Hello pradam Sir ji.. Hello Sir I m requesting to you that plzzz check the Q. No. 28th 2nd statement, the value of gini coefficient 1 referring perfect equality in income distribution which is I think given a false statement Sir ji, I think the value 1 shows perfect inequality and zero shows the perfect equality in income distribution bczz Sir! equality line can drawn diagonally from Origin O with respect to Lorenz curve plzz sir concern once more about this 28th q. 2nd statement.
Sir aap bahut accha padhte hai aur sirf aapke padhaye huye content par hi trust hai soo please sir aap ek revision session start kariye jisme do tin ghante ka ek session micro and macro aise sare units ka session kar dijiye sir please please ........ every students want this please do this we need it .........we request to you..🙏🙏
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During the class...my answers are right but concept behind that particular answer is completely different from your explanation Sir.... God knows what will I do in my upcoming exam 🤐🤐
Q28. In Gini coefficient 1---> perfectly inequality & 0 implies perfectly equality. In Harrod model if Gw AD>AS it means one should have continuously increase unemployment so that achieve steady state equilibrium. Kindly check is it so?? H@ppy
I think that when Gw greater than Gn it's make a inflationary situation and we know that inflation and unemployment are inverse related so unemployment decrease. What's u r opinion dear friend
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Hello pradam Sir ji.. Hello Sir I m requesting to you that plzzz check the Q. No. 28th 2nd statement, the value of gini coefficient 1 referring perfect equality in income distribution which is I think given a false statement Sir ji, I think the value 1 shows perfect inequality and zero shows the perfect equality in income distribution bczz Sir! equality line can drawn diagonally from Origin O with respect to Lorenz curve plzz sir concern once more about this 28th q. 2nd statement.
Very very helpful session for us Sir. We are eagerly waiting your magical Instant Economics session... Thanks sir.
Thank you so much sir❤ your sessions are always helpful.
For question no. 28
Value of gini coefficient 1 means perfect inequality and value 0 means perfect inequality
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Sir aap bahut accha padhte hai aur sirf aapke padhaye huye content par hi trust hai soo please sir aap ek revision session start kariye jisme do tin ghante ka ek session micro and macro aise sare units ka session kar dijiye sir please please ........ every students want this please do this we need it .........we request to you..🙏🙏
Very helpful thank you sir for this wonderful explanations
Wonderful 😊
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aap best ho sir! ty for the session
Great explanation from great sir
Awesome session as always..... 👌👌🎊 Thanks a lot sir for bringing such informative and interesting session with lots of new concepts... 🙏😇🤗😊
Nice explanation sir , Thankyou so much sir 👍👍👍👍
Glad you liked it, keep learning.
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Nice explain sir ji
Easy paper
Heartly explained sir
Thanks sir
Most welcome
Sir aap ki explanation ke marginal utility kabhi kam nehin hota hai balki badhta har waqt
Thanku sir very magically session
Grt explanation sir ❤️❤️❤️ thanks for everything
Keep watching
Thank you so much sir 🙏🙏🙏🙏 awesome explanation sir 🙏🙏🙏
Excellent class sir
Thank you😊
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Thank you so much sir..ji..
Thankyou so much sir..... Hope u will come soon with the series of instant economics....😊😊😊
41. sir optimum tariff is 1/e-1 then it should be 1/1-1=infinity. isnt it
Thanks sir
0 shows perfect equality
1 shows perfect inequality
Sir thoda sa or smjha dia kriy hindi me bhi , tnq sir nyc session
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During the class...my answers are right but concept behind that particular answer is completely different from your explanation Sir....
God knows what will I do in my upcoming exam 🤐🤐
You'll do good! Keep practicing
Sir u gave wrong answers for q 21 and 28.plz correct
21 ka sahi kya hoga?
(21:54)
Sir I have paid for the six months online class programme, but i didn't get the class access, please help me!!
Q28. In Gini coefficient 1---> perfectly inequality &
0 implies perfectly equality.
In Harrod model if Gw AD>AS it means one should have continuously increase unemployment so that achieve steady state equilibrium.
Kindly check is it so??
H@ppy
I agreed with u dear friend
I think that when Gw greater than Gn it's make a inflationary situation and we know that inflation and unemployment are inverse related so unemployment decrease. What's u r opinion dear friend
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Most welcome 😊
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Q 21 ,28 answer is wrong pllzzz check again
okay
Thank you so much sir👍