Very informative! A patient has an APOB of 62mg/dl, an LDL-C of 45mg/dl (Lipitor and Zetia induced) so all good, but then an LP(a) of 68mg/dl. How can that be since LP(a) is a subfraction of LDL and APOB? I can almost understand how the LDL can be 45 because of the commentary starting at 48:00. But the LP(a) particles are in the 90 percentile, while the APOB is 5-6 percentile. Does this make sense? All other CVD risk factors are under control. Comments welcome.
Very informative! A patient has an APOB of 62mg/dl, an LDL-C of 45mg/dl (Lipitor and Zetia induced) so all good, but then an LP(a) of 68mg/dl.
How can that be since LP(a) is a subfraction of LDL and APOB? I can almost understand how the LDL can be 45 because of the commentary starting at 48:00. But the LP(a) particles are in the 90 percentile, while the APOB is 5-6 percentile. Does this make sense? All other CVD risk factors are under control. Comments welcome.