press IRR and you get the answer on calculator. If you want to know formula you can use the same formula as NPV = PV of Cash inflows - pv of cash outflows but npv should be 0 for irr so 0= (Cash inflow/(1+irr)^n)- cash outflow and you can plug in numbers and solve this equation
@ 11:46 For the 2nd period return how are you getting 6.67% (also why aren't you including the dividend on the other share?)
at t = 2, value is $24. Thus return is 24 / 22.5 -1 = 6.67%. The dividend of $0.50 from the first share is paid out and is not considered as part of the portfolio.
IFT support team
@@IFT-CFA If the dividend paid out is not considered, then in the example at @22:02 why are we not considering the dividend of $3 paid out instead of considered in TWRR calculation?
@@RishabhJain-jc9cp Please explain this question. @IFT
Sir if we are including the dividend in the CF1 as -3 and also CF2 doesn't it shows a double counting of the same dividend?
The investor received 1st dividend at the end of year 1 and then sold the shares at the end of year 2 or start of year 3, so he did receive another dividend at end of year 2.
IFT support team
@@IFT-CFA IT IS WRITTEN EACH SHARE PAID 3$ DIVIDEND AT THE END OF THE YEAR AND NOT AT THE END OF THE EACH YEAR !!!
Won,t able to calculate irr and tw.
how to calculate irr ? should we first calculate npv ? @21:47
No direct formula only hit and trial or financial calculator