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It's very clear and Simple. Thank you Ma'am. My request: Please explain on the topic: Cobb-Doghlass Production Function and CES These topics are very difficult to understand. Please ma'am make a video on this
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Good morning ma'am.. if the aggregate demand exceeds the aggregate output in full employment level, even then the output can be increased by the firms by purchasing more capital goods (hence, investing more). This will lead to more output even in full employment (in full employment, Keynes said that output cannot be increased further). This way Keynes theory explained above gets violated. Could you please guide me here??
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Your question is about the Keynesian model of aggregate demand and aggregate supply, and the concept of inflationary gap. According to this model, when the aggregate demand exceeds the aggregate output at the full employment level, there is an inflationary gap, which means that the economy is producing more than its potential output, and there is upward pressure on the price level. Keynes argued that in the long run, the economy would adjust to this situation by reducing the aggregate demand, either through a fall in consumption, investment, government spending, or net exports, or through an increase in taxes or interest rates. This would bring the economy back to the full employment equilibrium, where the aggregate demand equals the aggregate supply at the potential output level. However, you are wondering if the firms can increase the output even further by purchasing more capital goods, and thus investing more. This would shift the aggregate supply curve to the right, and increase the potential output of the economy. However, this would also reduce the inflationary gap, as the aggregate demand would now be closer to the aggregate supply. Therefore, the Keynesian theory would not be violated, as the economy would still tend to move towards the full employment equilibrium in the long run.
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It's very helpful for us maam.. Ur teaching techniques r more satisfied. 👍🏻
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Difficult concept is explained in lucid way.... thank you very much.
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Ok Madam.
Big thank u mam..... Ur explaination goes directly in mind
Hi,
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Thankyou so much mam. Very good and easy explanation of the concepts. It is very helpful. Thanks a lot mam.
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It's very clear and Simple.
Thank you Ma'am.
My request:
Please explain on the topic:
Cobb-Doghlass Production Function and
CES
These topics are very difficult to understand.
Please ma'am make a video on this
Hi,
We'll definitely come up with a video on it soon.
Meanwhile if you think our video was helpful, then it would be great if you could take out time and give us a review here www.google.com/maps/place/Ecoholics/@12.9378327,77.6249581,17z/data=!3m1!4b1!4m5!3m4!1s0x397c434f623eb0fb:0xbad4719aba506f5f!8m2!3d12.9377689!4d77.627188
Thank you 😊
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thanks for the video !
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Good morning ma'am..
if the aggregate demand exceeds the aggregate output in full employment level, even then the output can be increased by the firms by purchasing more capital goods (hence, investing more). This will lead to more output even in full employment (in full employment, Keynes said that output cannot be increased further).
This way Keynes theory explained above gets violated. Could you please guide me here??
Hi Bharat,
We'll be happy to solve your doubts and queries.
Download the Ecoholics app for FREE doubt-solving facilities and full LIVE courses on UGC-NET, Economics optional for UPSC, Indian Economic Service, Econometrics, and many more.
ecoholics.in/mobile-app/
Website - ecoholics.in/
For Enquiry: 7880107880
Your question is about the Keynesian model of aggregate demand and aggregate supply, and the concept of inflationary gap. According to this model, when the aggregate demand exceeds the aggregate output at the full employment level, there is an inflationary gap, which means that the economy is producing more than its potential output, and there is upward pressure on the price level. Keynes argued that in the long run, the economy would adjust to this situation by reducing the aggregate demand, either through a fall in consumption, investment, government spending, or net exports, or through an increase in taxes or interest rates. This would bring the economy back to the full employment equilibrium, where the aggregate demand equals the aggregate supply at the potential output level.
However, you are wondering if the firms can increase the output even further by purchasing more capital goods, and thus investing more. This would shift the aggregate supply curve to the right, and increase the potential output of the economy. However, this would also reduce the inflationary gap, as the aggregate demand would now be closer to the aggregate supply. Therefore, the Keynesian theory would not be violated, as the economy would still tend to move towards the full employment equilibrium in the long run.
I always pronounce Ecoholics as Eco Horlicks.....😂😂
👍🏿
Hi Neeraj,
Thank you for your appreciation, it would mean a lot to us if you could spend 2 minutes and give us a review here www.google.com/maps/place/Ecoholics/@12.9378327,77.6249581,17z/data=!3m1!4b1!4m5!3m4!1s0x397c434f623eb0fb:0xbad4719aba506f5f!8m2!3d12.9377689!4d77.627188