@@ShanBojack Replace C with C(x) which you take to be an even function. Follow the same steps (actually the fact that C(x) is unchanged under the transformation x = -x is enough) and you'll see how it works out the same!
Great idea. Very surprising. It could be proved also by splitting the range of integration into the intervals (-a,0) and (0,a) giving one intergral int_{0}^{a} f(x) (1/(1+C^g) +1/(1+C^(-g))dx. But (1/(1+C^g) +1/(1+C^(-g))=(1/(1+C^g) +C^g/(C^(g)+1)=(1+C^g)/(1+C^g)=1.
First off, when integrating using Riemann integration we can just split up the integral by the limits avoiding x= 0 (integrating from -pi/2 to (0-) and 0+ to pi/2). Also, since e^(1/x) is on the bottom of the integrand, when it blows up to infinity our integrand just goes to 0 anyways. However, it is always a good practice to check for these sorts of things when doing integration.
True. I have mostly dealt with with integrals involving c=e and these problems are a cake walk as we already have solved a lot of integrals of this kind
Jee aspirants are always overconfident on their useless speed In mathematics speed is useless which you can't understand because your obnoxious attitude will not allow you to do so 😏
Please show me the magic of your 《☆JEE☆》 speed on this problem ∫∫∫...(n times)∫(e^(-x^n - y^n - z^n - ... - w^n) * cos(ax^(n-1) + by^(n-1) + cz^(n-1) + ... + vw^(n-1))) dxdydz...dw
The C in the denomanitor doesnt necessarily need to be a constant. it could be an even function too.
then it will become more easy
Nice
How? can you please elaborate
@@ShanBojack Replace C with C(x) which you take to be an even function. Follow the same steps (actually the fact that C(x) is unchanged under the transformation x = -x is enough) and you'll see how it works out the same!
Dude I’m crying but that roast was worth it, great content!
Thanks bro😂
@@maths_505 Shouldn't that be "sorry bro"? LOL
He said great content so I said thanks.....why be apologetic?
We are all proud members of the same cult here 🤣
A wise man once said : "We don't give a f**k about impressing anyone, we're here to do math because we love it"
Great idea. Very surprising.
It could be proved also by splitting the range of integration into the intervals (-a,0) and (0,a) giving one intergral int_{0}^{a} f(x) (1/(1+C^g) +1/(1+C^(-g))dx. But (1/(1+C^g) +1/(1+C^(-g))=(1/(1+C^g) +C^g/(C^(g)+1)=(1+C^g)/(1+C^g)=1.
Don't call us out like that! great video
Words spoken were all damn accurate
😂😂😂
@@maths_505 u didnt say blackpenredpen tho.... :(
Brilliant solution. Thanks!
You underestimate my friends' level of nerdiness.
I tried this in a party once and got banished
Welcome to the cult
Smart way to solve this integrals. So, Thank you for your amazing effort.
The way you just called me out on the going to parties part ToT
😂😂😂
Best video so far!!
Don’t worry man! You will be invited to a party one day.
Come to Tel Aviv, here us nerds live in peace with the hipsters
I'm watching this instead of going to a party lol
F**king legend
Dude rly knows his audience
I feel like I have been called out, subscribed
Not the roast 😭
good job bro
pls make a video on gamma functions and zetta functions
love from india
Cool🔥
Wouldnt it possibly to solve the integral with any constant instead of 1 (by just adding the parts with the necessary factor infront)?
At 6:13 i thought you write -1 × 1
Then i realised the maths tournament😂😂
asnwer=1 cos
You didn't have to eviscerate all of us in the first 2 minutes bro lol
I'd say that we should be proud of it😂😂😂
1:32 😭 broooo
Huh but this time i knew what you would do so i am happy
Wow, that intro got me
Do you have more problems like these
You can make them yourself according to the generalised integral I solved.
That's cool.
Int 0 to infinity tan³x/1+x³ dx please solve this one
❤ nice bro
" **Old** Flammable Maths videos"... ouch
Il 1 è semplice ...basta mettere x>π/2-π/2-x...I+I=2....I=1....il 2 uguale I=1/3
It feels like we should be concerned about integrability of the original integrand as well. For example, thinking about e^(1/x) at x=0.
*whispers "principal value" softly*
First off, when integrating using Riemann integration we can just split up the integral by the limits avoiding x= 0 (integrating from -pi/2 to (0-) and 0+ to pi/2). Also, since e^(1/x) is on the bottom of the integrand, when it blows up to infinity our integrand just goes to 0 anyways. However, it is always a good practice to check for these sorts of things when doing integration.
Ignore that 1 point
Remember this one from the Integration bee right?
just got dogged by this exam and i come home to a great vid thanks.
Ah man I'm sorry about the exam....you'll get em next time Insha'Allah 🔥🔥🔥
8.28 min, not impossible)
Not anymore😂
Hey I come here to solve integrals, not to be psychoanalyzed
4th wall break 😂😂😂
Welcome to the cult bro😂😂😂
I got an idea just host your oen party and invite yourself
Modern problems require modern solutions
meanwhile jee students solving these integrals within 30sec
True. I have mostly dealt with with integrals involving c=e and these problems are a cake walk as we already have solved a lot of integrals of this kind
Indians spotted
@@Anonymous-Indian..2003 😂😂😂
Jee aspirants are always overconfident on their useless speed
In mathematics speed is useless which you can't understand because your obnoxious attitude will not allow you to do so 😏
@srinivasRamanujan123 ma boi spitting straight facts
how to solve these integrals without using this technique ?
Using Riemann sums
@@maths_505 lol
@metuphys5611 couldn't give him false hope 😂
I want to develop my problem solving skills. What I do? Please give some positive response.
Just study as much math as possible. Problem solving becomes easy once you understand the material
Nice! ,But no 69 example this time?🤣
F**k I forgot 😂
@@maths_505 well 69 is odd so i forgive you this time😃
@@yoav613 Lol.
LoL 😂 . Similar questions come in my JEE ADVANCED mock tests . This pattern is pretty famous here .
Wow 😮
No one cares 😏
@@Maths_3.1415 ya bro , I can send you some really good questions of my mocks if you want 😅
first
Average JEE problem
Please show me the magic of your 《☆JEE☆》 speed on this problem
∫∫∫...(n times)∫(e^(-x^n - y^n - z^n - ... - w^n) * cos(ax^(n-1) + by^(n-1) + cz^(n-1) + ... + vw^(n-1))) dxdydz...dw